Search Results

Search found 2848 results on 114 pages for 'nor'.

Page 94/114 | < Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >

  • Does "epsilon" really guarantees anything in floating-point computations?!

    - by Michal Czardybon
    To make the problem short let's say I want to compute expression: a / (b - c) on float's. To make sure the result is meaningful, I can check if 'b' and 'c' are inequal: float eps = std::numeric_limits<float>::epsilon(); if ((b - c) > EPS || (c - b) > EPS) { return a / (b - c); } but my tests show it is not enough to guarantee either meaningful results nor not failing to provide a result if it is possible. Case 1: a = 1.0f; b = 0.00000003f; c = 0.00000002f; Result: The if condition is NOT met, but the expression would produce a correct result 100000008 (as for the floats' precision). Case 2: a = 1e33f; b = 0.000003; c = 0.000002; Result: The if condition is met, but the expression produces not a meaningful result +1.#INF00. I found it much more reliable to check the result, not the arguments: const float INF = numeric_limits<float>::infinity(); float x = a / (b - c); if (-INF < x && x < INF) { return x; } But what for is the epsilon then and why is everyone saying epsilon is good to use?

    Read the article

  • How to link jQuery UI datepicker functionality with a select list

    - by take2
    I'm trying to connect jQuery UI's datepicker with a select list. I have found one explanation on jQuery's Forum ( forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-ui-datepicker-with-select-lists), but I can't get it working. There are input and select list both declared: <select id="selectMonth"><option value="01">Jan</option><option value="02">Feb</option> <option value="03">Mar</option><option value="04">Apr</option>...</select> <select id="selectDay"><option value="01">1</option><option value="02">2</option> <option value="03">3</option><option value="04">4</option>...</select> <select id="selectYear"><option value="2012">2012</option><option value="2013">2013</option> <option value="2014">2014</option>...</select> <p>Date: <input type="text" id="selectedDatepicker" /></p> This is the script: $(function() { $('#selectedDatepicker').datepicker({ beforeShow: readSelected, onSelect: updateSelected, minDate: new Date(2012, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: new Date(2014, 12 - 1, 31), showOn: 'both', buttonImageOnly: true, buttonImage: 'img/calendar.gif'}); // Prepare to show a date picker linked to three select controls function readSelected() { $('#selectedDatepicker').val($('#selectMonth').val() + '/' + $('#selectDay').val() + '/' + $('#selectYear').val()); return {}; } // Update three select controls to match a date picker selection function updateSelected(date) { $('#selectMonth').val(date.substring(0, 2)); $('#selectDay').val(date.substring(3, 5)); $('#selectYear').val(date.substring(6, 10)); } }); And here is the fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/xKXZm/ They are not connected properly, the only "connected behaviour" is that when you click on the input button, it picks up the value of the select list. On the other hand, the select list never picks up the value of the input nor will the input pick up the value of the select list until you click on it.

    Read the article

  • adb doesn't get phone's device name/number

    - by Dona Hertel
    Okay, I have a strange problem I haven't seen listed anywhere. I'm developing an android app and I would like to run it on my Huawei Ascend. I have set up a file in /etc/udev/90-android.rules with the line: SUBSYSTEM=="usb", SYSFS{idVendor}=="12d1", MODE="0666" where '12d1' is the correct vendor ID for this phone (I verified this with 'lsusb' command). When I plug in the phone (it does have debugging on) and restart the adb server I get a connection but the name field does not get set. The output to 'adb devices' is: List of devices attached \n ???????????? device Plugging and unplugging the cable doesn't resolve this. Neither does restarting the adb server. Nor does a total reboot of both my computer or the phone. This is fine as I can get logs and a shell. The problem is that in the eclipse plugin, the device's name is list as "????????????" and so when it tries connect, it quits with an error message of 'device not found' even though the device is listed and 'online'. Is there something else I need to do? Do I need to set the name of the device somehow? cocofan P.S.: The app has 'debuggable' set to true in the manifest file.

