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• sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

  - by wakkaluba

  I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

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• Format form fields for bootstrap using rails+nokogiri

  - by user1116573

  I have the following in an initializer in a rails app that uses Twitter bootstrap so that it removes the div.field_with_errors that rails applies when validation fails on a field but also the initializer adds the help/validation text after the erroneous input field: require 'nokogiri' ActionView::Base.field_error_proc = Proc.new do |html_tag, instance| html = %(<div class="field_with_errors">#{html_tag}</div>).html_safe form_fields = [ 'textarea', 'input', 'select' ] elements = Nokogiri::HTML::DocumentFragment.parse(html_tag).css("label, " + form_fields.join(', ')) elements.each do |e| if e.node_name.eql? 'label' html = %(#{e}).html_safe elsif form_fields.include? e.node_name if instance.error_message.kind_of?(Array) html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message.join(',')}</span>).html_safe else html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message}</span>).html_safe end end end html end This works fine but I also need to apply the .error class to the surrounding div.control-group for each error. My initializer currently gives the following output: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> but I need something adding to my initializer so that it adds the .error class to the div.control-group like so: <div class="control-group error"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> The solution will probably need to allow for the fact that each validation error could have more than one label and input that are all within the same div.control-group (eg radio buttons / checkboxes / 2 text fields side by side). I assume it needs some sort of e.at_xpath() to find the div.control-group parent and add the .error class to it but I'm not sure how to do this. Can anyone help? PS This may all be possible using the formtastic or simple_form gems but I'd rather just use my own html if possible. EDIT If I put e['class'] = 'foo' in the if e.node_name.eql? 'label' section then it applies the class to the label so I think I just need to find the parent tag of e and then apply an .error class to it but I can't figure out what the xpath would be to get from label to its div.control-group parent; no combination of dots, slashes or whatever seems to work but xpath isn't my strong point.

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• Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

  - by mstksg

  Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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• c# event fires windows form incorrectly

  - by MikeW

  I'm trying to understand what's happening here. I have a CheckedListBox which contains some ticked and some un-ticked items. I'm trying to find a way of determining the delta in the selection of controls. I've tried some cumbersome like this - but only works part of the time, I'm sure there's a more elegant solution. A maybe related problem is the myCheckBox_ItemCheck event fires on form load - before I have a chance to perform an ItemCheck. Here's what I have so far: void clbProgs_ItemCheck(object sender, ItemCheckEventArgs e) { // i know its awful System.Windows.Forms.CheckedListBox cb = (System.Windows.Forms.CheckedListBox)sender; string sCurrent = e.CurrentValue.ToString(); int sIndex = e.Index; AbstractLink lk = (AbstractLink)cb.Items[sIndex]; List<ILink> _links = clbProgs.DataSource as List<ILink>; foreach (AbstractLink lkCurrent in _links) { if (!lkCurrent.IsActive) { if (!_groupValues.ContainsKey(lkCurrent.Linkid)) { _groupValues.Add(lkCurrent.Linkid, lkCurrent); } } } if (_groupValues.ContainsKey(lk.Linkid)) { AbstractLink lkDirty = (AbstractLink)lk.Clone(); CheckState newValue = (CheckState)e.NewValue; if (newValue == CheckState.Checked) { lkDirty.IsActive = true; } else if (newValue == CheckState.Unchecked) { lkDirty.IsActive = false; } if (_dirtyGroups.ContainsKey(lk.Linkid)) { _dirtyGroups[lk.Linkid] = lkDirty; } else { CheckState oldValue = (CheckState)e.NewValue; if (oldValue == CheckState.Checked) { lkDirty.IsActive = true; } else if (oldValue == CheckState.Unchecked) { lkDirty.IsActive = false; } _dirtyGroups.Add(lk.Linkid, lk); } } else { if (!lk.IsActive) { _dirtyGroups.Add(lk.Linkid, lk); } else { _groupValues.Add(lk.Linkid, lk); } } } Then onclick of a save button - I check whats changed before sending to database: private void btSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<AbstractLink> originalList = new List<AbstractLink>(_groupValues.Values); List<AbstractLink> changedList = new List<AbstractLink>(_dirtyGroups.Values); IEnumerable<AbstractLink> dupes = originalList.ToArray<AbstractLink>().Intersect(changedList.ToArray<AbstractLink>()); foreach (ILink t in dupes) { MessageBox.Show("Changed"); } if (dupes.Count() == 0) { MessageBox.Show("No Change"); } } For further info. The definition of type AbstractLink uses: public bool Equals(ILink other) { if (Object.ReferenceEquals(other, null)) return false; if (Object.ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; return IsActive.Equals(other.IsActive) && Linkid.Equals(other.Linkid); }

