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  • Android: failed to setContentView when switching to ListActivity

    - by Yang
    This is an follow-up issue on my previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2548304/android-which-view-should-i-use-for-showing-text-and-image I read the article about creating ListView for LinearLayout. However, my following code failed at the setContentView() function when I changed "extends Activity" to "extends ListActivity", any idea why? private TextView mSelection; //private ImageView mImages; static final String[] keywords = new String[]{"China", "Japan", "USA", "Canada"}; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.contactLayout); mSelection = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.ContactNames); ArrayAdapter adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.contactlayout, R.id.ContactNames,keywords); setListAdapter(adapter); } My Layout is from this article: http://www.curious-creature.org/2009/02/22/android-layout-tricks-1/ <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeight" android:padding="6dip"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_marginRight="6dip" android:src="@drawable/icon" /> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="0dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TextView android:id="@+id/ContactNames" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="0dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:text="My Application" /> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="0dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:text="Simple application that shows how to use RelativeLayout" /> </LinearLayout>

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  • How to use Parcel in Android?

    - by Mike
    I'm trying to use Parcel to write and then read back a Parcelable. For some reason, when I read the object back from the file, it's coming back as null. public void testFoo() { final Foo orig = new Foo("blah blah"); // Wrote orig to a parcel and then byte array final Parcel p1 = Parcel.obtain(); p1.writeValue(orig); final byte[] bytes = p1.marshall(); // Check to make sure that the byte array seems to contain a Parcelable assertEquals(4, bytes[0]); // Parcel.VAL_PARCELABLE // Unmarshall a Foo from that byte array final Parcel p2 = Parcel.obtain(); p2.unmarshall(bytes, 0, bytes.length); final Foo result = (Foo) p2.readValue(Foo.class.getClassLoader()); assertNotNull(result); // FAIL assertEquals( orig.str, result.str ); } protected static class Foo implements Parcelable { protected static final Parcelable.Creator<Foo> CREATOR = new Parcelable.Creator<Foo>() { public Foo createFromParcel(Parcel source) { final Foo f = new Foo(); f.str = (String) source.readValue(Foo.class.getClassLoader()); return f; } public Foo[] newArray(int size) { throw new UnsupportedOperationException(); } }; public String str; public Foo() { } public Foo( String s ) { str = s; } public int describeContents() { return 0; } public void writeToParcel(Parcel dest, int ignored) { dest.writeValue(str); } } What am I missing? UPDATE: To simplify the test I've removed the reading and writing of files in my original example.

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  • Crystal Reports Reportviewer - Set Datasource Dynamically Not Working :argh:

    - by Albert
    I'm running CR XI, and accessing .RPT files through a ReportViewer in my ASP.NET pages. I've already got the following code, which is supposed to set the Report Datasource dynamically. rptSP = New ReportDocument Dim rptPath As String = Request.QueryString("report") rptSP.Load(rptPath.ToString, 0) Dim SConn As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionStringBuilder(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ConnectionString) rptSP.DataSourceConnections(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog).SetConnection(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog, SConn.UserID, SConn.Password) Dim myConnectionInfo As ConnectionInfo = New ConnectionInfo myConnectionInfo.ServerName = SConn.DataSource myConnectionInfo.DatabaseName = SConn.InitialCatalog myConnectionInfo.UserID = SConn.UserID myConnectionInfo.Password = SConn.Password 'Two new methods to loop through all objects and tables contained in the requested report and set 'login credentials for each object and table. SetDBLogonForReport(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) SetDBLogonForSubreports(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) Me.CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = rptSP But when I go into each .RPT file, and open up the Database Expert section, there is obviously still servernames hardcoded in there, and the code listed above doesn't seem to be able to change the servernames that are hardcoded there. I say this because I have training and production environments. When the .RPT file is hardcoded with my production server, and I open it on my training server with the code above (and the web.config has the training server in the connection string), I get the ol: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. And then if I go into the .RPT file, and change over the datasource to the training server, and try to open it again, it works fine. Why doesn't the code above overwrite the .RPT files datasource? How can I avoid having to open up each .RPT and change the datasource when migrating reports from server to server? Is there a setting in the .RPT file I'm missing or something?