    Read the article

  • iPhone OpenGL ES Texture2D Masking

    - by Robert Neagu
    What's the best choice when trying to mask a texture like ColorSplash or other apps like iSteam, etc? I started learning OPENGL ES like... 4 days ago (I'm a total rookie) and tried the following approach: 1) I created a colored texture2D, a grayscale version of the first texture and a third texture2D called mask 2) I also created a texture2D for the brush... which is grayscale and it's opaque (brush = black = 0,0,0,1 and surroundings = white = 1,1,1,1). My intention was to create an antialiased brush with smooth edges but i'm fine with a normal one right now 3) I searched for masking techniques on the internet and found this tutorial ZeusCMD - Design and Development Tutorials : OpenGL ES Programming Tutorials - Masking about masking. The tutorial tells me to use blending to achieve masking... first draw colored, then mask with glBlendFunc(GL_DST_COLOR, GL_ZERO) and then grayscale with glBlendFunc(GL_ONE, GL_ONE) ... and this gives me something close to what i want... but not exactly what i want. The result is masked but it's somehow overbright-ed 4) For drawing to the mask texture i used an extra frame buffer object (FBO) I'm not really happy with the resulting image (overbright-ed picture) nor with the speed achieved with this method. I think the normal way was to draw directly to the grayscale (overlay) texture2D affecting only it's alpha channel in the places where the brush hits. Is there a fast way to achieve this? I have searched a lot and never got an answer that's clear and understandable. Then, in the main draw loop I could only draw the colored texture and then blend the grayscale ontop with glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA). I just want to learn to use OPENGL ES and it's driving me nuts because i can't get it to work properly. An advice, a link to a tutorial would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

    - by wich
    I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

    Read the article

  • boost::filesystem - how to create a boost path from a windows path string on posix plattforms?

    - by VolkA
    I'm reading path names from a database which are stored as relative paths in Windows format, and try to create a boost::filesystem::path from them on a Unix system. What happens is that the constructor call interprets the whole string as the filename. I need the path to be converted to a correct Posix path as it will be used locally. I didn't find any conversion functions in the boost::filesystem reference, nor through google. Am I just blind, is there an obvious solution? If not, how would you do this? Example: std::string win_path("foo\\bar\\asdf.xml"); std::string posix_path("foo/bar/asdf.xml"); // loops just once, as part is the whole win_path interpreted as a filename boost::filesystem::path boost_path(win_path); BOOST_FOREACH(boost::filesystem::path part, boost_path) { std::cout << part << std::endl; } // prints each path component separately boost::filesystem::path boost_path_posix(posix_path); BOOST_FOREACH(boost::filesystem::path part, boost_path_posix) { std::cout << part << std::endl; }

    Read the article

  • How can I send rich emails using the user's mail client ?

    - by Brann
    I need my .net program to send rich emails (usually containing table data, around 20 columns x 10 rows) using the user's mail infrastructure, allowing him to review/edit the mail before sending it, and storing the mail in his 'sent items' folder. mailto: seems the obvious choice, but unfortunately, it doesn't support neither attachments nor html bodies. It seems some clients support some extra features (e.g. Outlook 97 used to support a &Attach tag, but this is not the case for more recent versions). I could use mailto and try to format the text body to look nice (using tabs, etc), but this isn't really elegant and wouldn't support huge data. using automation seems a very huge task, as I would need to automate dozens of clients (4 or 5 versions of outlook, lotusnotes, thunderbid, etc.) ... This would be a huge task and it's not really my core business ... I could send emails through code and write my own mail form to let the user edit the mail, but this would have a lot of drawbacks : the user would need to manually configure the mail server settings he wouldn't have access to his contact directory the mail wouldn't be sent in his sent items folder This seems a quite common issue, but I haven't found any satisfying solution yet ; does someone knows of a library supporting this (ie containing automation logic for most mainstream email clients?). Or an alternative to mailto ?

