Search Results

Search found 23613 results on 945 pages for 'query parameters'.

Page 864/945 | < Previous Page | 860 861 862 863 864 865 866 867 868 869 870 871  | Next Page >

  • HTML5 <audio> Safari live broadcast vs not

    - by Peter Parente
    I'm attempting to embed an HTML5 audio element pointing to MP3 or OGG data served by a PHP file . When I view the page in Safari, the controls appear, but the UI says "Live Broadcast." When I click play, the audio starts as expected. Once it ends, however, I can't start it playing again by clicking play. Even using the JS API on the audio element and setting currentTime to 0 fails with an index error exception. I suspected the headers from the PHP script were the problem, particularly missing a content length. But that's not the case. The response headers include a proper Content- Length to indicate the audio has finite size. Furthermore, everything works as expected in Firefox 3.5+. I can click play on the audio element multiple times to hear the sound replay. If I remove the PHP script from the equation and serve up a static copy of the MP3 file, everything works fine in Safari. Does this mean Safari is treating audio src URLs with query parameters differently than URLs that don't have them? Anyone have any luck getting this to work? My simple example page is: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head></head> <body> <audio controls autobuffer> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.ogg" /> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.mp3" /> </audio> </body> </html> HTTP Headers from PHP script: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 15:39:34 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.10 Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=98 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg HTTP Headers from direct file access: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 20:06:59 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 03:20:02 GMT Etag: "a404b-c3f-47c3a14937c80" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg I tried hard-coding the Accept-Ranges header into the script too, but no luck.

    Read the article

  • how to get Contact database schema.

    - by kamiomar
    Dear, is there any link that provide me the Contact Schema. when i store new phone number in mobile, the informaion store in the database. so i need schema to create my own table for back purpose. i have alreay get People table column by the follwoing code. boolean displayFlag = false; String str = ""; Uri CONTACT_URI = People.CONTENT_URI; Cursor cursor = mContext.getContentResolver().query(CONTACT_URI, null, null, null, null); String columnNames = ""; if (cursor != null) { try { cursor.getCount(); if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { String[] columns = cursor.getColumnNames(); for (int i = 0; i < columns.length; i++) { columnNames += "colName" + cursor.getColumnName(i) + " : " + cursor.getString(i) + "colValue"; } } } finally { cursor.close(); } } createImage(columnNames); if (displayFlag) { Toast.makeText(mContext, str, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } Thanks

    Read the article

  • Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

    - by John
    I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

    Read the article

  • Why does this MySQL function return null?

    - by Shore
    Description: the query actually run have 4 results returned,as can be see from below, what I did is just concate the items then return, but unexpectedly,it's null. I think the code is self-explanatory: DELIMITER | DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS get_idiscussion_ask| CREATE FUNCTION get_idiscussion_ask(iask_id INT UNSIGNED) RETURNS TEXT DETERMINISTIC BEGIN DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE body varchar(600); DECLARE created DATETIME; DECLARE anonymous TINYINT(1); DECLARE screen_name varchar(64); DECLARE result TEXT; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=iask_id; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET done = 1; SET result = ''; OPEN cur1; REPEAT FETCH cur1 INTO body, created, anonymous, screen_name; SET result = CONCAT(result,'<comment><body><![CDATA[',body,']]></body>','<replier>',if(screen_name is not null and !anonymous,screen_name,''),'</replier>','<created>',created,'</created></comment>'); UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE cur1; RETURN result; END | DELIMITER ; mysql> DELIMITER ; mysql> select get_idiscussion_ask(1); +------------------------+ | get_idiscussion_ask(1) | +------------------------+ | NULL | +------------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) mysql> SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=1; +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | body | created | anonymous | screen_name | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:51 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:53 | 0 | NULL | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ 4 rows in set (0.00 sec) For those who don't think the code is self-explanatory: Why the function returns NULL?

    Read the article

  • What can be used instead of Datatable in LINQ

    - by Kabi
    I have a SQL query that returns a Datatable: var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); and then we can work with Datatable object of routesTable if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } I want to change this code to linq but I don't know how can I simulate Datatable in LINQ ,I wrote this part: Route result = null; aspnetdbDataContext aspdb = new aspnetdbDataContext(); var Result = from r in aspdb.RouteLinqs where r.UserId == userId && r.RouteId==routeId select r; .... but I don't know how can I change this part: if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; would you please tell me how can I do this? EDIT here you can see the whole block of code in original public Route GetById(int routeId, Guid userId) { Route result = null; var inputParams = new Dictionary<string, object> { {"UserId", userId}, {"RouteId", routeId} }; var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } return result; }