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  • Model validation with enumerable properties in Asp.net MVC2 RTM

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I'm using DataAnnotations attributes to validate my model objects. My model class looks similar to this: public class MyModel { [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public List<User> Editors { get; set; } } public class User { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string FullName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Email)] public string Email { get; set; } } My controller action looks like: public ActionResult NewItem(MyModel data) { //... } User is presented with a view that has a form with: a text box with dummy name where users enter user's names. For each user they enter, there's a client script coupled with ajax that creates an <input type="hidden" name="data.Editors[0].Id" value="userId" /> for each user entered (enumeration index is therefore not always 0 as written here), so default model binder is able to consume and bind the form without any problems. a text box where users enter the title Since I'm using Asp.net MVC 2 RTM which does model validation instead of input validation I don't know how to avoid validation errors. The thing is I have to use BindAttribute on my controller action. I would have to either provide a white or a black list of properties. It's always a better practice to provide a white list. It's also more future proof. The problem My form works fine, but I get validation errors about user's FullName and Email properties since they are not provided. I also shouldn't feed them to the client (via ajax when user enters user data), because email is personal contact data and is not shared between users. If there was just a single user reference on MyModel I would write [Bind(Include = "Title, Editor.Id")] But I have an enumeration of them. How do I provide Bind white list to work with my model?

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  • LINQ to Entities exceptions (ElementAtOrDefault and CompareObjectEqual)

    - by OffApps Cory
    I am working on a shipping platform which will eventually automate shipping through several major carriers. I have a ShipmentsView Usercontrol which displayes a list of Shipments (returned by EntityFramework), and when a user clicks on a shipment item, it spawns a ShipmentEditView and passes the ShipmentID (RecordKey) to that view. I initially wrestled with trying to get the context from the parent (ShipmentsView) and finally gave up resolving to get to it later. I wanted to do this to keep a single instance of the context. anyhow, I now create a new instance of the context in my ShipmentEditViewModel, and query against it for the Shipment record. I know I could just pass the record, but I wanted to use the Ocean Framework that Karl Shifflett wrote and don't want to muck about writing new transition methods. So anyhow, I query and when stepping through, I can see that it returns a record, as soon as execution reached the point where it assigned the query result to the e.Result property, it throws up the following exception depending on the query I used. LINQToEntities Dim RecordID As Decimal = CDec(e.Argument) Dim myResult = From ship In _Context.Shipment _ Where ship.ShipID = e.Argument _ Select ship Select Case myResult.Count Case 0 e.Result = New Shipment Case 1 e.Result = myResult(0) Case Else e.Result = Nothing End Select "LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object.CompareObjectEqual(System.Object, System.Object, Boolean)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. LINQToEntities via Method calls Dim RecordID As Decimal = CDec(e.Argument) Dim myResult = _Context.Shipment.Where(Function(s) s.ShipID = RecordID) Select Case myResult.Count Case 0 e.Result = New Shipment Case 1 e.Result = myResult(0) Case Else e.Result = Nothing End Select LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'SnazzyShippingDAL.Shipment ElementAtOrDefault[Shipment] (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[SnazzyShippingDAL.Shipment], Int32)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. I have been trying to get this thing to display a record for like three days. i am seriously thinking about going back and re=-engineering it without the MVVM pattern (which I realize I am only starting to learn and understand) if only to make the &$^%ed thing work. Any help will be muchly appreciated. Cory

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  • Java RegEx API "Look-behind group does not have an obvious maximum length near index ..."

    - by Foo Inc
    Hello, I'm on to some SQL where clause parsing and designed a working RegEx to find a column outside string literals using "Rad Software Regular Expression Desginer" which is using the .NET API. To make sure the designed RegEx works with Java too, I tested it by using the API of course (1.5 and 1.6). But guess what, it won't work. I got the message "Look-behind group does not have an obvious maximum length near index 28". The string that I'm trying to get parsed is Column_1='test''the''stuff''all''day''long' AND Column_2='000' AND TheVeryColumnIWantToFind = 'Column_1=''test''''the''''stuff''''all''''day''''long'' AND Column_2=''000'' AND TheVeryColumnIWantToFind = '' TheVeryColumnIWantToFind = '' AND (Column_3 is null or Column_3 = ''Not interesting'') AND ''1'' = ''1''' AND (Column_3 is null or Column_3 = 'Still not interesting') AND '1' = '1' As you may have guessed, I tried to create some kind of worst case to ensure the RegEx won't fail on more complicated SQL where clauses. The RegEx itself looks like this (?i:(?<!=\s*'(?:[^']|(?:''))*)((?<=\s*)TheVeryColumnIWantToFind(?=(?:\s+|=)))) I'm not sure if there is a more elegant RegEx (there'll most likely be one), but that's not important right now as it does the trick. To explain the RegEx in a few words: If it finds the column I'm after, it does a negative look-behind to figure out if the column name is used in a string literal. If so, it won't match. If not, it'll match. Back to the question. As I mentioned before, it won't work with Java. What will work and result in what I want? I found out, that Java does not seem to support unlimited look-behinds but still I couldn't get it to work. Isn't it right that a look-behind is always putting a limit up on itself from the search offset to the current search position? So it would result in something like "position - offset"?

