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  • Retrieving/Updating Entity Framework POCO objects that already exist in the ObjectContext

    - by jslatts
    I have a project using Entity Framework 4.0 with POCOs (data is stored in SQL DB, lazyloading is enabled) as follows: public class ParentObject { public int ID {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } public class ChildObject { public int ID {get; set;} public int ChildRoleID {get; set;} public int ParentID {get; set;} public virtual ParentObject Parent {get; set;} public virtual ChildRoleObject ChildRole {get; set;} } public class ChildRoleObject { public int ID {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } I want to create a new ChildObject, assign it a role, then add it to an existing ParentObject. Afterwards, I want to send the new ChildObject to the caller. The code below works fine until it tries to get the object back from the database. The newChildObjectInstance only has the ChildRoleID set and does not contain a reference to the actual ChildRole object. I try and pull the new instance back out of the database in order to populate the ChildRole property. Unfortunately, in this case, instead of creating a new instance of ChildObject and assigning it to retreivedChildObject, EF finds the existing ChildObject in the context and returns the in-memory instance, with a null ChildRole property. public ChildObject CreateNewChild(int id, int roleID) { SomeObjectContext myRepository = new SomeObjectContext(); ParentObject parentObjectInstance = myRepository.GetParentObject(id); ChildObject newChildObjectInstance = new ChildObject() { ParentObject = parentObjectInstance, ParentID = parentObjectInstance.ID, ChildRoleID = roleID }; parentObjectInstance.children.Add(newChildObjectInstance); myRepository.Save(); ChildObject retreivedChildObject = myRepository.GetChildObject(newChildObjectInstance.ID); string assignedRoleName = retreivedChildObject.ChildRole.Name; //Throws exception, ChildRole is null return retreivedChildObject; } I have tried setting MergeOptions to Overwrite, calling ObjectContext.Refresh() and ObjectContext.DetectChanges() to no avail... I suspect this is related to the proxy objects that EF injects when working with POCOs. Has anyone run into this issue before? If so, what was the solution?

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  • How to initiate chatting between two clients and two clients only, using applets and servlets?

    - by mithun1538
    Hello everyone, I first need to apologize for my earlier questions. (You can check my profile for them)They seemed to ask more questions than give answers. Hence, I am laying down the actual question that started all them absurd questions. I am trying to design a chat applet. Till now, I have coded the applet, servlet and communication between the applet and the servlet. The code in the servlet side is such that I was able to establish chatting between clients using the applets, but the code was more like a broadcast all feature, i.e. all clients would be chatting with each other. That was my first objective when I started designing the chat applet. The second step is chatting between only two specific users, much like any other chat application we have. So this was my idea for it: I create an instance of the servlet that has the 'broadcast-all' code. I then pass the address of this instance to the respective clients. 2 client applets use the address to then chat. Technically the code is 'broadcast-all', but since only 2 clients are connected to it, it gives the chatting between two clients feature. Thus, groups of 2 clients have different instances of the same servlet, and each instance handles chatting between two clients at a max. However, as predicted, the idea didn't materialize! I tried to create an instance of the servlet but the only solution for that was using sessions on the servlet side, and I don't know how to use this session for later communications. I then tried to modify my broadcast-all code. In that code, I was using classes that implemented Observer and Observable interfaces. So the next idea that I got was: Create a new object of the Observable class(say class_1). This object be common to 2 clients. 2 clients that wish to chat will use same object of the class_1. 2 other clients will use a different object of class_1. But the problem here lies with the class that implements the Observer interface(say class_2). Since this has observers monitoring the same type of class, namely class_1, how do I establish an observer monitoring one object of class_1 and another observer monitoring another object of the same class class_1 (Because notifyObservers() would notify all the observers and I can't assign a particular observer to a particular object)? I first decided to ask individual problems, like how to create instances of servlets, using objects of observable and observer and so on in stackoverflow... but I got confused even more. Can anyone give me an idea how to establish chatting between two clients only?(I am using Http and not sockets or RMI). Regards, Mithun. P.S. Thanks to all who replied to my previous (absurd) queries. I should have stated the purpose earlier so that you guys could help me better.

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  • measure rendered html in javascript without affecting the measurement