    Read the article

  • prolog - infinite rule

    - by Tom
    I have the next rules % Signature: natural_number(N)/1 % Purpose: N is a natural number. natural_number(0). natural_number(s(X)) :- natural_number(X) ackermann(0, N, s(N)). //rule 1 ackermann(s(M),0,Result):- ackermann(M,s(0),Result). //rule 2 ackermann(s(M),s(N),Result):-ackermann(M,Result1,Result),ackermann(s(M),N,Result1). //rule 3 The query is: ackermann (M,N,s(s(0))). Now, as I understood, In the third calculation, we got an infinite search (failture branch). I check it, and I got a finite search (failture branch). I'll explain: In the first, we got a substitue of M=0, N=s(0) (rule 1 - succsess!). In the second, we got a substitue of M=s(0),N=0 (rule 2 - sucsses!). But what now? I try to match M=s(s(0)) N=0, But it got a finite search - failture branch. Why the comipler doesn't write me "fail". Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

    - by sevennineteen
    I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Who to select value from DropDown list in PHP???Problem

    - by sandy
    Hello .. I want to know the error in this code The following code retrieves the names of the members of the database query in the dropdownlist But how do I know who you selected.... I want to send messages only to the members that selected form dropdown list <?php include ("connect.php"); $name = $_POST['sector_list']; echo $name ; ?> <form method="POST" action="" > <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list" class="inputstandard"> <option size ="40" value="default">send to </option> <?php $result = mysql_query('select * from members ') or die (mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option size ="40" value=" '. $row['MemberID'] . '" name="' . $row['MemberName']. '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> </select> </form> I hope somebody can help me

    Read the article

  • How can I refactor this JavaScript code to avoid making functions in a loop?

    - by Bungle
    I wrote the following code for a project that I'm working on: var clicky_tracking = [ ['related-searches', 'Related Searches'], ['related-stories', 'Related Stories'], ['more-videos', 'More Videos'], ['web-headlines', 'Publication'] ]; for (var x = 0, length_x = clicky_tracking.length; x < length_x; x++) { links = document.getElementById(clicky_tracking[x][0]) .getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var y = 0, length_y = links.length; y < length_y; y++) { links[y].onclick = (function(name, url) { return function() { clicky.log(url, name, 'outbound'); }; }(clicky_tracking[x][1], links[y].href)); } } What I'm trying to do is: define a two-dimensional array, with each instance the inner arrays containing two elements: an id attribute value (e.g., "related-searches") and a corresponding description (e.g., "Related Searches"); for each of the inner arrays, find the element in the document with the corresponding id attribute, and then gather a collection of all <a> elements (hyperlinks) within it; loop through that collection and attach an onclick handler to each hyperlink, which should call clicky.log, passing in as parameters the description that corresponds to the id (e.g., "Related Searches" for the id "related-searches") and the value of the href attribute for the <a> element that was clicked. Hopefully that wasn't thoroughly confusing! The code may be more self-explanatory than that. I believe that what I've implemented here is a closure, but JSLint complains: http://img.skitch.com/20100526-k1trfr6tpj64iamm8r4jf5rbru.png So, my questions are: How can I refactor this code to make JSLint agreeable? Or, better yet, is there a best-practices way to do this that I'm missing, regardless of what JSLint thinks? Should I rely on event delegation instead? That is, attaching onclick event handlers to the document elements with the id attributes in my arrays, and then looking at event.target? I've done that once before and understand the theory, but I'm very hazy on the details, and would appreciate some guidance on what that would look like - assuming this is a viable approach. Thanks very much for any help!

    Read the article

  • AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

    - by Ross
    Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 Import from Excel

    - by user327045
    I'd like to know what my best option would be to import data from an excel file on a weekly or monthly basis. At first, I thought I would use SSIS, but after much struggle with seemingly simple tasks, I'm starting to rethink my plan. Would it be better/easier to just write the SQL by hand or use the services of an SSIS package? The basic process will be as follows: A separate process will download an .xls file to a local fileshare. The xls file will have a filename like: 'myfilename MON YY'. I will need to read the month and year from the the filename, reformat it to a sql date and then query a DimDate table to find the corresponding date key. For each row (after the first 2 header rows), insert the data with the date key, unless the row is a total row, then ignore. Here are some of the issues I've been encountering with SSIS: I can parse the date string from a flat file datasource, but can't seem to do it with an excel data source. Also, once parsed, i cannot seem to convert the string to a date in order to perform the lookup for the date key. For example, I want to do something like this: select DateKey from DimDate where ActualDate = convert(datetime, '01-' + 'JAN-10', 120) but i don't think it is possible to use the 'convert' or 'datetime' keywords in an expression builder. I have been also unable to find where I can edit the SQL to ignore the first 2 rows of data. I'm very skeptical of using SSIS because it seems like a Kludgy way of doing something that can probably be accomplished more efficiently writing the SQL yourself, but I may be forced to use SSIS. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Organizing Eager Queries in an ObjectContext

