Search Results

Search found 26004 results on 1041 pages for 'debian based'.

Page 897/1041 | < Previous Page | 893 894 895 896 897 898 899 900 901 902 903 904  | Next Page >

  • Some languages don't work when using Word 2007 Spellcheck from Interop

    - by Tridus
    I'm using the Word 2007 spellchecker via Interop in a VB.net desktop app. When using the default language (English), it works fine. If I set the language to French via LanguageId, it also works. But if I set it to French (Canadian) (Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian), it doesn't work. There's no error message, it simply runs and says the document contains no errors. I know it does, if I paste the exact same text into Word itself and run it with the French (Canadian) dictionary, it finds errors. Just why that dictionary doesn't work is kind of a mystery to me. Full code below: Public Shared Function SpellCheck(ByVal text As String, ByVal checkGrammar As Boolean) As String ' If there is no data to spell check, then exit sub here. If text.Length = 0 Then Return text End If Dim objWord As Word.Application Dim objTempDoc As Word.Document ' Declare an IDataObject to hold the data returned from the ' clipboard. Dim iData As IDataObject objWord = New Word.Application() objTempDoc = objWord.Documents.Add objWord.Visible = False ' Position Word off the screen...this keeps Word invisible ' throughout. objWord.WindowState = 0 objWord.Top = -3000 ' Copy the contents of the textbox to the clipboard Clipboard.SetDataObject(text) ' With the temporary document, perform either a spell check or a ' complete ' grammar check, based on user selection. With objTempDoc .Content.Paste() .Activate() .Content.LanguageID = Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian If checkGrammar Then .CheckGrammar() Else .CheckSpelling() End If ' After user has made changes, use the clipboard to ' transfer the contents back to the text box .Content.Copy() iData = Clipboard.GetDataObject If iData.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text) Then text = CType(iData.GetData(DataFormats.Text), _ String) End If .Saved = True .Close() End With objWord.Quit() Return text End Function

    Read the article

  • CakePHP: Interaction between different files/classes

    - by Alexx Hardt
    Hey, I'm cloning a commercial student management system. Students use the frontend to apply for lectures, uni staff can modify events (time, room, etc). The core of the app will be the algortihm which distributes the seats to students. I already asked about it here: How to implement a seat distribution algorithm for uni lectures Now, I found a class for that algorithm here: http://www.phpclasses.org/browse/file/10779.html I put the 'class GA' into app/vendors. I need to write a 'class Solution', which represents one object (a child, and later a parent for the evolutionary process). I'll also have to write functions mutate(), crossover() and fitness(). fitness calculates a score of a solution, based on if there are overbooked courses etc; crossover() is the crazy monkey sex function which produces a child from two parents, and mutate() modifies a child after crossover. Now, the fitness()-function needs to access a few related models, and their find()-functions. It evaluates a solution's fitness by checking e.g. if there are overbooked courses, or unfulfilled wishes, and penalizes that. Where would I put the ga.php, solution.php and the three functions? ga.php has to access the functions, but the functions have to access the models. I also don't want to call any App::import()'s from within the fitness()-function, because it gets called many thousand times when the algorithm runs. Hope someone can help me. Thanks in advance =)

    Read the article

  • Trying to update a google visualization using jquery

    - by Mark in A2
    I'm relatively inexperienced, so please bear with me. I'm developing a simple dashboard using the Google visualization API. I'm developing in vb.net. I have the Annotated Timeline, the Intensity Map, and a set of tables on my apsx. What I am trying to do is update the Intensity Map and tables based on the date range the user selects using the Annotated Timeline tool. I was hoping to update only these visualizations without doing a full page load. Apparently, a great way to do this is to separate the visualizations into self-contained aspx pages and use jQuery to "load" them into a div. I say apparently, as this is not working. When I try to update an aspx containing a Google visualization using jQuery, I get the message "Loading data from www.google.com..." in the browser and it just runs continuously and never returns. I ran this by an experienced developer and he was stumped, but thought must be a conflict between the google API and jQuery. Any tips, advice, alternative solutions are greatly appreciated! Thanks, Mark in Ann Arbor

    Read the article

  • How can I refactor this to work without breaking the pattern horribly?