    - by drawnonward
    I am doing pagination in javascript. This is typographic pagination, not chopping up database results. For the most part it works, but I have run into a heisenberg issue where I cannot quite measure text without affecting it. I am not trying to measure text before it is rendered. I want the actual position it shows up at on screen, so I can paginate to where it is naturally wrapped. I am measuring the vertical position of characters, not the horizontal width of strings. The way I do this is similar to this answer in that I am applying a style to a block of text, then measuring the position of the newly created span. If the span does not reach the end of the page, I clear it and make a new span in a linear search. The problem is that the anti-aliased sub-pixel text layout is different when the span is applied. In rare cases, this causes the text to wrap differently when I measure it. I have only seen this when wrapping at a hyphen, and I assume it would not happen when wrapping at white space. As a concrete example, "prepared-he" is the string I am having trouble with. When I measure up to "prepare" it appears, as expected, to be within the current page. When I measure "prepared" the whole phrase wraps down to the next line, moving it to the next page, so it looks like the "d" is the character to break at. I break the text between "prepare" and "d-he" and that is wrong. Trying to evaluate individual characters opens a whole can of worms I would rather avoid. The wrapping changes because, with the new span, the line is 1 pixel wider. A solution to my problem could either be a better way to measure text using javascript, or a way to wrap text in a new element without affecting layout. I have tried setting margin-right:-1px for the class of the span being created to wrap the text. This had no noticeable effect. I am doing this in a UIWebView on the iPhone. There are some measurement related calls that are available in normal WebKit that are not available here. For example, Range does not have getBoundingClientRect or support setting an offset other than 0 in setStart or setEnd. Thank you

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  • Given a trace of packets, how would you group them into flows?

    - by zxcvbnm
    I've tried it these ways so far: 1) Make a hash with the source IP/port and destination IP/port as keys. Each position in the hash is a list of packets. The hash is then saved in a file, with each flow separated by some special characters/line. Problem: Not enough memory for large traces. 2) Make a hash with the same key as above, but only keep in memory the file handles. Each packet is then put into the hash[key] that points to the right file. Problems: Too many flows/files (~200k) and it might run out of memory as well. 3) Hash the source IP/port and destination IP/port, then put the info inside a file. The difference between 2 and 3 is that here the files are opened and closed for each operation, so I don't have to worry about running out of memory because I opened too many at the same time. Problems: WAY too slow, same number of files as 2 so also impractical. 4) Make a hash of the source IP/port pairs and then iterate over the whole trace for each flow. Take the packets that are part of that flow and place them into the output file. Problem: Suppose I have a 60 MB trace that has 200k flows. This way, I would process, say, a 60 MB file 200k times. Maybe removing the packets as I iterate would make it not so painful, but so far I'm not sure this would be a good solution. 5) Split them by IP source/destination and then create a single file for each one, separating the flows by special characters. Still too many files (+50k). Right now I'm using Ruby to do it, which might've been a bad idea, I guess. Currently I've filtered the traces with tshark so that they only have relevant info, so I can't really make them any smaller. I thought about loading everything in memory as described in 1) using C#/Java/C++, but I was wondering if there wouldn't be a better approach here, especially since I might also run out of memory later on even with a more efficient language if I have to use larger traces. In summary, the problem I'm facing is that I either have too many files or that I run out of memory. I've also tried searching for some tool to filter the info, but I don't think there is one. The ones I've found only return some statistics and wouldn't scan for every flow as I need.

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  • Foreign Key Relationships and "belongs to many"

    - by jan
    I have the following model: S belongs to T T has many S A,B,C,D,E (etc) have 1 T each, so the T should belong to each of A,B,C,D,E (etc) At first I set up my foreign keys so that in A, fk_a_t would be the foreign key on A.t to T(id), in B it'd be fk_b_t, etc. Everything looks fine in my UML (using MySQLWorkBench), but generating the yii models results in it thinking that T has many A,B,C,D (etc) which to me is the reverse. It sounds to me like either I need to have A_T, B_T, C_T (etc) tables, but this would be a pain as there are a lot of tables that have this relationship. I've also googled that the better way to do this would be some sort of behavior, such that A,B,C,D (etc) can behave as a T, but I'm not clear on exactly how to do this (I will continue to google more on this) What do you think is the better solution? UML: Here's the DDL (auto generated). Just pretend that there is more than 3 tables referencing T. -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`T` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`T` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`S` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`S` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `thing` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `t` INT NOT NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_S_T` (`id` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_S_T` FOREIGN KEY (`id` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`A` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`A` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `bar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foo` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`B` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`B` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`C` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`C` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff3` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other4` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB;

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  • Recommendations for a C++ polymorphic, seekable, binary I/O interface