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  • Get an IDataReader from a typed List

    - by Jason Kealey
    I have a List<MyObject> with a million elements. (It is actually a SubSonic Collection but it is not loaded from the database). I'm currently using SqlBulkCopy as follows: private string FastInsertCollection(string tableName, DataTable tableData) { string sqlConn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[SubSonicConfig.DefaultDataProvider.ConnectionStringName].ConnectionString; using (SqlBulkCopy s = new SqlBulkCopy(sqlConn, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock)) { s.DestinationTableName = tableName; s.BatchSize = 5000; s.WriteToServer(tableData); s.BulkCopyTimeout = SprocTimeout; s.Close(); } return sqlConn; } I use SubSonic's MyObjectCollection.ToDataTable() to build the DataTable from my collection. However, this duplicates objects in memory and is inefficient. I'd like to use the SqlBulkCopy.WriteToServer method that uses an IDataReader instead of a DataTable so that I don't duplicate my collection in memory. What's the easiest way to get an IDataReader from my list? I suppose I could implement a custom data reader (like here http://blogs.microsoft.co.il/blogs/aviwortzel/archive/2008/05/06/implementing-sqlbulkcopy-in-linq-to-sql.aspx) , but there must be something simpler I can do without writing a bunch of generic code. Edit: It does not appear that one can easily generate an IDataReader from a collection of objects. Accepting current answer even though I was hoping for something built into the framework.

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  • c# WebRequest to connect to wikipedia API

    - by NickJ
    Hey, This may be a pathetically simple problem but I cannot seem to format the post webrequest/response to get data from the wikipedia api. I have posted my code below if anyone can help me see my problem. string pgTitle = txtPageTitle.Text; Uri address = new Uri("http://en.wikipedia.org/w/api.php"); HttpWebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(address) as HttpWebRequest; request.Method = "POST"; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; string action = "query"; string query = pgTitle; StringBuilder data = new StringBuilder(); data.Append("action=" + HttpUtility.UrlEncode(action)); data.Append("&query=" + HttpUtility.UrlEncode(query)); byte[] byteData = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(data.ToString()); request.ContentLength = byteData.Length; using (Stream postStream = request.GetRequestStream()) { postStream.Write(byteData, 0, byteData.Length); } using (HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) { // Get the response stream StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); divWikiData.InnerText = reader.ReadToEnd(); }

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  • C# performance analysis- how to count CPU cycles?

    - by Lirik
    Is this a valid way to do performance analysis? I want to get nanosecond accuracy and determine the performance of typecasting: class PerformanceTest { static double last = 0.0; static List<object> numericGenericData = new List<object>(); static List<double> numericTypedData = new List<double>(); static void Main(string[] args) { double totalWithCasting = 0.0; double totalWithoutCasting = 0.0; for (double d = 0.0; d < 1000000.0; ++d) { numericGenericData.Add(d); numericTypedData.Add(d); } Stopwatch stopwatch = new Stopwatch(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { stopwatch.Start(); testWithTypecasting(); stopwatch.Stop(); totalWithCasting += stopwatch.ElapsedTicks; stopwatch.Start(); testWithoutTypeCasting(); stopwatch.Stop(); totalWithoutCasting += stopwatch.ElapsedTicks; } Console.WriteLine("Avg with typecasting = {0}", (totalWithCasting/10)); Console.WriteLine("Avg without typecasting = {0}", (totalWithoutCasting/10)); Console.ReadKey(); } static void testWithTypecasting() { foreach (object o in numericGenericData) { last = ((double)o*(double)o)/200; } } static void testWithoutTypeCasting() { foreach (double d in numericTypedData) { last = (d * d)/200; } } } The output is: Avg with typecasting = 468872.3 Avg without typecasting = 501157.9 I'm a little suspicious... it looks like there is nearly no impact on the performance. Is casting really that cheap?