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• buttons inside scrollviewer problem

  - by Miroslav Valchev

  Hello, everyone. I couldn't find a solution to my problem eventhough I believe that others have come across this too. Basically, there are like twenty buttons in a wrap panel, which is inside a scrollviewer. The problem is that when I want to scroll the list, the click event fires the triggers. Really would appreciate help on this one. <ScrollViewer> <ScrollViewer.Content> <toolkit:WrapPanel Orientation="Horizontal" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="420"> <Button Style="{StaticResource imageButtonStyle}" > <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Click"> <cmd2:EventToCommand Command="{Binding SelectCommand, Mode=OneWay}" CommandParameterValue="1" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </Button> <Button Style="{StaticResource imageButtonStyle}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Click"> <cmd2:EventToCommand Command="{Binding SelectCommand, Mode=OneWay}" CommandParameterValue="2" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </Button> <Button Style="{StaticResource imageButtonStyle}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="MouseEnter"> <cmd2:EventToCommand Command="{Binding SelectCommand, Mode=OneWay}" CommandParameterValue="3" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </Button> <Button Style="{StaticResource imageButtonStyle}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="MouseEnter"> <cmd2:EventToCommand Command="{Binding SelectCommand, Mode=OneWay}" CommandParameterValue="4" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </Button> </toolkit:WrapPanel> </ScrollViewer.Content>

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• Mysql select - improve performances

  - by realshadow

  Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated. Edit: Here is the explain +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | products_loans | range | CENA_OD,CENA_DO,KOD | KOD | 92 | NULL | 190158 | Using where | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ I have tried the combined index and it improved the performance on the test server from 0.44 sec to 0.06 sec, I cant access the production server from home though, so I will have to try it tomorrow.

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• Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

  - by themoondothshine

  Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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• How do I make a full screen scrolling messagebox or window?

  - by chobo2

  Hi First let me start of saying I know absolutely nothing about c++ and I am really just more interested in getting this to work then learning c++(I got enough on my plate to learn). So basically I am trying to make a terms of service for my windows mobile 6 professional application but it seems I need to use c++ to do it. After hours of searching I found a solution but it developed for windows mobile standard. So they somehow used c++ to make a message box and on standard devices(ie non touch screen phones) the message box can have like scrolling. For some reason this is not the case with professional devices(touch screen devices). So my message box goes off the page and you can never accept or decline the terms. So your stuck and on the screen forever till you do some sort of soft restart. http://www.mobilepractices.com/2008/10/setupdll-sample-and-walkthrough-terms.html The above link is the tutorial but here is the actual file that seems to display the message. #include "stdafx.h" #include "ce_setup.h" // This is a variable containing the text to be displayed // in the Terms & Conditions dialog TCHAR Message[] = _T("TERMS & CONDITIONS\r\n ") _T("Selecting YES you're accepting our terms & conditions.\r\n") _T("This is just a sample application.\r\n") _T("From http://www.mobilepractices.com\r\n") _T("You can replace this text with your own.\r\n") _T("We're using a setup.dll to show this dialog.\r\n") _T("Extra line to force vertical scrollbar.\r\n") _T("Extra line to force vertical scrollbar.\r\n") _T("Extra line to force vertical scrollbar.\r\n") _T("Extra line to force vertical scrollbar.\r\n") _T("Extra line to force vertical scrollbar.\r\n") _T("Extra line to force vertical scrollbar.\r\n") _T("Last line.\r\n") ; // This function will be called when the user // tries to install the cab. According to its return // value the installation continues or is cancelled. // As this could be called more than once // (i.e. if there is not enough space on the target) // we should take care about fFirstCall parameter // to show the dialog only once. codeINSTALL_INIT Install_Init( HWND hwndParent, BOOL fFirstCall, BOOL fPreviouslyInstalled, LPCTSTR pszInstallDir ) { if (!fFirstCall || ::MessageBoxW(0, Message, _T("SplashScreenSample") , MB_YESNO) == IDYES) return codeINSTALL_INIT_CONTINUE; else return codeINSTALL_INIT_CANCEL; } So I want to change this to something that can scroll. Can I use like a panel control since I know what has scroll or something else? Thanks