    - by Trevor Robinson
    I've been using std::istream and ostream as a polymorphic interface for random-access binary I/O in C++, but it seems suboptimal in numerous ways: 64-bit seeks are non-portable and error-prone due to streampos/streamoff limitations; currently using boost/iostreams/positioning.hpp as a workaround, but it requires vigilance Missing operations such as truncating or extending a file (ala POSIX ftruncate) Inconsistency between concrete implementations; e.g. stringstream has independent get/put positions whereas filestream does not Inconsistency between platform implementations; e.g. behavior of seeking pass the end of a file or usage of failbit/badbit on errors Don't need all the formatting facilities of stream or possibly even the buffering of streambuf streambuf error reporting (i.e. exceptions vs. returning an error indicator) is supposedly implementation-dependent in practice I like the simplified interface provided by the Boost.Iostreams Device concept, but it's provided as function templates rather than a polymorphic class. (There is a device class, but it's not polymorphic and is just an implementation helper class not necessarily used by the supplied device implementations.) I'm primarily using large disk files, but I really want polymorphism so I can easily substitute alternate implementations (e.g. use stringstream instead of fstream for unit tests) without all the complexity and compile-time coupling of deep template instantiation. Does anyone have any recommendations of a standard approach to this? It seems like a common situation, so I don't want to invent my own interfaces unnecessarily. As an example, something like java.nio.FileChannel seems ideal. My best solution so far is to put a thin polymorphic layer on top of Boost.Iostreams devices. For example: class my_istream { public: virtual std::streampos seek(stream_offset off, std::ios_base::seekdir way) = 0; virtual std::streamsize read(char* s, std::streamsize n) = 0; virtual void close() = 0; }; template <class T> class boost_istream : public my_istream { public: boost_istream(const T& device) : m_device(device) { } virtual std::streampos seek(stream_offset off, std::ios_base::seekdir way) { return boost::iostreams::seek(m_device, off, way); } virtual std::streamsize read(char* s, std::streamsize n) { return boost::iostreams::read(m_device, s, n); } virtual void close() { boost::iostreams::close(m_device); } private: T m_device; };

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  • Is there anyway to exclude artifacts inherited from a parent POM?

    - by Miguel
    Artifacts from dependencies can be excluded by declaring an <exclusions> element inside a <dependency> But in this case it's needed to exclude an artifact inherited from a parent project. An excerpt of the POM under discussion follows: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>test</groupId> <artifactId>jruby</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> <parent> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> </parent> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.liferay.portal</groupId> <artifactId>ALL-DEPS</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> <scope>provided</scope> <type>pom</type> </dependency> </dependencies> </project> base artifact, depends on javax.mail:mail-1.4.jar, and ALL-DEPS depends on another version of the same library. Due to the fact that mail.jar from ALL-DEPS exist on the execution environment, although not exported, collides with the mail.jar that exists on the parent, which is scoped as compile. A solution could be to rid off mail.jar from the parent POM, but most of the projects that inherit base, need it (as is a transtive dependency for log4j). So What I would like to do is to simply exclude parent's library from the child project, as it could be done if base was a dependency and not the parent pom: ... <dependency> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> <type>pom<type> <exclusions> <exclusion> <groupId>javax.mail</groupId> <artifactId>mail</artifactId> </exclusion> </exclusions> </dependency> ...

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  • NSMutableURLRequest and a Password with special Characters won't work

    - by twickl
    I'm writing a small program (using Cocoa Touch), which communicates with a webservice. The code for calling the webservice, is the following: - (IBAction)send:(id)sender { if ([number.text length] > 0) { [[UIApplication sharedApplication] beginIgnoringInteractionEvents]; [activityIndicator startAnimating]; NSString *modded; modded = [self computeNumber]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"https://tester:%=&[email protected]/RPC2"]]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest addValue:@"text/xml" forHTTPHeaderField:@"content-type"]; [theRequest setCachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed]; [theRequest setTimeoutInterval:5.0]; NSString* pStr = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><methodCall><methodName>samurai.SessionInitiate</methodName><params><param><value><struct><member><name>LocalUri</name><value><string></string></value></member><member><name>RemoteUri</name><value><string>sip:%@@sipgate.net</string></value></member><member><name>TOS</name><value><string>text</string></value></member><member><name>Content</name><value><string>%@</string></value></member><member><name>Schedule</name><value><string></string></value></member></struct></value></param></params></methodCall>", modded, TextView.text]; NSData* pBody = [pStr dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:pBody]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if (!theConnection) { UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"A Connection could not be established!" delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles: nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; sendButton.enabled = TRUE; return; } [pStr release]; [pBody release]; } } The Username and Password have to be in the URL, and it works in most cases, but when the password consists of special characters like in the example "%=&=-Test2009", the Webservice does not respond. If it is something like "Test2009" it works fine. Does anyone have an idea why, and maybe a solution for that?

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  • How to check for palindrome using Python logic

    - by DrOnline
    My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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  • Animating a pulsing UILabel?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I am trying to animate the color the the text on a UILabel to pulse from: [Black] to [White] to [Black] and repeat. - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:0.0]]; [UIView animateWithDuration:1 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:1.0]];} completion:nil]; } . [self setFadeTimer:[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1 target:self selector:@selector(timerFlash:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]]; Firstly I am not sure of my method, my plan (as you can see above) was to set up a animation block and call it using a repeating NSTimer until canceled. My second problem (as you can see above) is that I am animating from black (alpha 0) to white (alpha 1) but I don't know how to animate back to black again so the animation loops seamlessly Essentially what I want is the text color to pulse on a UILabel until the user presses a button to continue. EDIT_001: I was getting into trouble because you can't animate [UILabel setColor:] you can however animated [UILabel setAlpha:] so I am going to give that a go. EDIT_002: - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.5]; [UIView animateWithDuration:2 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.9];} completion:nil]; } This works (BTW: I do want it to stop which is why I hooked it up to a NSTimer so I can cancel that) the only thing is that this animates from midGray to nearWhite and then pops back. Does anyone know how I would animate back from nearWhite to midGray so I get a nice smooth cycle? EDIT_003: (Solution) The code suggested by dave DeLong (see below) does indeed work when modified to use the CALayer opacity style attribute: UILabel *navTitle; @property(nonatomic, retain) UILabel *navTitle; . // ADD ANIMATION CABasicAnimation *anim = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"opacity"]; [anim setTimingFunction:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]]; [anim setFromValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.5]]; [anim setToValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:1.0]]; [anim setAutoreverses:YES]; [anim setDuration:0.5]; [[[self navTitle] layer] addAnimation:anim forKey:@"flash"]; . // REMOVE ANIMATION [[[self navTitle] layer] removeAnimationForKey:@"flash__"];