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  • jQuery WCF Service MVC2 VS2010 .NET 4.0 call with parameters fails

    - by AUSTX_RJL
    In Visual Studio 2010 I created a new Ajax enabled WCF Service [ServiceContract(Namespace = "TestWCFAjax.Bridge")] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class Bridge { [OperationContract] public string DoWork() { return "jQuery WCF call without parameters from MVC2 works." ; } [OperationContract] public string DoWork1(string parm) { return parm + " jQuery WCF call with parameters from MVC2 fails"; } In the Home Controllers Index.aspx view I add the jQuery: function CallWebMethod() { $.ajax( { type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset-utf-8", url: "http://localhost:1452/Bridge.svc/DoWork1", dataType: "json", data: '{"parm":"test"}', error: jqueryError, success: function (msg) { alert("back"); var divForResult = document.getElementById("test"); divForResult.innerHTML = "Result: <b>" + msg.d + "</b>"; } }) } function jqueryError(request, status, error) { alert(request.responseText + " " + status + " " + error); } (using the built-in Web Server in VS 2010) When I call DoWork, it works fine. When I call DoWork1 it always returns "error undefined" and the WCF call never happens. I've tried every combination of: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] I can think of and it does not help. I must be missing something simple. There are MANY posting about how to make this work, and other than the "no parameter" version, none have worked for me. Can anyone post a sample MVC2 jQuery 1.4 .NET 4.0 WCF VS2010 working sample or spot the likely error? Thanks.

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  • C# update GUI continuously from backgroundworker.

    - by Qrew
    I have created a GUI (winforms) and added a backgroundworker to run in a separate thread. The backgroundworker needs to update 2 labels continuously. The backgroundworker thread should start with button1 click and run forever. class EcuData { public int RPM { get; set; } public int MAP { get; set; } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { EcuData data = new EcuData { RPM = 0, MAP = 0 }; BackWorker1.RunWorkerAsync(data); } private void BackWorker1_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { EcuData argumentData = e.Argument as EcuData; int x = 0; while (x<=10) { // // Code for reading in data from hardware. // argumentData.RPM = x; //x is for testing only! argumentData.MAP = x * 2; //x is for testing only! e.Result = argumentData; Thread.Sleep(100); x++; } private void BackWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted_1(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { EcuData data = e.Result as EcuData; label1.Text = data.RPM.ToString(); label2.Text = data.MAP.ToString(); } } The above code just updated the GUI when backgroundworker is done with his job, and that's not what I'm looking for.

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  • Use RegEx in Java to extract parameters in between parentheses

    - by lars_bx
    I'm writing a utility to extract the names of header files from JSPs. I have no problem reading the JSPs line by line and finding the lines I need. I am having a problem extracting the specific text needed using regex. After looking at many similar questions I'm hitting a brick wall. An example of the String I'll be matching from within is: <jsp:include page="<%=Pages.getString(\"MY_HEADER\")%>" flush="true"></jsp:include> All I need is MY_HEADER for this example. Any time I have this tag: <%=Pages.getString I need what comes between this: <%=Pages.getString(\" and this: )%> Here is what I have currently (which is not working, I might add) : String currentLine; while ((currentLine = fileReader.readLine()) != null) { Pattern pattern = Pattern.compile("<%=Pages\\.getString\\(\\\\\"([^\\\\]*)"); Matcher matcher = pattern.matcher(currentLine); while(matcher.find()) { System.out.println(matcher.group(1).toString()); }} I need to be able to use the Java RegEx API and regex to extract those header names. Any help on this issue is greatly appreciated. Thanks! EDIT: Resolved this issue, thankfully. The tricky part was, after being given the right regex, it had to be taken into account that the String I was feeding to the regex was always going to have two " / " characters ( (/"MY_HEADER"/) ) that needed to be escaped in the pattern. Here is what worked (thanks to the help ;-)): Pattern pattern = Pattern.compile("<%=Pages\\.getString\\(\\\\\"([^\\\\\"]*)");

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  • Mocking the CAL EventAggregator with Moq

    - by toxvaerd
    Hi, I'm using the Composite Application Library's event aggregator, and would like to create a mock for the IEventAggregator interface, for use in my unit test. I'm planning on using Moq for this task, and an example test so far looks something like this: var mockEventAggregator = new Mock<IEventAggregator>(); var mockImportantEvent = new Mock<ImportantEvent>(); mockEventAggregator.Setup(e => e.GetEvent<SomeOtherEvent>()).Returns(new Mock<SomeOtherEvent>().Object); mockEventAggregator.Setup(e => e.GetEvent<SomeThirdEvent>()).Returns(new Mock<SomeThirdEvent>().Object); // ... mockEventAggregator.Setup(e => e.GetEvent<ImportantEvent>()).Returns(mockImportantEvent.Object); mockImportantEvent.Setup(e => e.Publish(It.IsAny<ImportantEventArgs>())); // ...Actual test... mockImportantEvent.VerifyAll(); This works fine, but I would like know, if there is some clever way to avoid having to define an empty mock for every event-type my code might encounter (SomeOtherEvent, SomeThirdEvent, ...)? I could of course define all my events this way in a [TestInitialize] method, but I would like to know if there is a more clever way? :-)