    - by SnOrfus
    I've got a base class object that is used for filtering. It's a template method object that looks something like this. public class Filter { public void Process(User u, GeoRegion r, int countNeeded) { List<account> selected = this.Select(u, r, countNeeded); // 1 List<account> filtered = this.Filter(selected, u, r, countNeeded); // 2 if (filtered.Count > 0) { /* do businessy stuff */ } // 3 if (filtered.Count < countNeeded) this.SendToSuccessor(u, r, countNeeded - filtered) // 4 } } Select(...), Filter(...) are protected abstract methods and implemented by the derived classes. Select(...) finds objects in the based on x criteria, Filter(...) filters those selected further. If the remaining filtered collection has more than 1 object in it, we do some business stuff with it (unimportant to the problem here). SendToSuccessor(...) is called if there weren't enough objects found after filtering (it's a composite where the next class in succession will also be derived from Filter but have different filtering criteria) All has been ok, but now I'm building another set of filters, which I was going to subclass from this. The filters I'm building however would require different params and I don't want to just implement those methods and not use the params or just add to the param list the ones I need and have them not used in the existing filters. They still perform the same logical process though. I also don't want to complicated the consumer code for this (which looks like this) Filter f = new Filter1(); Filter f2 = new Filter2(); Filter f3 = new Filter3(); f.Sucessor = f2; f2.Sucessor = f3; /* and so on adding filters as successors to previous ones */ foreach (User u in users) { foreach (GeoRegion r in regions) { f.Process(u, r, ##); } } How should I go about it?

    Read the article

  • Moving to an arbitrary position in a file in Python

    - by B Rivera
    Let's say that I routinely have to work with files with an unknown, but large, number of lines. Each line contains a set of integers (space, comma, semicolon, or some non-numeric character is the delimiter) in the closed interval [0, R], where R can be arbitrarily large. The number of integers on each line can be variable. Often times I get the same number of integers on each line, but occasionally I have lines with unequal sets of numbers. Suppose I want to go to Nth line in the file and retrieve the Kth number on that line (and assume that the inputs N and K are valid --- that is, I am not worried about bad inputs). How do I go about doing this efficiently in Python 3.1.2 for Windows? I do not want to traverse the file line by line. I tried using mmap, but while poking around here on SO, I learned that that's probably not the best solution on a 32-bit build because of the 4GB limit. And in truth, I couldn't really figure out how to simply move N lines away from my current position. If I can at least just "jump" to the Nth line then I can use .split() and grab the Kth integer that way. The nuance here is that I don't just need to grab one line from the file. I will need to grab several lines: they are not necessarily all near each other, the order in which I get them matters, and the order is not always based on some deterministic function. Any ideas? I hope this is enough information. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why is a Silverlight application created from an exported template show a blank screen in the browse

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I created a silverlight app (without website) named TestApp, with one TextBox: <UserControl x:Class="TestApp.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="640" d:DesignHeight="480"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <TextBlock Text="this is a test"/> </Grid> </UserControl> I press F5 and see "this is a test" in my browser (firefox). I select File | Export Template | name it TestAppTemplate and save it. I create a new silverlight app based on the above template. The MainPage.xaml has the exact same XAML as above. I press F5 and see a blank screen in my browser. I look at the HTML source of both of these and they are identical. Everything I have compared in both projects is identical. What do I have to do so that a Silverlight application which is created from my exported template does not show a blank screen?