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  • java.util.zip - ZipInputStream v.s. ZipFile

    - by lucho
    Hello, community! I have some general questions regarding the java.util.zip library. What we basically do is an import and an export of many small components. Previously these components were imported and exported using a single big file, e.g.: <component-type-a id="1"/> <component-type-a id="2"/> <component-type-a id="N"/> <component-type-b id="1"/> <component-type-b id="2"/> <component-type-b id="N"/> Please note that the order of the components during import is relevant. Now every component should occupy its own file which should be externally versioned, QA-ed, bla, bla. We decided that the output of our export should be a zip file (with all these files in) and the input of our import should be a similar zip file. We do not want to explode the zip in our system. We do not want opening separate streams for each of the small files. My current questions: Q1. May the ZipInputStream guarantee that the zip entries (the little files) will be read in the same order in which they were inserted by our export that uses ZipOutputStream? I assume reading is something like: ZipInputStream zis = new ZipInputStream(new BufferedInputStream(fis)); ZipEntry entry; while((entry = zis.getNextEntry()) != null) { //read from zis until available } I know that the central zip directory is put at the end of the zip file but nevertheless the file entries inside have sequential order. I also know that relying on the order is an ugly idea but I just want to have all the facts in mind. Q2. If I use ZipFile (which I prefer) what is the performance impact of calling getInputStream() hundreds of times? Will it be much slower than the ZipInputStream solution? The zip is opened only once and ZipFile is backed by RandomAccessFile - is this correct? I assume reading is something like: ZipFile zipfile = new ZipFile(argv[0]); Enumeration e = zipfile.entries();//TODO: assure the order of the entries while(e.hasMoreElements()) { entry = (ZipEntry) e.nextElement(); is = zipfile.getInputStream(entry)); } Q3. Are the input streams retrieved from the same ZipFile thread safe (e.g. may I read different entries in different threads simultaneously)? Any performance penalties? Thanks for your answers!

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  • CSS - changing the font color for a from select option in firefox

    - by Mick
    I'm building a website for my church, and I'm teaching myself all about web design along the way. http://www.wilmingtonchurchofgod.org/contact_us.html is the link where you can see my issue. If you look at that page in firefox, and you click the select part of the form (next to, "Who would you like to contact?") you will see that when you hover over a choice, the font is white. I have tried various things to fix this, but can't find a solution. This seems to be specific to Firefox. Here is the relevant CSS. input, textarea, select, option{ padding: 6px; border: solid 1px #E5E5E5; outline: 0; font: normal 13px/100% Verdana, Tahoma, sans-serif; width: 200px; background: #FFFFFF url(images/from-grad.jpg) left top repeat-x; background: -webkit-gradient(linear, left top, left 25, from(#FFFFFF), color-stop(4%, #EEEEEE), to(#FFFFFF)); background: -moz-linear-gradient(top, #FFFFFF, #EEEEEE 1px, #FFFFFF 25px); box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -moz-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -webkit-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; } option{ padding:0px; } textarea { width: 400px; max-width: 400px; height: 150px; line-height: 150%; } input:hover, textarea:hover, input:focus, textarea:focus{ border-color: #C9C9C9; -webkit-box-shadow: rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -moz-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; } option:hover, option:focus, select:hover, select:focus { color: black; border-color: #C9C9C9; -webkit-box-shadow: rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -moz-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; } Another side note is that I can't get any background gradient at all to show up on Google Chome (yet it does on Safari and they are supposed to use the same kit?) Any help with these two things would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Calling 32 bit unmanaged dlls from C# randomly failing