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  • WCF service with Factory attribute on .svc is not working on web server (IIS6), but is locally using

    - by Jessica
    I am working on implementing a non web.config approach of WCF services using the factory attribute on the .svc file per Rick Strahl's blog post: Factory="System.ServiceModel.Activation.WebScriptServiceHostFactory" Locally, I am running IIS7 in Visual Studio 2008 and have no problem, but when I deploy to my web server (currently running IIS6), I am getting an authentication error in the event log: Exception: System.ServiceModel.ServiceActivationException: The service '/Services/ResourcesService.svc' cannot be activated due to an exception during compilation. The exception message is: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used.. --- System.InvalidOperationException: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. at System.ServiceModel.Web.WebServiceHost.SetBindingCredentialBasedOnHostedEnvironment(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint, AuthenticationSchemes supportedSchemes) at System.ServiceModel.Web.WebServiceHost.AddAutomaticWebHttpBindingEndpoints(ServiceHost host, IDictionary`2 implementedContracts, String multipleContractsErrorMessage) at System.ServiceModel.WebScriptServiceHost.OnOpening() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open() at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostingEnvironment.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostingEnvironment.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) After doing some Googling, I changed my authentication settings on the .svc folder within my project (on the server) to only anonymous authentication, but it did not work. I still get web service failed on the calls. IIS7 by default only had anonymous. I do not have any entries in my web.config for the services (I stripped them out per this pattern). I am using a nant script to deploy the website to the server and use this also locally to verify the script was not causing the issue. Any known issue with this? IIS 6 not able to handle?

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  • How to configure cache regions in fluent nhibernate and syscache2

    - by Marcus Oldin
    Hi, I've been trying to implement cache regions with fluent nhibernate and I've done the following so far: Setup caching in Fluently.Configure(): private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { string csStringName = Environment.MachineName; var nhibConfigProps = new Dictionary&lt;string, string&gt;(); nhibConfigProps.Add("current_session_context_class","web"); var cfg = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(c =&gt; c.FromConnectionStringWithKey(csStringName)) .ShowSql() .Cache(cache=&gt;cache.ProviderClass&lt;NHibernate.Caches.SysCache2.SysCacheProvider&gt;().UseQueryCache())) .Mappings(m =&gt; m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf&lt;UserMap&gt;()) .ExposeConfiguration(config =&gt; config.AddProperties(nhibConfigProps)) .ExposeConfiguration(config=&gt; config.EventListeners.DeleteEventListeners = new IDeleteEventListener[] {new SoftDeleteListener()}) .ExposeConfiguration(config =&gt; new SchemaUpdate(config).Execute(false, true)) .BuildSessionFactory(); return cfg; } Changed my ClassMap to enable cache, and set the region of choice: public UserMap() { Cache.ReadWrite().Region("User"); ... } Hopefully I've done the above correctly, but I can't really figure out where to configure the priority and cache duration for each region. Do you know how to do that? And if you happen to find flaws in the above code I'd really appreciate the feedback. TIA//Marcus

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  • DataGridView row is still dirty after committing changes

    - by Ecyrb
    DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty remains true after I commit changes to the database. I want to set it to false so it doesn't trigger RowValidating when it loses focus. I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList<T>. I handle the CellEndEdit event and save changes to the database. After saving those changes I would like DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be set to true, since all cells in the row are up-to-date; however, it's set to false. This causes problems for me because when the row does lose focus it will trigger RowValidating, which I handle and validate all three cells in. So even though all the cells are valid and none are dirty it will still validate them all. That's a waste. Here's an example of what I have: void dataGridView_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { // Ignore cell if it's not dirty if (dataGridView.isCurrentCellDirty) return; // Validate current cell. } void dataGridView_RowValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellCancelEventArgs e) { // Ignore Row if it's not dirty if (!dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty) return; // Validate all cells in the current row. } void dataGridView_CellEndEdit(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { // Validate all cells in the current row and return if any are invalid. // If they are valid, save changes to the database // This is when I would expect dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be false. // When this row loses focus it will trigger RowValidating and validate all // cells in this row, which we already did above. } I've read posts that said I could call the form's Validate() method, but that will cause RowValidating to fire, which is what I'm trying to avoid. Any idea how I can set DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to true? Or maybe a way to prevent RowValidating from unnecessarily validating all the cells?