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• Check to see if CallResponder is processing

  - by Travesty3

  I'm using Flash Builder 4.6. As a simple example, say I have the following application: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:sdk="services.sdk.*"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { // ... } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <sdk:SDK id="sdk" fault="{Alert.show(event.fault.faultString +'\n\n'+ event.fault.faultDetail, 'SDK ERROR');}" showBusyCursor="false"/> <s:CallResponder id="getValueResult" result="getValueResultHandler()"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button id="btnGetValue" click="btnGetValue_clickHandler()" label="Get Value" /> </s:Application> So when you click on the button, it calls a PHP file and when it gets a result, it calls getValueResultHandler(). Easy enough. But what if the response from the PHP file takes a second or two and the user clicks the button rapidly? Then the result handler function may not get called every time, since the call responder gets a new token before it received the last response. Is there a standard way of resolving this issue? I came up with the following workaround, and it works fine, but it seems like this issue would be common enough to have a more built-in solution. My workaround is: var getValueResultProcessing:Boolean = false; private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { var interval:uint = setInterval(function():void { if (!getValueResultProcessing) { getValueResultProcessing = true; getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); clearInterval(interval); } }, 100); getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { getValueResultProcessing = false; // ... } Any better way of resolving this issue?

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• BufferedReader no longer buffering after a while?

  - by BobTurbo

  Sorry I can't post code but I have a bufferedreader with 50000000 bytes set as the buffer size. It works as you would expect for half an hour, the HDD light flashing every two minutes or so, reading in the big chunk of data, and then going quiet again as the CPU processes it. But after about half an hour (this is a very big file), the HDD starts thrashing as if it is reading one byte at a time. It is still in the same loop and I think I checked free ram to rule out swapping (heap size is default). Probably won't get any helpful answers, but worth a try. OK I have changed heap size to 768mb and still nothing. There is plenty of free memory and java.exe is only using about 300mb. Now I have profiled it and heap stays at about 200MB, well below what is available. CPU stays at 50%. Yet the HDD starts thrashing like crazy. I have.. no idea. I am going to rewrite the whole thing in c#, that is my solution. Here is the code (it is just a throw-away script, not pretty): BufferedReader s = null; HashMap<String, Integer> allWords = new HashMap<String, Integer>(); HashSet<String> pageWords = new HashSet<String>(); long[] pageCount = new long[78592]; long pages = 0; Scanner wordFile = new Scanner(new BufferedReader(new FileReader("allWords.txt"))); while (wordFile.hasNext()) { allWords.put(wordFile.next(), Integer.parseInt(wordFile.next())); } s = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("wikipedia/enwiki-latest-pages-articles.xml"), 50000000); StringBuilder words = new StringBuilder(); String nextLine = null; while ((nextLine = s.readLine()) != null) { if (a.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (b.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (c.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (d.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { nextLine = s.readLine(); if (e.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { if (f.matcher(s.readLine()).matches()) { pageWords.addAll(Arrays.asList(words.toString().toLowerCase().split("[^a-zA-Z]"))); words.setLength(0); pages++; for (String word : pageWords) { if (allWords.containsKey(word)) { pageCount[allWords.get(word)]++; } else if (!word.isEmpty() && allWords.containsKey(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))) { pageCount[allWords.get(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))]++; } } pageWords.clear(); } } } else if (g.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } words.append(nextLine); words.append(" "); }