    - by Bert
    Hi, I'm having an issue when calling 32 bit delphi dll's from c# web site. The code generally runs fine, but occasionally I get an error Unable to load DLL '': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). This issue persists until I recycle the app pool for the site, and then it works fine again. On the same server, there is also a web service that is calling the same set of dlls. This web service doesn't seem to have the same issue that the web site has. Both applications are using .net framework 3.5, separate app pools on IIS. Here is the code I'm using to wrap the dlls: public sealed class Mapper { static Mapper instance = null; [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] private static extern bool SetDllDirectory(string lpPathName); private Mapper() { SetDllDirectory(ConfigManager.Path); } public static Mapper Instance { get { if (instance == null) { instance = new Mapper(); } return instance; } } public int Foo(string bar, ref double val) { return Loader.Foo(bar, ref val); } } public static class Loader { [DllImport("some.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint = "foo")] public static extern int Foo(string bar, ref double val); } Then I call it like this: double val = 0.0; Mapper.Instance.Foo("bar", ref val); Any ideas as to why it would "randomly" Unable to load DLL '': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). The other problem is that I haven't been able to replicate the issue in the development environment. I thought that due to 2 applications calling the same dlls, that there could be some locks occurring. To replicate this, I created an app that spawned multiple threads and repeatedly called the 32bit dlls, and then used the web site to call these same dlls. I still couldn't replicate the issue. Some possible fixes that I can think of: Wrap the 32 bit dlls in web service (because the webservice doesn't seem to suffer from the same problem). But this may be worthless if it turns out that the web service also fails. Set up state server for the session state and periodically recycle the app pool for the site.This isn't fixing the problem, only avoiding it. Wrap the dll's in exe, and call that exe. Then I shouldn't get the same issue. But this also seems like a hacky solution. Implement the mapper class differently ? But how else should I be doing the call? The other draw back is that other applications are using this mapper, so I'd need to change there code too. Thanks

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  • open,edit and save xml file with schema using php

    - by Neat
    Hy... I'm new in XML Schema, XSL,... (I have basic understanding) On web page: http://w3schools.com/xsl/xsl_editxml.asp is shown example for open,edit,save xml file, but with asp. Do anyone know how can i open/edit and save xml file using php for next example: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <tools> <tool id="1"> <field id="prodName"> <value>HAMMER HG2606</value> </field> <field id="prodNo"> <value>32456240</value> </field> <field id="price"> <value>$30.00</value> </field> </tool> <tool id="2"> <field id="prodName"> <value>Audi</value> </field> <field id="prodNo"> <value>88885</value> </field> <field id="price"> <value>$26.00</value> </field> </tool> </tools> and do i need <tool id="2"> or just <tool> is enough. Thanks very much on replay, and i don't need another xsl like shown on w3s, just fine is refresh submitted php file after submit (will do something with ajax after). I saw replay from Mr. Writman on questions/377632/add-update-and-edit-an-xml-file-with-php but that is for now 2 complex for me...:) is there any simpler answer (solution). Thanks in advance!!!

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  • iPhone: Problems releasing UIViewController in a multithreaded environment

    - by bart-simpson
    Hi! I have a UIViewController and in that controller, i am fetching an image from a URL source. The image is fetched in a separate thread after which the user-interface is updated on the main thread. This controller is displayed as a page in a UIScrollView parent which is implemented to release controllers that are not in view anymore. When the thread finishes fetching content before the UIViewController is released, everything works fine - but when the user scrolls to another page before the thread finishes, the controller is released and the only handle to the controller is owned by the thread making releaseCount of the controller equals to 1. Now, as soon as the thread drains NSAutoreleasePool, the controller gets releases because the releaseCount becomes 0. At this point, my application crashes and i get the following error message: bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x4d99c60: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... The backtrace reveals that the application crashed on the call to [super dealloc] and it makes total sense because the dealloc function must have been triggered by the thread when the pool was drained. My question is, how i can overcome this error and release the controller without leaking memory? One solution that i tried was to call [self retain] before the pool is drained so that retainCount doesn't fall to zero and then using the following code to release controller in the main thread: [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; Unfortunately, this did not work out. Below is the function that is executed on a thread: - (void)thread_fetchContent { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSURL *imgURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.domain.com/image.png"]; // UIImage *imgHotspot is declared as private - The image is retained // here and released as soon as it is assigned to UIImageView imgHotspot = [[[UIImage alloc] initWithData: [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: imgURL]] retain]; if ([self retainCount] == 1) { [self retain]; // increment retain count ~ workaround [pool drain]; // drain pool // this doesn't work - i get the same error [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } else { // show fetched image on the main thread - this works fine! [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(showImage) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; [pool drain]; } } Please help! Thank you in advance.

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  • ASP.NET- forcing child/container events to fire before parent onload?