    - by Nix
    I am messing around with Entity Framework 3.5 SP1 and I am trying to find a cleaner way to do the below. I have an EF model and I am adding some Eager Loaded entities and i want them all to reside in the "Eager" property in the context. We originally were just changing the entity set name, but it seems a lot cleaner to just use a property, and keep the entity set name in tact. Example: Context - EntityType - AnotherType - Eager (all of these would have .Includes to pull in all assoc. tables) - EntityType - AnotherType Currently I am using composition but I feel like there is an easier way to do what I want. namespace Entities{ public partial class TestObjectContext { EagerExtensions Eager { get;set;} public TestObjectContext(){ Eager = new EagerExtensions (this); } } public partial class EagerExtensions { TestObjectContext context; public EagerExtensions(TestObjectContext _context){ context = _context; } public IQueryable<TestEntity> TestEntity { get { return context.TestEntity .Include("TestEntityType") .Include("Test.Attached.AttachedType") .AsQueryable(); } } } } public class Tester{ public void ShowHowIWantIt(){ TestObjectContext context= new TestObjectContext(); var query = from a in context.Eager.TestEntity select a; } }

    Read the article

  • how to split a very large database on sql server

    - by ken jackson
    I have a 90 GB SQL Server database that I want to make more manageable. It stores stock data from 50+ different stocks from 2009 and 2010, and each stock is a separate table. Some tables have hundreds of millions of rows, and other have just a few million. What I want to do is somehow split the database, so that I don't have a single database file that is 90 GB. What I want is to be able to somehow magically split all the tables so that I can backup the 2009 data once and not have to keep on including it in the backup every time I backup the entire database, however, I would like the 2009 data to be included whenever I do a query. Is partitioning the database the way to go? Will it do the above for me, or will I need some other solution? I research partitioning, but I wasn't sure if that would solve all my problems. I wasn't able to find anything that would tell me whether or not it would migrate prexisting data, or whether it only worked for newly inserted data. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance, Ken

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to replace values ina queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

    Read the article

  • KODO: how set up fetch plan for bidirectional relationships?

    - by BestPractices
    Running KODO 4.2 and having an issue inefficient queries being generated by KODO. This happens when fetching an object that contains a collection where that collection has a bidrectional relationship back to the first object. Class Classroom { List<Student> _students; } Class Student { Classroom _classroom; } If we create a fetch plan to get a list of Classrooms and their corresponding Students by setting up the following fetch plan: fetchPlan.addField(Classroom.class,”_students”); This will result in two queries (get the classrooms and then get all students that are in those classrooms), which is what we would expect. However, if we include the reference back to the classroom in our fetch plan in order for the _classroom field to get populated by doing fetchPlan.addField(Student.class, “_classroom”), this will result in X number of additional queries where X is the number of students in each classroom. Can anyone explain how to fix this? KODO already has the original Classroom objects at the point that it's executing the queries to retrieve the Classroom objects and set them in each Student object's _classroom field. So I would expect KODO to simply set those objects in the _classroom field on each Student object accordingly and not go back to the database. Once again, the documentation is sorely lacking with Kodo/JDO/OpenJPA but from what I've read it should be able to do this more efficiently. Note-- EAGER_FETCH.PARALLEL is turned on and I have tried this with caching (query and data caches) turned on and off and there is no difference in the resultant queries.

    Read the article

  • Rackspace Cloud rewrite jpg causes Session reset

    - by willoller
    This may be the .Net version of this question. I have an image script with the following: ... Response.WriteFile(filename); Response.End(); I am rewriting .jpg files using the following rewrite rule in web.config: <rule name="Image Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^product-images/(.*).jpg" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="\.(jp?g|JP?G)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="SeeOther" url="/product-images/ProductImage.aspx?path=product-images/{tolower:{R:1}}.jpg" /> </rule> It basically just rewrites the image path into a query parameter. The problem is that (intermittently of course) Mosso returns a new Asp Session cookie which breaks the whole world. Directly accessing a static .jpg file does not cause this problem. Directly accessing the image script does not cause it either. Only rewriting a .jpg file to the .aspx script causes the Session loss. Things I have tried (From the Rackspace doc How can I bypass the cache?) I added Private cacheability to the image script itself: Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); I tried adding these cache-disabling nodes to web.config: <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="DisableCache" /> </staticContent> and <httpProtocol> <customHeaders> <add name="Cache-Control private" value="Cache-Control private" </customHeaders> </httpProtocol> The Solution I need The browser cache cannot be disabled. This means potential solutions involving Cache.SetNoStore() or HttpCacheability.NoCache will not work.