    Read the article

  • Glitch when moving camera in OpenGL

    - by CG
    I am writing a tile-based game engine for the iPhone and it works in general apart from the following glitch. Basically, the camera will always keep the player in the centre of the screen, and it moves to follow the player correctly and draws everything correctly when stationary. However whilst the player is moving, the tiles of the surface the player is walking on glitch as shown: Compared to the stationary (correct): Does anyone have any idea why this could be? Thanks for the responses so far. Floating point error was my first thought also and I tried slightly increasing the size of the tiles but this did not help. Changing glClearColor to red still leaves black gaps so maybe it isn't floating point error. Since the tiles in general will use different textures, I don't know if vertex arrays can be used (I always thought that the same texture had to be applied to everything in the array, correct me if I'm wrong), and I don't think VBO is available in OpenGL ES. Setting the filtering to nearest neighbour improved things but the glitch still happens every ten frames or so, and the pixelly result means that this solution is not viable anyway. The main difference between what I'm doing now and what I've done in the past is that this time I am moving the camera rather than the stationary objects in the world (i.e. the tiles, the player is still being moved). The code I'm using to move the camera is: void Camera::CentreAtPoint( GLfloat x, GLfloat y ) { glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); glOrthof(x - size.x / 2.0f, x + size.x / 2.0f, y + size.y / 2.0f, y - size.y / 2.0f, 0.01f, 5.0f); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); } Is there a problem with doing things this way and if so is there a solution?

    Read the article

  • Give More Prominence To DIV or <P> That Is After Floating DIV

    - by Aahan Krish
    Consider this HTML: <div id="entry-content"> <div id="my-300px-ad">AD CODE HERE</div> <p><img src="file.jpg" alt="file" /></p> <p>SOME TEXT</p> <p>SOME MORE TEXT</p> </div> Now, consider that the div#my-300px-ad is floating right. Would it be possible for me to have the image in the next paragraph show up before the ad so that the TEXT in its following paragraphs can wrap around the ad? For example, like this: Why so...? The thing is, due to various reasons (including Google) I want to avoid placing an ad in BETWEEN the post's content. CSS only I am sure that something like this would be possible with some JavaScript code. But I am looking for a CSS-based solution only. (Cross-browser compatibility, = IE8) Please note that ONLY the CSS of div#my-300px-ad can be changed. Nothing else should be touched as this is not a static HTML page, besides they are articles. PS: It was hard to frame a one-line question for this. Please feel free to edit the question's title if it can be made more clear.

    Read the article

  • WebView and HTML5 <video>

    - by brian moore
    I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

    Read the article

  • Initialize child models at model creation

    - by Antoine
    I have a model Entree which belongs to a model Vin, which itself belongs to a model Producteur. On the form for Entree creation/edition, I want to allow the user to define the attributes for parent Vin and Producteur to create them, or retrieve them if they exist (retrieval based on user input). For now I do the following in Entree new and edit actions: @entree = Entree.new @entree.vin = Vin.new @entree.vin.producteur = Producteur.new and use fields_for helper in the form,and that works. But I intend to have much more dependencies with more models, so I want to keep it DRY. I defined a after_initialize callback in Vin model which does the producteur initialization: class Vin < ActiveRecord::Base after_initialize :vin_setup def vin_setup producteur = Producteur.new end end and remove the producteur.new from the controller. However, get an error on new action: undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class for the line in the form that says <%= fields_for @entree.vin.producteur do |producteur| %> I guess that means the after_initialize callback doesn't act as I expect it. Is there something I'm missing? Also, I get the same error if I define a after_initialize method in the Vin model instead of definiing a callback.

    Read the article

  • Updating an input value with Jquery

    - by Evan
    I have a form with a few fields, one of which should be updated based on the value of another. The value of the first is POSTed to another URL, and the returned value should be used to fill the second field. Here's the code: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function lookup(rid) { $.get("/handler?rid=" + $("input#rid").val(), function(update_rid){ $("#name").val(html(update_rid)); }) } </script> <form name="new_alert"> <input type="text" name="rid" id="rid" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);"> <br /> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> </form> The POST works fine, and the correct data is returned from /hander, which I confirmed by making a test and filling it using $("#testdiv").html(update_rid); So it seems like the problem is in the way I'm trying to update the value, but I can't get past that.