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  • ASP.Net FormsAuthentication Redirect Loses the cookie between Redirect and Application_AuthenticateR

    - by Joel Etherton
    I have a FormsAuthentication cookie that is persistent and works independently in a development, test, and production environment. I have a user that can authenticate, the user object is created, the authentication cookie is added to the response: 'Custom object to grab the TLD from the url authCookie.Domain = myTicketModule.GetTopLevelDomain(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_HOST")) FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(authTicket.Name, False) Response.SetCookie(authCookie) The user gets processed a little bit to check for a first time login, security questions, etc, and is then redirected with the following tidbit: Session.Add("ForceRedirect", "/FirstTimeLogin.aspx") Response.Redirect("~/FirstTimeLogin.aspx", True) With a debug break, I can verify that the cookie collection holds both a cookie not related to authentication that I set for a different purpose and the formsauthentication cookie. Then the next step in the process occurs at the ApplicationAuthenticateRequest in the global.asax: Sub Application_AuthenticateRequest(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim formsCookieName As String = myConfigurationManager.AppSettings("FormsCookieName") Dim authCookie As HttpCookie = Request.Cookies(formsCookieName) At this point, for this ONE user authCookie is nothing. I have 15,000 other users who are not impacted in this manner. However, for one user the cookie just vanishes without a trace. I've seen this before with w3wp.exe exceptions, state server exceptions and other IIS process related exceptions, but I'm getting no exceptions in the event log. w3wp.exe is not crashing, the state server has some timeouts but they appear unrelated (as verified by timestamps) and it only happens to this one user on this one domain (this code is used across 2 different TLDs with approximately 10 other subdomains). One avenue I'm investigating is that the cookie might just be too large. I would think that there would be a check for the size of the cookie going into the response, and I wouldn't think it would impact it this way. Any ideas why the request might dumping the cookie? NOTE: The secondary cookie I mentioned that I set also gets dumped (and it's very tiny). EDIT-NOTE: The session token is NOT lost when this happens. However, since the authentication cookie is lost, it is ignored and replaced on a subsequent login.

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  • Support for nested model and class validation with ASP.NET MVC 2.0

    - by Diep-Vriezer
    I'm trying to validate a model containing other objects with validation rules using the System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations attributes was hoping the default MVC implementation would suffice: var obj = js.Deserialize(json, objectInfo.ObjectType); if(!TryValidateModel(obj)) { // Handle failed model validation. } The object is composed of primitive types but also contains other classes which also use DataAnnotications. Like so: public class Entry { [Required] public Person Subscriber { get; set; } [Required] public String Company { get; set; } } public class Person { public String FirstName { get; set;} [Required] public String Surname { get; set; } } The problem is that the ASP.NET MVC validation only goes down 1 level and only evaluates the properties of the top level class, as can be read on digitallycreated.net/Blog/54/deep-inside-asp.net-mvc-2-model-metadata-and-validation. Does anyone know an elegant solution to this? I've tried xVal, but they seem to use a non-recursive pattern (http://blog.stevensanderson.com/2009/01/10/xval-a-validation-framework-for-aspnet-mvc/). Someone must have run into this problem before right? Nesting objects in your model doesn't seem so weird if you're designing a web service.

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  • curl POST to RESTful services

    - by Sashikiran Challa
    Hello All, There are a lot of questions on Stackoverflow about curl but I could not figure out what is that I am doing what I am not supposed to. I am trying to call a RESTful service that I had written using Jersey API and am trying to POST an xml string to it and I get HTTP 415 error which is supposed to be a Media Type error. Here in my shell script call to 1st service: abc=curl http://gf...:8080/InChItoD/inchi/3dstructure?InChIstring=$inchi echo $abc (this works fine the output that it returns is given below.) Posting this xml string to second service def= curl -d $abc -H "Content-Type:text/xml" http://gf...:8080/XML2G/xml3d/gssinput I get the following error: ... ... HTTP Status 415 Status report message description.The server refused this request because the request entity is in a format not supported by the requested resource for the requested method ().Apache Tomcat/6.0.26 This is a sample of xml string I am trying to POST <?xml version="1.0"?><molecule xmlns="http://www.xml-cml.org/schema"> <atomArray> <atom id="a1" elementType="N" formalCharge="1" x3="0.997963" y3="-0.002882" z3="-0.004222"/> <atom id="a2" elementType="H" x3="2.024650" y3="-0.002674" z3="0.004172"/> <atom id="a3" elementType="H" x3="0.655444" y3="0.964985" z3="0.004172"/> <atom id="a4" elementType="H" x3="0.649003" y3="-0.496650" z3="0.825505"/> <atom id="a5" elementType="H" x3="0.662767" y3="-0.477173" z3="-0.850949"/> </atomArray> <bondArray> <bond atomRefs2="a1 a2" order="1"/> <bond atomRefs2="a1 a3" order="1"/> <bond atomRefs2="a1 a4" order="1"/> <bond atomRefs2="a1 a5" order="1"/> </bondArray></molecule> Thanks in advance