    Read the article

  • SQL 2 INNER JOINS with 3 tables

    - by Jelmer Holtes
    I've a question about a SQL query.. I'm building a prototype webshop in ASP.NET Visual Studio. Now I'm looking for a solution to view my products. I've build a database in MS Access, it consists of multiple tables. The tables which are important for my question are: Product Productfoto Foto Below you'll see the relations between the tables For me it is important to get three datatypes: Product title, price and image. The product title, and the price are in the Product table. The images are in the Foto table. Because a product can have more than one picture, there is a N - M relation between them. So I've to split it up, I did it in the Productfoto table. So the connection between them is: product.artikelnummer -> productfoto.artikelnummer productfoto.foto_id -> foto.foto_id Then I can read the filename (in the database: foto.bestandnaam) I've created the first inner join, and tested it in Access, this works: SELECT titel, prijs, foto_id FROM Product INNER JOIN Productfoto ON product.artikelnummer = productfoto.artikelnummer But I need another INNER JOIN, how could I create that? I guess something like this (this one will give me an error) SELECT titel, prijs, bestandnaam FROM Product (( INNER JOIN Productfoto ON product.artikelnummer = productfoto.artikkelnummer ) INNER JOIN foto ON productfoto.foto_id = foto.foto_id) Can anyone help me?

    Read the article

  • iPhone Adding Controls (UIButton, UILabel etc.) on a Playing Video!

    - by Taimur Hamza
    I have been assigned an 'easy' task of adding a button over a playing video. I m terming it easy as i have got the sample code downloaded from Apple's sample code. http://rapidshare.com/files/393248642/MoviePlayer_iPhone.zip Anybody who wants to reply to my query and intends to help should download this project and run it otherwise it wudnt be easy to understand my problem. Thanks! And now the weird problem i am facing is: In the sample project developer has added the view ( UILabel and UIButton ) in the Appdelegate. And i want it other xib files not the App delegate . Fine i added a view 'myButtonABC' instead of 'My Overlay View'. And added this code in my xib file's implementation file. (void)viewDidLoad { TaimurAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TaimurAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate initAndPlayMovie:[self localMovieURL]]; NSArray *windows = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows]; if ([windows count] 1) { UIWindow *moviePlayerWindow = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow]; [moviePlayerWindow addSubview:self.myABC]; } } Now my question is do i need to declare a UIWindow object in the header file here. As i am not working in the app delegate class. As i said previously i have to add this button over a video in other screen and not on the main screen. The third question is can anyone, which in fact is the most imp of all. In my view , if i am able to do this one my problem would be solved. As i have spend considerable amount of time on this task so far. The question is " How can i connect myABCButton (which is a view added to my xib file ) to the File's Owner. Thanks for your patience. Replies Appreciated ! Taimur

    Read the article

  • Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

    - by David Murdoch
    Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

    Read the article

  • Updating ToolStripProgressBar and ToolStripStatusLabel along with with an action

    - by TChristian
    In a Windows Form, I have a search box that fires an event to search a remote database and display some results. The query is pretty fast, usually just a fraction of a second, but in case the delay is noticeable there is a progress bar and label in the form's status bar. When the user clicks "Search" the status label should appear and the progress bar show some progress. Then when the result comes back the label should disappear and the progress bar should be full. Pretty basic response. The problem is, I can't get those actions to happen in that order. Using the code below, I click "Search", nothing happens until the results are displayed, and then the progress bar fills up from 0 to 100. The label never appears. I even threw in a sleep command immediately after the event to be sure I wasn't just missing it, but it's as if the first 2 statements are not being executed. What am I doing wrong here? private void searchButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { toolStripStatusLabel1.Visible = true; toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 20; m_changeRequestedEvents.Fire<String>("SearchTerm", searchTextBox.Text); toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 100; toolStripStatusLabel1.Visible = false; }