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• How to dispose off custom object from within custom membership provider

  - by IrfanRaza

  I have created my custom MembershipProvider. I have used an instance of the class DBConnect within this provider to handle database functions. Please look at the code below: public class SGIMembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { #region "[ Property Variables ]" private int newPasswordLength = 8; private string connectionString; private string applicationName; private bool enablePasswordReset; private bool enablePasswordRetrieval; private bool requiresQuestionAndAnswer; private bool requiresUniqueEmail; private int maxInvalidPasswordAttempts; private int passwordAttemptWindow; private MembershipPasswordFormat passwordFormat; private int minRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters; private int minRequiredPasswordLength; private string passwordStrengthRegularExpression; private MachineKeySection machineKey; **private DBConnect dbConn;** #endregion ....... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } SqlParameter[] p = new SqlParameter[3]; p[0] = new SqlParameter("@applicationName", applicationName); p[1] = new SqlParameter("@username", username); p[2] = new SqlParameter("@password", EncodePassword(newPassword)); bool retval = **dbConn.ExecuteSP("User_ChangePassword", p);** return retval; } //ChangePassword public override void Initialize(string name, NameValueCollection config) { if (config == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("config"); } ...... ConnectionStringSettings ConnectionStringSettings = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[config["connectionStringName"]]; if ((ConnectionStringSettings == null) || (ConnectionStringSettings.ConnectionString.Trim() == String.Empty)) { throw new ProviderException("Connection string cannot be blank."); } connectionString = ConnectionStringSettings.ConnectionString; **dbConn = new DBConnect(connectionString); dbConn.ConnectToDB();** ...... } //Initialize ...... } // SGIMembershipProvider I have instantiated dbConn object within Initialize() event. My problem is that how could i dispose off this object when object of SGIMembershipProvider is disposed off. I know the GC will do this all for me, but I need to explicitly dispose off that object. Even I tried to override Finalize() but there is no such overridable method. I have also tried to create destructor for SGIMembershipProvider. Can anyone provide me solution.

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• ACL implementation

  - by Kirzilla

  First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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• compressed archive with quick access to individual file

  - by eric.frederich

  I need to come up with a file format for new application I am writing. This file will need to hold a bunch other text files which are mostly text but can be other formats as well. Naturally, a compressed tar file seems to fit the bill. The problem is that I want to be able to retrieve some data from the file very quickly and getting just a particular file from a tar.gz file seems to take longer than it should. I am assumeing that this is because it has to decompress the entire file even though I just want one. When I have just a regular uncompressed tar file I can get that data real quick. Lets say the file I need quickly is called data.dat For example the command... tar -x data.dat -zf myfile.tar.gz ... is what takes a lot longer than I'd like. MP3 files have id3 data and jpeg files have exif data that can be read in quickly without opening the entire file. I would like my data.dat file to be available in a similar way. I was thinking that I could leave it uncompressed and seperate from the rest of the files in myfile.tar.gz I could then create a tar file of data.dat and myfile.tar.gz and then hopefully that data would be able to be retrieved faster because it is at the head of outer tar file and is uncompressed. Does this sound right?... putting a compressed tar inside of a tar file? Basically, my need is to have an archive type of file with quick access to one particular file. Tar does this just fine, but I'd also like to have that data compressed and as soon as I do that, I no longer have quick access. Are there other archive formats that will give me that quick access I need? As a side note, this application will be written in Python. If the solution calls for a re-invention of the wheel with my own binary format I am familiar with C and would have no problem writing the Python module in C. Idealy I'd just use tar, dd, cat, gzip, etc though. Thanks, ~Eric