    Read the article

  • Experience with Take home Programming Test for Interviews

    - by Alan
    Okay this is not "programming" related per-se, but it is a situation that I believe the SO audience would be more familiar with, than say an ask.yahoo.com audience, so please forgive me. I had a phone screen the other day with a company that I really want to work for. It went pretty well, based on cues from the HR person, such as "Next step we're going to send you a programming test," and "Well, before I get ahead of myself, do you want to continue the interviewing process." and "We'll send out the test later this afternoon. It doesn't sound like you'll have trouble with it, but I want to be honest we do have a high failure rate on it." The questions asked weren't technical, just going down my resume, and talking about the work I've done, and how it relates to the position. Nothing I couldn't talk through. This was last Thursday. It's now Tuesday, and haven't received the test yet. I sent a follow up email yesterday to the lady who interviewed me, but haven't gotten a response. Anyone had a similar experience? Am I reading too much into this? Or was I off the mark by thinking I had moved on to the next step in the interview process. Since this is a company I really want to work for, I'm driving myself insane enumerating all the various what-if scenarios.

    Read the article

  • JQuery use variable by name of divID

    - by Russell Parrott
    Just a quick question, that I cannot fathom out, hope you guys and girls can help. I have a div (with ID) that when clicked opens a new div - great works well, what I really want is to "populate" the new div with predefined text based on the clicked div's ID. example: <div class="infobox" id="help_msg1">Click me</div> I may have say 3 (actually more but...) of these div's This opens: <div id="helpbox">text in here</div> In/on my .js page I have doc ready etc then: var help_msg1 ='text that is a help message'; var help_msg2 ='text that is another help message'; var help_msg3 ='text that is yet another help message'; Then $('.infobox').live('click',function() { $('#helpbox').remove(); $('label').css({'font-weight': '400'}); $(this).next('label').css({'font-weight': '900'}); var offset = $(this).next().next().offset(); var offsetby = $(this).next().next().width(); var leftitby = offset.left+offsetby+10; $('body').append('text in here'); $('#helpbox').css( { 'left': leftitby, 'top': offset.top } ); }); Note I remove each #helpbox before appending the new one and the .next().next() identifies the appropriate text input that lot all works. What I need is how do I put var help_msg1 into the append when id="help_msg1" is clicked or var help_msg2 when id="help_msg2" is clicked etc. I have tried

    Read the article

  • CIE XYZ colorspace: do I have RGBA or XYZA?

    - by Tronic
    I plan to write a painting program based on linear combinations of xy plane points (0,1), (1,0) and (0,0). Such system works identically to RGB, except that the primaries are not within the gamut but at the corners of a triangle that encloses the entire gamut. I have seen the three points being referred to as X, Y and Z (upper case) somewhere, but I cannot find the page anymore (I marked them to the picture myself). My pixel format stores the intensity of each of those three components the same way as RGB does, together with alpha value. This allows using pretty much any image manipulation operation designed for RGBA without modifying the code. What is my format called? Is it XYZA, RGBA or something else? Google doesn't seem to know of XYZA. RGBA will get confused with sRGB + alpha (which I also need to use in the same program). Notice that the primaries X, Y and Z and their intensities have little to do with the x, y and z coordinates (lower case) that are more commonly used.

    Read the article

  • Retriving data from ListView control

    - by Josh
    I have a ListView control set up in details mode with 5 columns. It is populated by code using the following subroutine: For j = 0 To 14 cmd = New OleDbCommand("SELECT TeacherName, ClassSubject, BookingDate, BookingPeriod FROM " & SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() & " WHERE (((BookingDate)=" & Chr(34) & Date.Today.AddDays(j) & Chr(34) & ") AND ((UserName)=" & Chr(34) & user & Chr(34) & "));", cn) dr = cmd.ExecuteReader Dim itm As ListViewItem Dim itms(4) As String While dr.Read() itms(0) = dr(0) itms(1) = SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() itms(2) = dr(1) itms(3) = dr(2) itms(4) = dr(3) itm = New ListViewItem(itms) Manage.ManageList.Items.Add(itm) End While Next Note that this is not the full routine, just the bit that populated the grid. Now I need to retrieve data from the ListView control in order to delete a booking in my database. I used the following code to retrieve the content of each column: ManageList.SelectedItems(0).Text But it only seems to work on index 0. If I do: ManageList.SelectedItems(3).Text I get this error: InvalidArgument=Value of '3' is not valid for 'index'. Parameter name: index I'm pretty much stumped, it seems logical to me that index 1 will point to the 2nd column, index 2 to the 3rd etc, as it's 0 based? Any help would be appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Endianness and C API's: Specifically OpenSSL.