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on a questionnaire type application in which questions are stored in a database. Therefore, I create my controls dynamically on every Page.OnLoad. This works like a charm and ViewState is persisted between postbacks because I ensure that my dynamic controls always have the same generated Control.ID. In addition to the user control that dynamically populates the questions, my questionnaire page also contains a 'Status' section (also encapsulated by a user control) which represents the status of the questionnaire (choices are 'Complete', 'Started' or 'In Progress'). If the user changes the status of questionnaire (i.e. from 'In Progress' to 'Complete'), I need to postback to the server because the contents of the dynamic portion of the questionnaire depend on the selected status. Some questions are always present regardless of status, and yet others may not be present at all for the selected status. The point is, when the status changes, I have to postback to the page and render the right set of questions. Additionally, I need to preserve any user entered values for those questions which are 'always available'. However, due to the page life cycle in ASP.NET, the 'Status' user control's OnLoad, which contains the correct status needed to load the right questions from the DB, doesn't get executed until after the 'dynamic questions' user control has already been populated (with the wrong/stale values). To get around this, I raise an event from my 'Status' user control to the main page to indicate that the Status has changed. The main page then raises an event on the 'dynamic questions' user control. Since by the time this event bubbles up, the 'dynamic questions' user control has already loaded the 'wrong' questions from the DB, it first calls Controls.Clear. It then happily uses the new status to query the database for the 'correct' questions and does a Control.Add() on each. FYI, Control.IDs are consistent across postbacks. This solution works...sorta. The correct set of questions for the selected status do get rendered; however ViewState is getting lost for those 'always available' questions. I'm guessing this is because the 'dynamic questions' user control calls Controls.Clear when responding to the status changed event. This must somehow kill the association between ViewState and my dynamic controls, even though the Control.ID are consistent. This seems like such a common requirement, I'm virtually certain there is a better, cleaner and less error prone approach to accomplish this. In case its not plain obvious, I haven't been able to grok the ASP.NET page life-cycle despite working with it for the last year. Any help is much appreciated!

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  • bottom uicomponent does not receive mouse events

    - by firemonkey
    HI, I am sure this is very basic, however I am not able to find the solution. I have a base ShapeContainer(UIComponent). I add a uicomponent which has mouse down listener to ShapeContainer. the listener works great. When I add a simple sprite(draw square) on the ShapeContainer, The listener does not work any more. In the code, if I comment below lines, The event listener works fine. var square:Sprite = new Sprite(); square.graphics.lineStyle(4,0x00FF00); square.graphics.drawRect(0,0,20,20); square.mouseEnabled=false; shapeContainer.addChildAt(square,1); I have tried few things like, mouseenabled=false on top sprite. also tried to add addChildAt but non of them did any help. How can I draw a shape and also have the event listener work. enter code here protected function application1_creationCompleteHandler(event:FlexEvent):void { var shapeContainer:UIComponent = new UIComponent(); shapeContainer.x=100; shapeContainer.y=100; shapeContainer.width=200; shapeContainer.height=200; rawChildren.addChild(shapeContainer); var EventListenerShape:UIComponent = new UIComponent(); EventListenerShape.x=100; EventListenerShape.y=100; EventListenerShape.width=200;a EventListenerShape.height=200; EventListenerShape.graphics.clear(); EventListenerShape.graphics.beginFill(0xf1f1f1, 0.1); EventListenerShape.graphics.drawRoundRect(0, 0, 200, 200, 10, 10); EventListenerShape.alpha = 0; EventListenerShape.graphics.endFill(); EventListenerShape.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, mouseDownfunc); shapeContainer.addChild(EventListenerShape); var square:Sprite = new Sprite(); square.graphics.lineStyle(4,0x00FF00); square.graphics.drawRect(0,0,20,20); square.mouseEnabled=false; shapeContainer.addChildAt(square,1); } private function mouseDownfunc(e:MouseEvent){ trace("mouse Down **"); }    ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Canvas id="uic" width="100%" height="100%" backgroundColor="0xFFFFFF"> </mx:Canvas>

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  • Web development - relative URLs without duplicating files

    - by eshriek
    I have a site with index.php in the root folder, images in /img , and overview.php in /content . I have a sidebar.php file that is included in both index.php and overview.php . How should I refer to /img/image.gif if I include a link in each file? The location of image.gif changes relative to the location of the file that references it. Using /img/image.gif in sidebar.php will work in index.php, but it fails for the file located at /content/overview.php. The only solution that I can see is to either include a seperate sidebar.php in each subdirectory, or include an /img directory in every sub-directory. The best suggestion that I can find is to use the <base html tag as suggested here: Change relative link paths for included content in PHP However, in the same link, SamGoody suggests that the <base tag "is no longer properly supported in Internet Explorer, since version 7." I'd like some insight on the matter before committing to a course of action. Thanks. EDIT: I am using the wrong approach below with "../" Example- root/index.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css" /> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php include('include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('include/menu.php'); ?> ... root/include/header.php: ... <div id="header"> <span class="fl"><img src="img/dun1.png"/></span><span class="fr"><img src="img/dun2.png"/></span> ... root/content/overview.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="../style.css" media="screen" /> <title>Overview</title> </head> <body> <?php include('../include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('../include/menu.php'); ?> ...