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• Custom SessionListener, name is not bound in this context, javax.naming.NameNotFoundException

  - by mehmet6parmak

  Hi, I am trying to implement HttpSessionListener so that users of this listener can register implementation of ISessionEvent interface to session Events.code is below: public class MySessionListener implements HttpSessionListener{ @Resource ISessionEvent sessionEvent; public ISessionEvent getSessionEvent() { return sessionEvent; } public void setSessionEvent(ISessionEvent sessionEvent) { this.sessionEvent = sessionEvent; } @Override public void sessionCreated(HttpSessionEvent arg0) { sessionEvent.SessionCreated(arg0.getSession()); } @Override public void sessionDestroyed(HttpSessionEvent arg0) { sessionEvent.SessionDestroyed(arg0.getSession()); } } When user implement ISessionEvent and add as a bean, SessionCreated and SessionDestroyed functions of implementation will be called when these events occured. You can ask why dont you just write inside listeners methods, i dont i'm just trying. When i try the code above i got the following error message: javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: Name com.mehmet6parmak.sessionlistener.MySessionListener is not bound in this Context at org.apache.naming.NamingContext.lookup(NamingContext.java:770) at org.apache.naming.NamingContext.lookup(NamingContext.java:153) at org.apache.catalina.util.DefaultAnnotationProcessor.lookupFieldResource(DefaultAnnotationProcessor.java:278) at org.apache.catalina.util.DefaultAnnotationProcessor.processAnnotations(DefaultAnnotationProcessor.java:187) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.listenerStart(StandardContext.java:4082) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.start(StandardContext.java:4630) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.start(ContainerBase.java:1045) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHost.start(StandardHost.java:785) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.start(ContainerBase.java:1045) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngine.start(StandardEngine.java:445) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardService.start(StandardService.java:519) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardServer.start(StandardServer.java:710) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina.start(Catalina.java:581) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Bootstrap.start(Bootstrap.java:289) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Bootstrap.main(Bootstrap.java:414) Resource annotation causes the error but i could not resolve it. Thanks All... Interface and Implementation @Resource public interface ISessionEvent { public void SessionCreated(HttpSession session); public void SessionDestroyed(HttpSession session); } @Resource public class SessionEvent implements ISessionEvent { @Override public void SessionDestroyed(HttpSession session) { System.out.println("From Session Event Callback(Destroy):" + session.getId()); } @Override public void SessionCreated(HttpSession session) { System.out.println("From Session Event Callback(Create):" + session.getId()); } } Bean Definition <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.mehmet6parmak"> </context:component-scan> <bean id="sessionEvent" autowire="byName" class="com.mehmet6parmak.sessionlistener.SessionEvent"></bean> Solution:Using the method used in link works.

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• Any way to allow classes implementing IEntity and downcast to have operator == comparisons?

  - by George Mauer

  Basically here's the issue. All entities in my system are identified by their type and their id. new Customer() { Id = 1} == new Customer() {Id = 1}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Customer() {Id = 2}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Product() {Id = 1}; Pretty standard scenario. Since all Entities have an Id I define an interface for all entities. public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set;} } And to simplify creation of entities I make public abstract class BaseEntity<T> : where T : IEntity { int Id { get; set;} public static bool operator ==(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { if (object.ReferenceEquals(null, e1)) return false; return e1.Equals(e2); } public static bool operator !=(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { return !(e1 == e2); } } where Customer and Product are something like public class Customer : BaseEntity<Customer>, IEntity {} public class Product : BaseEntity<Product>, IEntity {} I think this is hunky dory. I think all I have to do is override Equals in each entity (if I'm super clever, I can even override it only once in the BaseEntity) and everything with work. So now I'm expanding my test coverage and find that its not quite so simple! First of all , when downcasting to IEntity and using == the BaseEntity< override is not used. So what's the solution? Is there something else I can do? If not, this is seriously annoying. Upadate It would seem that there is something wrong with my tests - or rather with comparing on generics. Check this out [Test] public void when_created_manually_non_generic() { // PASSES! var e1 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; var e2 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } [Test] public void when_created_manually_generic() { // FAILS! GenericCompare(new Terminal() { Id = 1 }, new Terminal() { Id = 1 }); } private void GenericCompare<T>(T e1, T e2) where T : class, IEntity { Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } Whats going on here? This is not as big a problem as I was afraid, but is still quite annoying and a completely unintuitive way for the language to behave. Update Update Ah I get it, the generic implicitly downcasts to IEntity for some reason. I stand by this being unintuitive and potentially problematic for my Domain's consumers as they need to remember that anything happening within a generic method or class needs to be compared with Equals()