    Read the article

  • Given a typical Rails 3 environment, why am I unable to execute any tests?

    - by Tom
    I'm working on writing simple unit tests for a Rails 3 project, but I'm unable to actually execute any tests. Case in point, attempting to run the test auto-generated by Rails fails: require 'test_helper' class UserTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end end Results in the following error: <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- test_helper (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from user_test.rb:1:in `<main>' Commenting out the require 'test_helper' line and attempting to run the test results in this error: user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) The action pack gems appear to be properly installed and up to date: actionmailer (3.0.3, 2.3.5) actionpack (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activemodel (3.0.3) activerecord (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activeresource (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activesupport (3.0.3, 2.3.5) Ruby is at 1.9.2p0 and Rails is at 3.0.3. The sample dump of my test directory is as follows: /fixtures /functional /integration /performance /unit -- /helpers -- user_helper_test.rb -- user_test.rb test_helper.rb I've never seen this problem before - I've run the typical rake tasks for preparing the test environment. I have nothing out of the ordinary in my application or environment configuration files, nor have I installed any unusual gems that would interfere with the test environment. Edit Xavier Holt's suggestion, explicitly specifying the path to the test_helper worked; however, this revealed an issue with ActiveSupport. Now when I attempt to run the test, I receive the following error message (as also listed above): user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) But as you can see above, Action Pack is all installed and update to date.

    Read the article

  • How can I find out if the MainActivity is being paused from my Java class?

    - by quinestor
    I am using motion sensor detection in my application. My design is this: a class gets the sensor services references from the main activity and then it implements SensorEventListener. That is, the MainActivity does not listen for sensor event changes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // ... code mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(Context.SENSOR_SERVICE); mAccelerometer = mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER); // The following is my java class, it does not extends any android fragment/activty mShakeUtil = new ShakeUtil(mSensorManager,mAccelerometer,this); // ..more code.. } I can't redesign ShakeUtil so it is a fragment nor activity, unfortunately. Now to illustrate the problem consider: MainActivity is on its way to be destroyed/paused. I.e screen rotation ShakeUtil's onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) gets called in the process.. One of the things that happen inside onSensorChanged is a dialog interaction, which gives the error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Can not perform this action after onSaveInstanceState When the previous happens between MainActivity's onSaveInstanceState and onPause. I know this can be prevented if I successfully detect that MainActivity is being pause in ShakeUtil. How can I detect that MainActivity is being paused or onSaveInstanceState was called from ShakeUtil? Alternatively, how can I avoid this issue without making Shakeutil extend activity? So far I have tried with flag variables but that isn't good enough, I guess these are not atomic operations. I tried using Activity's isChangingConfigurations(), but I get an undocummented "NoSuchMethodFound" error.. I am unregistering the sensors by calling ShakeUtil when onPause in main ACtivity

    Read the article

  • how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

    - by user151841
    I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

    Read the article

  • WebView and HTML5 <video>

    - by brian moore
    I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

    Read the article

  • ps: Clean way to only get parent processes?

    - by shkschneider
    I use ps ef and ps rf a lot. Here is a sample output for ps rf: PID TTY STAT TIME COMMAND 3476 pts/0 S 0:00 su ... 3477 pts/0 S 0:02 \_ bash 8062 pts/0 T 1:16 \_ emacs -nw ... 15733 pts/0 R+ 0:00 \_ ps xf 15237 ? S 0:00 uwsgi ... 15293 ? S 0:00 \_ uwsgi ... 15294 ? S 0:00 \_ uwsgi ... And today I needed to retrieve only the master process of uwsgi in a script (so I want only 15237 but not 15293 nor 15294). As of today, I tried some ps rf | grep -v ' \\_ '... but I would like a cleaner way. I also came accross another solution from unix.com's forums: ps xf | sed '1d' | while read pid tty stat time command ; do [ -n "$(echo $command | egrep '^uwsgi')" ] && echo $pid ; done But still a lot of pipes and ugly tricks. Is there really no ps option or cleaner tricks (maybe using awk) to accomplish that?