    Read the article

  • how get xml responce using JAX-WS SOAP handler

    - by khris
    I have implemented web service: @WebServiceClient(//parameters//) @HandlerChain(file = "handlers.xml") public class MyWebServiceImpl {...} Also I have implemented ObjectFactory with list of classes for creating my requests and responses. For Example class Test. I need to get xml of response. I try to use JAX-WS SOAP handler, so I add this @HandlerChain(file = "handlers.xml") anotation. My handlers.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <handler-chains xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee"> <handler-chain> <handler> <handler-class>java.com.db.crds.ws.service.LoggingHandler</handler-class> </handler> </handler-chain> </handler-chains> My LoggingHandler class is: import java.io.PrintWriter; import java.util.Set; import javax.xml.namespace.QName; import javax.xml.soap.SOAPMessage; import javax.xml.ws.handler.MessageContext; import javax.xml.ws.handler.soap.SOAPMessageContext; public class LoggingHandler implements javax.xml.ws.handler.soap.SOAPHandler<SOAPMessageContext> { public void close(MessageContext messagecontext) { } public Set<QName> getHeaders() { return null; } public boolean handleFault(SOAPMessageContext messagecontext) { return true; } public boolean handleMessage(SOAPMessageContext smc) { Boolean outboundProperty = (Boolean) smc.get (MessageContext.MESSAGE_OUTBOUND_PROPERTY); if (outboundProperty.booleanValue()) { System.out.println("\nOutbound message:"); } else { System.out.println("\nInbound message:"); } SOAPMessage message = smc.getMessage(); try { PrintWriter writer = new PrintWriter("soap_responce" + System.currentTimeMillis(), "UTF-8"); writer.println(message); writer.close(); message.writeTo(System.out); System.out.println(""); // just to add a newline } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception in handler: " + e); } return outboundProperty; } } I have test class which creates request, here are part of code: MyWebServiceImpl impl = new MyWebServiceImpl(url, qName); ws = impl.getMyWebServicePort(); Test req = new Test(); I suppose to get xml response in file "soap_responce" + System.currentTimeMillis(). But such file isn't even created. Please suggest how to get xml response, I'm new to web services and may do something wrong. Thanks

    Read the article

  • stackoverflow tags and related tags

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

    Read the article

  • Architecture for database analytics

    - by David Cournapeau
    Hi, We have an architecture where we provide each customer Business Intelligence-like services for their website (internet merchant). Now, I need to analyze those data internally (for algorithmic improvement, performance tracking, etc...) and those are potentially quite heavy: we have up to millions of rows / customer / day, and I may want to know how many queries we had in the last month, weekly compared, etc... that is the order of billions entries if not more. The way it is currently done is quite standard: daily scripts which scan the databases, and generate big CSV files. I don't like this solutions for several reasons: as typical with those kinds of scripts, they fall into the write-once and never-touched-again category tracking things in "real-time" is necessary (we have separate toolset to query the last few hours ATM). this is slow and non-"agile" Although I have some experience in dealing with huge datasets for scientific usage, I am a complete beginner as far as traditional RDBM go. It seems that using column-oriented database for analytics could be a solution (the analytics don't need most of the data we have in the app database), but I would like to know what other options are available for this kind of issues.

    Read the article

  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

    Read the article

  • SharePoint: Filtering a List that has Folders

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a SharePoint document library that has a folder structure used for organizing the documents (but also for controlling access, via permissions on the folders). The documents in the library are updated every month, and we store every month's version of the document in the same folder; there's a "month" column used for filtering that will contain values like Jan 09, Feb 09, etc. It looks like this: Title Month ----- ----- SubFolder 1 SubFolder 2 [] Interesting Facts Jan 09 [] Interesting Facts Feb 09 [] Interesting Facts Mar 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Jan 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Feb 09 ... Now, because users will generally be most interested in the 'current' month, I'd like them to be able to apply a filter, and select (say) Mar 09. However, if they do this using the built-in filtering, it also filters out the folders, and they can no longer navigate the folder hierarchy. This is no good - I want them to be able to move between folders with the filter intact, so that they don't need to keep switching it off and on again. I figured I might be able to use a custom view (selecting where type=folder or month=[month]), and to an extent that does work. However, I can only get it to work for a fixed month, whereas I need the user to be able to select the month - perhaps via a drop-down control on the page (and I don't want to create 60 views for 5 years' worth of months, nor do I want to have to create a new view every month). I thought it might be possible to create a view in code (rather than via the UI), but I've not been able to figure out how to get a dynamic value (a user-specific setting) into the CAML query. Any pointers gratefully appreciated! And by the way, I am aware of the dogma that folders are bad, and that everything should just be a list. However, having considered the alternatives, I still favour using folders - if I can solve this problem. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 860 861 862 863 864 865 866 867 868 869 870 871  | Next Page >