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• Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

  - by Don

  I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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• git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

  - by Gauthier

  I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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• Solving a cyclical dependency in Ninject (Compact Framework)

  - by Alex

  I'm trying to use Ninject for dependency injection in my MVP application. However, I have a problem because I have two types that depend on each other, thus creating a cyclic dependency. At first, I understand that it was a problem, because I had both types require each other in their constructors. Therefore, I moved one of the dependencies to a property injection instead, but I'm still getting the error message. What am I doing wrong? This is the presenter: public class LoginPresenter : Presenter<ILoginView>, ILoginPresenter { public LoginPresenter( ILoginView view ) : base( view ) { } } and this is the view: public partial class LoginForm : Form, ILoginView { [Inject] public ILoginPresenter Presenter { private get; set; } public LoginForm() { InitializeComponent(); } } And here's the code that causes the exception: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [MTAThread] static void Main() { // Show the login form Views.LoginForm loginForm = Kernel.Get<Views.Interfaces.ILoginView>() as Views.LoginForm; Application.Run( loginForm ); } } The exception happens on the line with the Kernel.Get<>() call. Here it is: Error activating ILoginPresenter using binding from ILoginPresenter to LoginPresenter A cyclical dependency was detected between the constructors of two services. Activation path: 4) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 3) Injection of dependency ILoginView into parameter view of constructor of type LoginPresenter 2) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 1) Request for ILoginView Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have not declared a dependency for ILoginPresenter on any implementations of the service. 2) Consider combining the services into a single one to remove the cycle. 3) Use property injection instead of constructor injection, and implement IInitializable if you need initialization logic to be run after property values have been injected. Why doesn't Ninject understand that since one is constructor injection and the other is property injection, this can work just fine? I even read somewhere looking for the solution to this problem that Ninject supposedly gets this right as long as the cyclic dependency isn't both in the constructors. Apparently not, though. Any help resolving this would be much appreciated.

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• Showing div based on filled form field

  - by Fabio

  I have this script where I use a slider to show some elements of a form. So far so good. The way I'm doing it is by having a slider (can't use a multistep form since it uses a plugin not allowing multistep forms, plus some graphic behaviors) and a button that goes to the next slider. So now I need that button (not part of the form) to show only if a certain field is filled. I tried teh following, but it's not working, I assume some error but can't figure what. My code is as follows: $('#clientname').change(function() { var clientVal = $("input").val() == ''; $(".next").hide(); if ($('#clientname').val() != '').show(); else $('.next').hide(); }); and the html as follows: <div class="b40-right"> <h3>The Basics</h3> <div class="label"> Your Name (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-name"><input id="clientname" type="text" name="your-name" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-validates-as-required" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Your Email (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-email"><input type="text" name="your-email" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-email wpcf7-validates-as-required wpcf7-validates-as-email" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Type of Business</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap type-of-business"><textarea name="type-of-business" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-textarea" cols="40" rows="10"></textarea></span> </div> </div> <a class="next" href="javascript:stepcarousel.stepBy('mygallery2', 1)"><img id="nextbut1" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/next.png" alt="" /></a> any help on what am I doing wrong? Is there a better approach/solution? (I'm not a programmer as you may figure) Thank you in advance!