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  • Testing for existence using SELECT WHERE HAVING and NOT HAVING in a grouped subset

    - by IanC
    I have data on which I need to count +1 if a particular condition exists or another condition doesn't exist. I'm using SQL Server 2008. I shred the following simplified sample XML into a temp table and validate it: <product type="1"> <param type="1"> <item mode="0" weight="1" /> </param> <param type="2"> <item mode="1" weight="1" /> <item mode="0" weight="0.1" /> </param> <param type="3"> <item mode="1" weight="0.75" /> <item mode="1" weight="0.25" /> </param> </product> The validation in concern is the following rule: For each product type, for each param type, mode may be 0 & (1 || 2). In other words, there may be a 0(s), but then 1s or 2s are required, or there may be only 1(s) or 2(s). There cannot be only 0s, and there cannot be 1s and 2s. The only part I haven't figured out is how to detect if there are only 0s. This seems like a "not having" problem. The validation code (for this part): WITH t1 AS ( SELECT SUM(t.ParamWeight) AS S, COUNT(1) AS C, t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode FROM @t AS t GROUP BY t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode ), ... UNION ALL SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 WHERE t1.Mode IN (1, 2) GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING COUNT(1) > 1 UNION ALL ... ) SELECT @C = COUNT(1) FROM t2 This will show if any mode 1s & 2s are mixed, but not if the group contains only a 0. I'm sure there is a simple solution, but it's evading me right now. EDIT: I thought of a "cheat" that works perfectly. I added the following to the above: SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (null || 1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING SUM(t1.Mode) = 0 However, I'd still like to know how to do this without cheating.

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  • Phonegap web view thinks device screen taller than it is - results in offscreen tabbar

    - by Stin
    I have a jQTouch application loaded via server, so all I need to do is display the webpage full screen in PhoneGap for a faux-Native app. Unfortunatley each solution I've tried in PhoneGap has an issue: it thinks the screen size is taller than it is. This resuls in the tabbar that is pinned to the bottom being permantly offscreen and there fore unusable. You should be able to recreate this with my code below and going to the iTabbar online demo. Any thoughts on how to correct this issue? For background, going to the app page in iOS safari works fine, as well as saving the page to the home screen. In both cases the webview stops at the bottom of the screen and the tabbar is therefore viewable. Also, I'm using build.phonegap.com to compile (I'm not compiling locally) I've tried two methods: load the childBrowser plugin and call up the page (with navbar hidden via options) set the following config.xml parameter to prevent phonegap from switching to Safari, and then just load the link (preferable as it's cleaner in my mind. I've pasted my index.html and config.xml below) Details on the config.xml paramater: Open all links in WebView stay-in-webview with values true or false example: <preference name="stay-in-webview" value="true" /> if set to true, all links (even with target set to blank) will open in the app's webview only use this preference if you want pages from your server to take over your entire app default is false (Source: https://build.phonegap.com/docs/config-xml) my index.html: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=utf-8"> <title>MyApp</title> <script src="phonegap.js"></script> </head> <body> <p><a href="http://www.itabbar.com/itabbar/demo.html#home">Launch iTabbar</a></p> </body> </html> my config.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <widget xmlns = "http://www.w3.org/ns/widgets" xmlns:gap = "http://phonegap.com/ns/1.0" id = "com.phonegap.myapp" versionCode="10" version = "1.0.0"> <!-- versionCode is optional and Android only --> <name>MyApp</name> <description> My app is... </description> <author href="https://myurl.com" email="[email protected]"> me </author> <preference name="stay-in-webview" value="true" /> </widget>

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  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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  • Finding N contiguous zero bits in an integer to the left of the MSB position of another integer