    - by Hassan Syed
    I have an algorithm that uses the following OpenSSL calls: HMAC_update() / HMAC_final() // ripe160 EVP_CipherUpdate() / EVP_CipherFinal() // cbc_blowfish These algorithm take a unsigned char * into the "plain text". My input data is comes from a C++ std::string::c_str() which originate from a protocol buffer object as a encoded UTF-8 string. UTF-8 strings are meant to be endian neutrial. However I'm a bit paranoid about how OpenSSL may perform operations on the data. My understanding is that encryption algorithms work on 8-bit blocks of data, and if a unsigned char * is used for pointer arithmetic when the operations are performed the algorithms should be endian neutral and I do not need to worry about anything. My uncertainty is compounded by the fact that I am working on a little-endian machine and have never done any real cross-architecture programming. My beliefs/reasoning are/is based on the following two properties std::string (not wstring) internally uses a 8-bit ptr and a the resulting c_str() ptr will itterate the same way regardless of the CPU architecture. Encryption algorithms are either by design, or by implementation, endian neutral. I know the best way to get a definitive answer is to use QEMU and do some cross-platform unit tests (which I plan to do). My question is a request for comments on my reasoning, and perhaps will assist other programmers when faced with similar problems.

    Read the article

  • Server.TransferRequest returns blank page on specific server

    - by jishi
    I'm facing an issue that seems to be related to configuration. I have a webapplication based on MonoRail, where we utilize the routing feature from MonoRail. On the first request after the application has started, the routing isn't initialized. To circumvent this, I have the following code in Application_OnError(): public virtual void Application_OnError() { if ( // identified as routing error ) Server.TransferRequest( Context.Request.RawUrl, false ); return; } Problem beeing that on our development server (which runs server 2008 R2, with IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) returns a blank page without headers, but on my workstation (which runs win7, IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) it works fine. What could be the cause of this? If the code in Application_OnError() throws an exception, what would be the expected output? I have verified the following: The access-log shows one entry, I'm not sure if a TransferRequest would show up as a second entry when invoked successfully The application actually do some work according to my internal logs, and it doesn't die since a subsequent requests works flawlessly (because routing will be active) Any hints on what to look for would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Add an event to HTML elements with a specific class.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, I'm working on a modal window, and I want to make the function as reusable as possible. Said that, I want to set a few anchor tags with a class equals to "modal", and when a particular anchor tag is clicked, get its Id and pass it to a function that will execute another function based on the Id that was passed. This is what I have so far: // this gets an array with all the elements that have a class equals to "modal" var anchorTrigger = document.getElementsByClassName('modal'); Then I tried to set the addEventListener for each item in the array by doing this: var anchorTotal = anchorTrigger.length; for(var i = 0; i < anchorTotal ; i++){ anchorTrigger.addEventListener('click', fireModal, false); } and then run the last function "fireModal" that will open the modal, like so: function fireModal(){ //some more code here ... } My problem is that in the "for" loop, I get an error saying that anchorTrigger.addEvent ... is not a function. I can tell that the error might be related to the fact that I'm trying to set up the "addEventListener" to an array as oppose to individual elements, but I don't know what I'm supposed to do. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • vb.net sqlite how to loop through selected records and pass each record as a parameter to another fu

    - by mazrabul
    Hi, I have a sqlite table with following fields: Langauge level hours German 2 50 French 3 40 English 1 60 German 1 10 English 2 50 English 3 60 German 1 20 French 2 40 I want to loop through the records based on language and other conditions and then pass the current selected record to a different function. So I have the following mixture of actual code and psudo code. I need help with converting the psudo code to actual code, please. I am finding it difficult to do so. Here is what I have: Private sub mainp() Dim oslcConnection As New SQLite.SQLiteConnection Dim oslcCommand As SQLite.SQLiteCommand Dim langs() As String = {"German", "French", "English"} Dim i as Integer = 0 oslcConnection.ConnectionString = "Data Source=" & My.Settings.dbFullPath & ";" oslcConnection.Open() oslcCommand = oslcConnection.CreateCommand Do While i <= langs.count If langs(i) = "German" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If If langs(i) = "French" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If Loop End Sub Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

    Read the article

  • How to properly load HTML data from third party website using MVC+AJAX?