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• How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

  - by valdo

  Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

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• IOC/Autofac problem

  - by Krazzy

  I am currently using Autofac, but am open to commentary regarding other IOC containers as well. I would prefer a solution using Autofac if possible. I am also somewhat new to IOC so I may be grossly misunderstanding what I should be using an IOC container for. Basically, the situation is as follows: I have a topmost IOC container for my app. I have a tree of child containers/scopes where I would like the same "service" (IWhatever) to resolve differently depending on which level in the tree it is resolved. Furthermore if a service is not registered at some level in the tree I would like the tree to be transversed upward until a suitable implementation is found. Furthermore, when constructing a given component, it is quite possible that I will need access to the parent container/scope. In many cases the component that I'm registering will have a dependency on the same or a different service in a parent scope. Is there any way to express this dependency with Autofac? Something like: builder.Register(c=> { var parentComponent = ?.Resolve<ISomeService>(); var childComponent = new ConcreteService(parentComponent, args...); return childComponent; }).As<ISomeService>(); I can't get anything similar to the above pseudocode to work for serveral reasons: A) It seems that all levels in the scope tree share a common set of registrations. I can't seem to find a way to make a given registration confined a certain "scope". B) I can't seem to find a way to get a hold of the parent scope of a given scope. I CAN resolve ILifetimeScope in the container and then case it to a concrete LifetimeScope instance which provides its parent scope, but I'm guessing it is probably note meant to be used this way. Is this safe? C) I'm not sure how to tell Autofac which container owns the resolved object. For many components I would like component to be "owned" by the scope in which it is constructed. Could tagged contexts help me here? Would I have to tag every level of the tree with a unique tag? This would be difficult because the tree depth is determined at runtime. Sorry for the extremely lengthy question. In summary: 1) Is there any way to do what I want to do using Autofac? 2) Is there another container more suited to this kind of dependency structure? 3) Is IOC the wrong tool for this altogether?

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• Creating multiple heads in remote repository

  - by Jab

  We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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• Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

  - by w128

  I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

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• using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

  - by Hans Gruber

  Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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• Php plugin to replace '->' with '.' as the member access operator ? Or even better: alternative synt

  - by Gigi

  Present day usable solution: Note that if you use an ide or an advanced editor, you could make a code template, or record a macro that inserts '->' when you press Ctrl and '.' or something. Netbeans has macros, and I have recorded a macro for this, and I like it a lot :) (just click the red circle toolbar button (start record macro),then type -> into the editor (thats all the macro will do, insert the arrow into the editor), then click the gray square (stop record macro) and assign the 'Ctrl dot' shortcut to it, or whatever shortcut you like) The php plugin: The php plugin, would also have to have a different string concatenation operator than the dot. Maybe a double dot ? Yea... why not. All it has to do is set an activation tag so that it doesnt replace / interpreter '.' as '->' for old scripts and scripts that dont intent do use this. Something like this: <php+ $obj.i = 5 ?> (notice the modified '<?php' tag to '<?php+' ) This way it wouldnt break old code. (and you can just add the '<?php+' code template to your editor and then type 'php tab' (for netbeans) and it would insert '<?php+' ) With the alternative syntax method you could even have old and new syntax cohabitating on the same page like this (I am illustrating this to show the great compatibility of this method, not because you would want to do this): <?php+ $obj.i = 5; ?> <?php $obj->str = 'a' . 'b'; ?> You could change the tag to something more explanatory, in case somebody who doesnt know about the plugin reads the script and thinks its a syntax error <?php-dot.com $obj.i = 5; ?> This is easy because most editors have code templates, so its easy to assign a shortcut to it. And whoever doesnt want the dot replacement, doesnt have to use it. These are NOT ultimate solutions, they are ONLY examples to show that solutions exist, and that arguments against replacing '->' with '.' are only excuses. (Just admit you like the arrow, its ok : ) With this potential method, nobody who doesnt want to use it would have to use it, and it wouldnt break old code. And if other problems (ahem... excuses) arise, they could be fixed too. So who can, and who will do such a thing ?

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