    Read the article

  • Nullability (Regular Expressions)

    - by danportin
    In Brzozowski's "Derivatives of Regular Expressions" and elsewhere, the function d(R) returning ? if a R is nullable, and Ø otherwise, includes clauses such as the following: d(R1 + R2) = d(R1) + d(R2) d(R1 · R2) = d(R1) ? d(R2) Clearly, if both R1 and R2 are nullable then (R1 · R2) is nullable, and if either R1 or R2 is nullable then (R1 + R2) is nullable. It is unclear to me what the above clauses are supposed to mean, however. My first thought, mapping (+), (·), or the Boolean operations to regular sets is nonsensical, since in the base case, d(a) = Ø (for all a ? S) d(?) = ? d(Ø) = Ø and ? is not a set (nor is the return type of d, which is a regular expression). Furthermore, this mapping isn't indicated, and there is a separate notation for it. I understand nullability, but I'm lost on the definition of the sum, product, and Boolean operations in the definition of d: how are ? or Ø returned from d(R1) ? d(R2), for instance, in the definition off d(R1 · R2)?

    Read the article

  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How do I solve the .NET CF exception "Can't find PInvoke DLL"?

    - by Ignas Limanauskas
    This is to all the C# gurus. I have been banging my head on this for some time already, tried all kinds of advice on the net with no avail. The action is happening in Windows Mobile 5.0. I have a DLL named MyDll.dll. In the MyDll.h I have: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) int MyDllFunction(int one, int two); The definition of MyDllFunction in MyDll.cpp is: int MyDllFunction(int one, int two) { return one + two; } The C# class contains the following declaration: [DllImport("MyDll.dll")] extern public static int MyDllFunction(int one, int two); In the same class I am calling MyDllFunction the following way: int res = MyDllFunction(10, 10); And this is where the bloody thing keeps giving me "Can't find PInvoke DLL 'MyDll.dll'". I have verified that I can actually do the PInvoke on system calls, such as "GetAsyncKeyState(1)", declared as: [DllImport("coredll.dll")] protected static extern short GetAsyncKeyState(int vKey); The MyDll.dll is in the same folder as the executable, and I have also tried putting it into the /Windows folder with no changes nor success. Any advice or solutions are greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • WPF - Transparency - Stream Desktop Content

    - by Niels Willems
    Greetings I'm in the process of making a Scoreboard for a game (Starcraft II). This scoreboard is being made as a WPF Application with a C# code-behind. I already have a version which works for 90% in WinForms but I lacked the support to easily make it look a lot nicer which are available in WPF. The point of this application will be to form a kind of overlay on top of a running game. This game is in Fulscreen(Windowed Mode) so when in WinForms I coded it so that it should always be on top. It would do so and that was no problem. Since the main look of the app in WPF is based on an image with a transparent background I have set most Background values to Transparent. However when I do this the entire application does not get registered by streaming software. For example it just shows my Desktop or the game I'm playing but not my application even though it IS there. I can see it with my own eyes but the audience on the stream cannot. Does anyone have any experience with this matter because it's really doing my head in. My entire application will be useless if it is not visible on streams. If I have to put the background on a color rather than transparent the UI will be completely demolished as well in terms of looks. I'm basically trying to make a game-overlay in C# & WPF. I have read you can do this on different ways as well but I have little to no knowledge of C++ nor do I know anything about DirectX Thank you for your time reading and your possible insights. Edit: The best solution would be an overlay similar to that one of Steam/Xfire/Dolby Axon. Edit 2: I've had no luck with all the suggestions so I basically made the transparent bits of my image non transparent and let the user decide which one to use depending on what streaming software they would be using.