    - by Dmitry
    I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 website that lets users store and analyze data about goods found on various online trade sites. When user is filling a form to create or edit an item, he should have a button "Import data" that automatically fills some fields based on data from third party website. The question is: what should this button do under the hood? I see at least 2 possible solutions. First. Do the import on client side using AJAX+jQuery load method. I tried it in IE8 and received browser warning popup about insecure script actions. Of course, it is completely unacceptable. Second. Add method ImportData(string URL) to ItemController class. It is called via AJAX, does the import + data processing server-side and returns JSON-d result to client. I tried it and received server exception (503) Server unavailable when loading HTML data into XMLDocument. Also I have a feeling that dealing with not well-formed HTML (missing closing tags, etc.) will be a huge pain. Any ideas how to parse such HTML documents?

    Read the article

  • Have you considered doing revenue sharing to fund development of a mobile app? How would you do it?

    - by Brennan
    I am looking to build multiple mobile apps which leverage existing content and resources by enabling these mobile apps with web services. I will duplication much of the same features which are also in place and add more features that are possible on a mobile device like address book, maps and calendar integration to make the service much more useful. To fund these projects I see that I have 2 options. First I could simply quote them for the project based on my hourly rate and the estimate in hours that I will take the to complete the job. That may be a high number. The second option would be to do shared revenue with ads placed in the app. I could then take a percentage of any revenue that is generated from the app. There is also a hybrid where I might charge for a percentage of the estimated quote and then take a percentage of the revenue sharing. So my question is how much should I propose for the revenue sharing? Should it be 30%? Or maybe I should make it 70% up to a point that a certain dollar amount is reached? And should the revenue sharing agreement be for 12 months, 24 months or more? Should I include in the proposal an agreement that they will help promote this app with their content and resources? Ultimately this system will benefit both sides because it extends their reach into the mobile space instead of where they are currently with just print and web. I have tried to find some examples with a few Google searches but I keep hitting content about the Google and Apple revenue sharing models. I would like to get some solid examples that are working to compare against so that my proposal do build these apps is not completely off base.

    Read the article

  • Sequential access to asynchronous sockets

    - by Lars A. Brekken
    I have a server that has several clients C1...Cn to each of which there is a TCP connection established. There are less than 10,000 clients. The message protocol is request/response based, where the server sends a request to a client and then the client sends a response. The server has several threads, T1...Tm, and each of these may send requests to any of the clients. I want to make sure that only one of these threads can send a request to a specific client at any one time, while the other threads wanting to send a request to the same client will have to wait. I do not want to block threads from sending requests to different clients at the same time. E.g. If T1 is sending a request to C3, another thread T2 should not be able to send anything to C3 until T1 has received its response. I was thinking of using a simple lock statement on the socket: lock (c3Socket) { // Send request to C3 // Get response from C3 } I am using asynchronous sockets, so I may have to use Monitor instead: Monitor.Enter(c3Socket); // Before calling .BeginReceive() And Monitor.Exit(c3Socket); // In .EndReceive I am worried about stuff going wrong and not letting go of the monitor and therefore blocking all access to a client. I'm thinking that my heartbeat thread could use Monitor.TryEnter() with a timeout and throw out sockets that it cannot get the monitor for. Would it make sense for me to make the Begin and End calls synchronous in order to be able to use the lock() statement? I know that I would be sacrificing concurrency for simplicity in this case, but it may be worth it. Am I overlooking anything here? Any input appreciated.

    Read the article

  • PHP file upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 893 894 895 896 897 898 899 900 901 902 903 904  | Next Page >