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  • Actionscript 3: Force program to wait until event handler is called

    - by Jeremy Swinarton
    I have an AS 3.0 class that loads a JSON file in using a URLRequest. package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.display.Loader; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.net.URLLoader; import flash.events.Event; public class Tiles extends MovieClip { private var mapWidth:int,mapHeight:int; private var mapFile:String; private var mapLoaded:Boolean=false; public function Tiles(m:String) { init(m); } private function init(m:String):void { // Initiates the map arrays for later use. mapFile=m; // Load the map file in. var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, mapHandler); loader.load(new URLRequest("maps/" + mapFile)); } private function mapHandler(e:Event):void { mapLoaded=true; mapWidth=3000; } public function getMapWidth():int { if (mapLoaded) { return (mapWidth); } else { getMapWidth(); return(-1); } } } } When the file is finished loading, the mapHandler event makes changes to the class properties, which in turn are accessed using the getMapWidth function. However, if the getMapwidth function gets called before it finishes loading, the program will fail. How can I make the class wait to accept function calls until after the file is loaded?

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  • Why am I getting: InvalidOperationException: Failed to map the path '/app42/App_Code/'.

    - by serialhobbyist
    I've been working on a little Silverlight utility which calls a Silverlight web service. It works from my dev machine (XPsp2). I've tried publishing it to a 2008 R2 IIS 7.5 server and it doesn't work when trying to contact the web service. So I've tried using the WcfTestClient to connect to the web service. That gave an error. So I turned off CustomErrors and used IE and I get the following. Any idea why? There's no App_Code folder in the app. Failed to map the path '/app42/App_Code/'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Failed to map the path '/app42/App_Code/'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Failed to map the path '/app42/App_Code/'.] System.Web.Configuration.ProcessHostConfigUtils.MapPathActual(String siteName, VirtualPath path) +320 System.Web.Configuration.ProcessHostServerConfig.System.Web.Configuration.IServerConfig.MapPath(IApplicationHost appHost, VirtualPath path) +34 System.Web.Hosting.MapPathBasedVirtualPathEnumerator..ctor(VirtualPath virtualPath, RequestedEntryType requestedEntryType) +169 System.Web.Hosting.MapPathBasedVirtualPathCollection.System.Collections.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() +43 System.Web.Compilation.CodeDirectoryCompiler.ProcessDirectoryRecursive(VirtualDirectory vdir, Boolean topLevel) +147 System.Web.Compilation.CodeDirectoryCompiler.GetCodeDirectoryAssembly(VirtualPath virtualDir, CodeDirectoryType dirType, String assemblyName, StringSet excludedSubdirectories, Boolean isDirectoryAllowed) +11196502 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CompileCodeDirectory(VirtualPath virtualDir, CodeDirectoryType dirType, String assemblyName, StringSet excludedSubdirectories) +185 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CompileCodeDirectories() +654 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.EnsureTopLevelFilesCompiled() +658 [HttpException (0x80004005): Failed to map the path '/app42/App_Code/'.] System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.ReportTopLevelCompilationException() +76 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.EnsureTopLevelFilesCompiled() +1012 System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) +1025 [HttpException (0x80004005): Failed to map the path '/app42/App_Code/'.] System.Web.HttpRuntime.FirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +11301302 System.Web.HttpRuntime.EnsureFirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +88 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +4338644 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927

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  • jQuery urlencode/decode patch help

    - by jeerose
    Hi Gang, I'm using this jQuery urlencode and urldecode plugin - very simple and easy to use but it doesn't, in its original form, remove + from the string. The one comment on the home page suggests a patch but I don't know how to implement it. Can anyone help me out? The Page: http://www.digitalbart.com/jquery-and-urlencode/ //URL Encode/Decode $.extend({URLEncode:function(c){var o='';var x=0;c=c.toString(); var r=/(^[a-zA-Z0-9_.]*)/; while(x<c.length){var m=r.exec(c.substr(x)); if(m!=null && m.length>1 && m[1]!=''){o+=m[1];x+=m[1].length; }else{if(c[x]==' ')o+='+';else{var d=c.charCodeAt(x);var h=d.toString(16); o+='%'+(h.length<2?'0':'')+h.toUpperCase();}x++;}}return o;}, URLDecode:function(s){var o=s;var binVal,t;var r=/(%[^%]{2})/; while((m=r.exec(o))!=null && m.length>1 && m[1]!=''){ b=parseInt(m[1].substr(1),16); t=String.fromCharCode(b);o=o.replace(m[1],t);}return o;} }); The proposed Patch: function dummy_url_decode(url) { // fixed -- + char decodes to space char var o = url; var binVal, t, b; var r = /(%[^%]{2}|\+)/; while ((m = r.exec(o)) != null && m.length > 1 && m[1] != '') { if (m[1] == '+') { t = ' '; } else { b = parseInt(m[1].substr(1), 16); t = String.fromCharCode(b); } o = o.replace(m[1], t); } return o; } Thanks!