    Read the article

  • Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

    - by Luc Touraille
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

    Read the article

  • Firefox proxy dilemma

    - by Mike L.
    Any idea why when using system proxy settings in firefox, it can not accept a proxy such as: user:[email protected]:port ??? IE will allow and connect to a proxy in this format. Not only does firefox not work, but it does not prompt for the password, nor attempt to make a connection to the proxy. Basically get a "proxy server not found" error. Anybody know a way around this? I am working on a proxy switching program for IE & Firefox, and I would like to use system-wide proxy settings. If I just store the server:port combination, firefox prompts for the password, as well as IE. Then they can be cached and it will not ask again. Maybe my only option is to programmatically cache the user/pass? Anybody know a way to do this? I am pretty sure IE stores them at HTTP basic authentication passwords and I can add them with AddCredential. After saving a password for a proxy in firefox, it shows up in saved passwords in a format like "moz-proxy://server:port" anybody know how to programmatically add a saved password to firefox? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Load PEM encoded private RSA key in Crypto++

    - by 01100110
    Often times, user will have PEM encoded RSA private keys. Crypto++ requires that these keys be in DER format to load. I've been asking people to manually convert their PEM files to DER beforehand using openssl like this: openssl pkcs8 -in in_file.pem -out out_file.der -topk8 -nocrypt -outform der That works fine, but some people don't understand how to do that nor do they want to. So I would like to convert PEM files to DER files automatically within the program. Is it as simple as striping the "-----BEGIN CERTIFICATE-----" and "-----END CERTIFICATE-----" from the PEM or is some other transformation required as well? I've been told that between those markers that it's just b64 encoded DER. Here's some code that demonstrates the issue: // load the private key CryptoPP::RSA::PrivateKey PK; CryptoPP::ByteQueue bytes; try { CryptoPP::FileSource File( rsa.c_str(), true, new CryptoPP::Base64Decoder() ); File.TransferTo( bytes ); bytes.MessageEnd(); // This line Causes BERDecodeError when a PEM encoded file is used PK.Load( bytes ); } catch ( CryptoPP::BERDecodeErr ) { // Convert PEM to DER and try to load the key again } I'd like to avoid making system calls to openssl and do the transformation entirely in Crypto++ so that users can provide either format and things "just work". Thanks for any advice.

    Read the article

  • Struts 2 discard cache header

    - by Dewfy
    I have strange discarding behavior of struts2 while setting cache option for my image. I'm trying to put image from db to be cached on client side To render image I use ( http://struts.apache.org/2.x/docs/how-can-we-display-dynamic-or-static-images-that-can-be-provided-as-an-array-of-bytes.html ) where special result type render as follow: public void execute(ActionInvocation invocation) throws Exception { ...//some preparation HttpServletResponse response = ServletActionContext.getResponse(); HttpServletRequest request = ServletActionContext.getRequest(); ServletOutputStream os = response.getOutputStream(); try { byte[] imageBytes = action.getImage(); response.setContentType("image/gif"); response.setContentLength(imageBytes.length); //I want cache up to 10 min Date future = new Date(((new Date()).getTime() + 1000 * 10*60l)); ; response.addDateHeader("Expires", future.getTime()); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "max-age=" + 10*60 + ""); response.addHeader("cache-Control", "public"); response.setHeader("ETag", request.getRequestURI()); os.write(imageBytes); } catch(Exception e) { response.sendError(HttpServletResponse.SC_NOT_FOUND); } os.flush(); os.close(); } But when image is embedded to page it is always reloaded (Firebug shows code 200), and neither Expires, nor max-age are presented in header Host localhost:9090 Accept image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://localhost:9090/web/result?matchId=1 Cookie JSESSIONID=4156BEED69CAB0B84D950932AB9EA1AC; If-None-Match /web/_srv/teamcolor Cache-Control max-age=0 I have no idea why it is dissapered, may be problem in url? It is forms with parameter: http://localhost:9090/web/_srv/teamcolor?loginId=3