    - by James Morris
    The problem is: given an integer val1 find the position of the highest bit set (Most Significant Bit) then, given a second integer val2 find a contiguous region of unset bits, with the minimum number of zero bits given by width to the left of the position (ie, in the higher bits). Here is the C code for my solution: typedef unsigned int t; unsigned const t_bits = sizeof(t) * CHAR_BIT; _Bool test_fit_within_left_of_msb( unsigned width, t val1, t val2, unsigned* offset_result) { unsigned offbit = 0; unsigned msb = 0; t mask; t b; while(val1 >>= 1) ++msb; while(offbit + width < t_bits - msb) { mask = (((t)1 << width) - 1) << (t_bits - width - offbit); b = val2 & mask; if (!b) { *offset_result = offbit; return true; } if (offbit++) /* this conditional bothers me! */ b <<= offbit - 1; while(b <<= 1) offbit++; } return false; } Aside from faster ways of finding the MSB of the first integer, the commented test for a zero offbit seems a bit extraneous, but necessary to skip the highest bit of type t if it is set. I have also implemented similar algorithms but working to the right of the MSB of the first number, so they don't require this seemingly extra condition. How can I get rid of this extra condition, or even, are there far more optimal solutions? Edit: Some background not strictly required. The offset result is a count of bits from the high bit, not from the low bit as maybe expected. This will be part of a wider algorithm which scans a 2D array for a 2D area of zero bits. Here, for testing, the algorithm has been simplified. val1 represents the first integer which does not have all bits set found in a row of the 2D array. From this the 2D version would scan down which is what val2 represents. Here's some output showing success and failure: t_bits:32 t_high: 10000000000000000000000000000000 ( 2147483648 ) --------- ----------------------------------- *** fit within left of msb test *** ----------------------------------- val1: 00000000000000000000000010000000 ( 128 ) val2: 01000001000100000000100100001001 ( 1091569929 ) msb: 7 offbit:0 + width: 8 = 8 mask: 11111111000000000000000000000000 ( 4278190080 ) b: 01000001000000000000000000000000 ( 1090519040 ) offbit:8 + width: 8 = 16 mask: 00000000111111110000000000000000 ( 16711680 ) b: 00000000000100000000000000000000 ( 1048576 ) offbit:12 + width: 8 = 20 mask: 00000000000011111111000000000000 ( 1044480 ) b: 00000000000000000000000000000000 ( 0 ) offbit:12 iters:10 ***** found room for width:8 at offset: 12 ***** ----------------------------------- *** fit within left of msb test *** ----------------------------------- val1: 00000000000000000000000001000000 ( 64 ) val2: 00010000000000001000010001000001 ( 268469313 ) msb: 6 offbit:0 + width: 13 = 13 mask: 11111111111110000000000000000000 ( 4294443008 ) b: 00010000000000000000000000000000 ( 268435456 ) offbit:4 + width: 13 = 17 mask: 00001111111111111000000000000000 ( 268402688 ) b: 00000000000000001000000000000000 ( 32768 ) ***** mask: 00001111111111111000000000000000 ( 268402688 ) offbit:17 iters:15 ***** no room found for width:13 ***** (iters is the count of iterations of the inner while loop)

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • Checking if an int is prime more efficiently

    - by SipSop
    I recently was part of a small java programming competition at my school. My partner and I have just finished our first pure oop class and most of the questions were out of our league so we settled on this one (and I am paraphrasing somewhat): "given an input integer n return the next int that is prime and its reverse is also prime for example if n = 18 your program should print 31" because 31 and 13 are both prime. Your .class file would then have a test case of all the possible numbers from 1-2,000,000,000 passed to it and it had to return the correct answer within 10 seconds to be considered valid. We found a solution but with larger test cases it would take longer than 10 seconds. I am fairly certain there is a way to move the range of looping from n,..2,000,000,000 down as the likely hood of needing to loop that far when n is a low number is small, but either way we broke the loop when a number is prime under both conditions is found. At first we were looping from 2,..n no matter how large it was then i remembered the rule about only looping to the square root of n. Any suggestions on how to make my program more efficient? I have had no classes dealing with complexity analysis of algorithms. Here is our attempt. public class P3 { public static void main(String[] args){ long loop = 2000000000; long n = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); for(long i = n; i<loop; i++) { String s = i +""; String r = ""; for(int j = s.length()-1; j>=0; j--) r = r + s.charAt(j); if(prime(i) && prime(Long.parseLong(r))) { System.out.println(i); break; } } System.out.println("#"); } public static boolean prime(long p){ for(int i = 2; i<(int)Math.sqrt(p); i++) { if(p%i==0) return false; } return true; } } ps sorry if i did the formatting for code wrong this is my first time posting here. Also the output had to have a '#' after each line thats what the line after the loop is about Thanks for any help you guys offer!!!

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  • How and why do I set up a C# build machine?

    - by mmr
    Hi all, I'm working with a small (4 person) development team on a C# project. I've proposed setting up a build machine which will do nightly builds and tests of the project, because I understand that this is a Good Thing. Trouble is, we don't have a whole lot of budget here, so I have to justify the expense to the powers that be. So I want to know: What kind of tools/licenses will I need? Right now, we use Visual Studio and Smart Assembly to build, and Perforce for source control. Will I need something else, or is there an equivalent of a cron job for running automated scripts? What, exactly, will this get me, other than an indication of a broken build? Should I set up test projects in this solution (sln file) that will be run by these scripts, so I can have particular functions tested? We have, at the moment, two such tests, because we haven't had the time (or frankly, the experience) to make good unit tests. What kind of hardware will I need for this? Once a build has been finished and tested, is it a common practice to put that build up on an ftp site or have some other way for internal access? The idea is that this machine makes the build, and we all go to it, but can make debug builds if we have to. How often should we make this kind of build? How is space managed? If we make nightly builds, should we keep around all the old builds, or start to ditch them after about a week or so? Is there anything else I'm not seeing here? I realize that this is a very large topic, and I'm just starting out. I couldn't find a duplicate of this question here, and if there's a book out there I should just get, please let me know. EDIT: I finally got it to work! Hudson is completely fantastic, and FxCop is showing that some features we thought were implemented were actually incomplete. We also had to change the installer type from Old-And-Busted vdproj to New Hotness WiX. Basically, for those who are paying attention, if you can run your build from the command line, then you can put it into hudson. Making the build run from the command line via MSBuild is a useful exercise in itself, because it forces your tools to be current.

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