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  • Using pinvoke in c# to call sprintf and friends on 64-bit

    - by bde
    I am having an interesting problem with using pinvoke in C# to call _snwprintf. It works for integer types, but not for floating point numbers. This is on 64-bit Windows, it works fine on 32-bit. My code is below, please keep in mind that this is a contrived example to show the behavior I am seeing. class Program { [DllImport("msvcrt.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private static extern int _snwprintf([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] StringBuilder str, uint length, String format, int p); [DllImport("msvcrt.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private static extern int _snwprintf([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] StringBuilder str, uint length, String format, double p); static void Main(string[] args) { Double d = 1.0f; Int32 i = 1; Object o = (object)d; StringBuilder str = new StringBuilder(); _snwprintf(str, 32, "%10.1f", (Double)o); Console.WriteLine(str.ToString()); o = (object)i; _snwprintf(str, 32, "%10d", (Int32)o); Console.WriteLine(str.ToString()); Console.ReadKey(); } } The output of this program is 0.0 1 It should print 1.0 on the first line and not 0.0, and so far I am stumped.

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  • Failed to set the initialPlaybackTime for a MPMoviePlayerController when recreating it in the second

    - by vicky
    Hi, everyone. It's really wired. When at the first time a MPMoviePlayerController (e.g., theMovie) is created, its initialPlaybackTime can be set successfully. But when theMoive is released and re-create a new MPMoviePlayerController, its intialPlaybackTime can not be set correctly, actually the movie always plays from the start. The code is as follows. -(void)initAndPlayMovie:(NSURL *)movieURL { MPMoviePlayerController *theMovie = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] initWithContentURL:movieURL]; // create a notification for moviePlaybackFinish [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(moviePlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:theMovie]; theMovie.initialPlaybackTime = 15; [theMovie setScalingMode:MPMovieScalingModeAspectFill]; [theMovie play];} -(void) moviePlayBackDidFinish:(NSNotification*)notification { MPMoviePlayerController * theMovie = [notification object]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:theMovie]; [theMovie release]; [self initAndPlayMovie:[self getMovieURL]]; } With the above code, when the viewcontroller did load and run initAndPlayMovie, the movie starts to play from 15 seconds, but when it plays finished or "Done" is pushed, a new theMovie is created and starts to play from 0 second. Does anybody know what happened with the initialPlaybackTime property of MPMoviePlayerController? And whenever you reload the viewController where the above code is (presentModalViewController from a parent viewcontroller), the movie can start from any playback time. I am really confused what's the difference of the MPMoviePlayerController registration methods between the viewcontroller load and the recreating it after release. Need your help! Thank you!

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  • .NET Remoting Exception not handled Client-Side

    - by DanJo519
    I checked the rest of the remoting questions, and this specific case did not seem to be addressed. I have a .NET Remoting server/client set up. On the server side I have an object with a method that can throw an exception, and a client which will try to call that method. Server: public bool MyEquals(Guid myGuid, string a, string b) { if (CheckAuthentication(myGuid)) { logger.Debug("Request for \"" + a + "\".Equals(\"" + b + "\")"); return a.Equals(b); } else { throw new AuthenticationException(UserRegistryService.USER_NOT_REGISTERED_EXCEPTION_TEXT); } } Client: try { bool result = RemotedObject.MyEquals(myGuid, "cat", "dog"); } catch (Services.Exceptions.AuthenticationException e) { Console.WriteLine("You do not have permission to execute that action"); } When I call MyEquals with a Guid which causes CheckAuthentication to return false, .NET tries to throw the exception and says the AuthenticationException was unhandled. This happens server side. The exception is never marshaled over to the client-side, and I cannot figure out why. All of the questions I have looked at address the issue of an exception being handled client-side, but it isn't the custom exception but a base type. In my case, I can't even get any exception to cross the remoting boundary to the client. Here is a copy of AuthenticationException. It is in the shared library between both server and client. [Serializable] public class AuthenticationException : ApplicationException, ISerializable { public AuthenticationException(string message) : base(message) { } public AuthenticationException(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) : base(info, context) { } #region ISerializable Members void ISerializable.GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { base.GetObjectData(info, context); } #endregion }

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