    Read the article

  • How to disable MSBuild's <RegisterOutput> target on a per-user basis?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    I like to do my development as a normal (non-Admin) user. Our VS2010 project build fails with "Failed to register output. Please try enabling Per-user Redirection or register the component from a command prompt with elevated permissions." Since I'm not at liberty to change the project file, is there any way that I can add user-specific MSBuild targets or properties that disable this step on a specific machine, or for a specific user? I'd prefer not to hack on the core MSBuild files. I don't want to change the project file because I might then accidentally check it back in. Nor do I want to hack on the MSBuild core files, because they might get overwritten by a service pack. Given that the Visual C++ project files (and associated .targets and .props files) have about a million places to alter the build order and to import arbitrary files, I was hoping for something along those lines. MSBuild imports/evaluates the project file as follows (I've only looked down the branches that interest me): Foo.vcxproj Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props Microsoft.Cpp.props $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props Microsoft.Cpp.targets Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).targets ImportBefore\* Microsoft.CppCommon.targets The "RegisterOutput" target is defined in Microsoft.CppCommon.targets. I was hoping to replace this by putting a do-nothing "RegisterOutput" target in $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props, which is %LOCALAPPDATA%\MSBuild\v4.0\Microsoft.Cpp.Win32.user.props (UserRootDir is set in Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props if it's not already set). Unfortunately, MSBuild uses the last-defined target, which means that mine gets overridden by the built-in one. Alternatively, I could attempt to set the %(Link.RegisterOutput) metadata, but I'd have to do that on all Link items. Any idea how to do that, or even if it'll work?

    Read the article

  • Looking for a RESTful or SOAP pipeline between WordPress and InterWoven TeamSite

    - by deanpeters
    I've been Googling my brains out trying see if there's a simple way to bridge content to and from WordPress to and from TeamSite. I'm coming at this from the perspective of a WordPress developer. I see in the book "The Definitive Guide to Interwoven TeamSite" (http://bit.ly/d3z4wI) mention of objects for the Interwoven LiveSite product: com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.RSS com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.SOAP If I understand the above objects correctly, these allow me to instantiate objects of these data types, which after populating them via various method calls, allow me to render content using com.interwoven.livesite.external.ExternalCall ... but I'm not sure. Nor do I think this approach provides me the 2-way street I seek. As it stands now, from my limited understanding, it appears that the least path of resistance is deploying Interwoven's LiveSite with the existing TeamSite implementation so content can be both consumed and rendered via RSS ... an channel which WordPress can produce and consume; the latter with plugins such as wp-o-matic and/or feedpress. So the question is, does anyone out there have experience with a SOAP or RESTful API approach to InterWoven's TeamSite? If so, can I get some direction on documentation? Or is the addition of LiveSite + RSS the most feasible 2-way channel?

    Read the article

  • Firefox proxy delima

    - by Mike L.
    Any idea why when using system proxy settings in firefox, it can not accept a proxy such as: user:[email protected]:port ??? IE will allow and connect to a proxy in this format. Not only does firefox not work, but it does not prompt for the password, nor attempt to make a connection to the proxy. Basically get a "proxy server not found" error. Anybody know a way around this? I am working on a proxy switching program for IE & Firefox, and I would like to use system-wide proxy settings. If I just store the server:port combination, firefox prompts for the password, as well as IE. Then they can be cached and it will not ask again. Maybe my only option is to programmatically cache the user/pass? Anybody know a way to do this? I am pretty sure IE stores them at HTTP basic authentication passwords and I can add them with AddCredential. After saving a password for a proxy in firefox, it shows up in saved passwords in a format like "moz-proxy://server:port" anybody know how to programmatically add a saved password to firefox? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Preprocessor "macro function" vs. function pointer - best practice?

    - by Dustin
    I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

    Read the article

  • I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

    - by Parth
    I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >