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• Is the RESTORE process dependent on schema?

  - by Martin Aatmaa

  Let's say I have two database instances: InstanceA - Production server InstanceB - Test server My workflow is to deploy new schema changes to InstanceB first, test them, and then deploy them to InstanceA. So, at any one time, the instance schema relationship looks like this: InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) An additional part of my workflow is to keep the data in InstanceB as fresh as possible. To fulfill this, I am taking the database backups of InstanceA and applying them (restoring them) to InstanceB. My question is, how does schema version affect the restoral process? I know I can do this: Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.5 But can I do this? Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) If no, what would the failure look like? If yes, would the type of schema change matter? For example, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by just having an altered storec proc, I imagine that this type of schema change should't affect the restoral process. On the other hand, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by having a different table definition (say, an additional column), I image this would affect the restoral process. I hope I've made this clear enough. Thanks in advance for any input!

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• .NET WebBrowser control with Adobe SVG Viewer

  I'm having problems with SVG files loading in a .NET 2.0 WebBrowser control. If I create a new WinForms application project, drag a WebBrowser control and a button onto the Form1.cs design surface, and add a line to the button's on-click handler to set the Url property of the WebBrowser control to an SVG file, I get two IE script errors at runtime (as in, the dialog you get when there is a Javascript problem). The only line of code I'm writing is therefore: webBrowser1.Url = new Uri(@"http://wiki.allegro.cc/pub/f/fb/Grozilla.svg"); This SVG file loads fine if I browse directly to the link with IE; the errors I get via my test app are: line 2, char 1, error: Invalid character, followed by line 1, char 1, error: Object expected (assuming I answer yes to the prompt to 'continue running scripts on this page'). I'm using IE 7.0.5730.13, Adobe SVG Viewer 3.03 build 94, Visual Studio 2008. Can anyone replicate this? Has anyone seen it/got any idea how to fix it? (edit: previously setting the URL in the constructor for the purposes of the example, but this raised the question of whether or not the control had finished initialising, so have changed the example to use a button - the problem still occurs. This bug originally appeared in production code so the example program I wrote was an attempt to isolate the issue and reproduce it as simply as possible.) (edit 2: having tested on several different machines, this problems seems to be related to IE7 - run IE6, and everything works fine.)

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• How to get XML element/attribute name in SQL Server 2005

  - by OG Dude

  Hi, I have a simple procedure in SQL Server 2005 which takes some XML as input. The element attributes correspond to field names in tables. I'd like to be able to determine <elementName>, <attribNameX> dynamically as to avoid having to hardcode them into the procedure. How can I do this? The XML looks like this: <ROOT> <elementName attribName1 = "xxx" attribName2 = "yyy"/> <elementName attribName1 = "aaa" attribName2 = "bbb"/> ... </ROOT> The stored procedure like this: CREATE PROC dbo.myProc ( @XMLInput varchar(1000) ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @XMLDocHandle int EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @XMLDocHandle OUTPUT, @XMLInput SELECT someTable.someCol FROM dbo.someTable JOIN OPENXML (@XMLDocHandle, '/ROOT/elementName',1) WITH (attrib1Name int, attrib2Name int) AS XMLData ON someTable.attribName1 = XMLData.attribName1 AND someTable.attribName2 = XMLData.attribName2 EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @XMLDocHandle END GO The question has been asked here before but maybe there is a cleaner solution. Additionally, I'd like to pass the tablename as a parameter as well - I read some stuff arguing that this is bad style - so what would be a good solution for having a dynamic tablename? Thanks a lot in advance, /David

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• Falling Sand simulation

  - by Erik Forbes

  I'm trying to re-create a 'falling sand' simulation, similar to those various web toys that are out there doing the same thing - and I'm failing pretty hard. I'm not really sure where to begin. I'm trying to use cellular automata to model the behavior of the sand particles, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to make the direction in which I update the 'world' not matter... For example, one of the particle types I'd like to have is Plant. When Plant comes in contact with Water, Plant turns that Water particle into another Plant particle. The problem here though is that if I'm updating the game world from top to bottom and left to right, then a Plant particle placed in the middle of a sea of Water particles will immediately cause all of the Water particles to the right and below that new Plant particle to turn into Plants. This is not the behavior I am expecting. =( I'm having difficulty explaining exactly my difficulty, so I'll try to add more information as best I can as I go along. Suffice it to say that this is very much outside my box, as it were, and I don't even know what to search for.

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• how to prevent divs from overlapping when using no-wrap across table cells

  - by pedalpete

  I'm trying to create an events calendar which has a somewhat 'gantt' chart like bar representing the times of an event, along with the time listed. I've uploaded a page showing the problem As you can see, the problem is that in the 3rd cell, the event div is being overlapped by the previous event div which goes outside the boundary of the cell. The event from the 2nd cell SHOULD expand beyond the cell border, but what I'm trying to get to happen is that WHEN the event from the 2nd cell expands into the 3rd cell, the event on the 3rd cell starts a new line. I believe the problem exists because of the nowrap on the time, but I want the time and in some cases the bar to cross the cell boundary when the time goes from one day to another. All that works now, but I'm having a problem with events overlapping when an event goes from one day to another. I've tried all sorts of :even cells having a different padding, etc. but all these solutions seem to bring up more problems. Is there a way get the no-wrap to force a new long when it crosses into the next cell? or any other solution to this issue?

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• asp.net 4.0 webforms - how to keep ContentPlaceHolder1_ out of client id's in a simple way?

  - by James Manning

  I'm attempting to introduce master pages to an existing webforms site that's avoided using them because of client id mangling in the past (and me not wanting to deal with the mangling and doing <% foo.ClientID % everywhere :) GOAL: use 'static' id values (whatever is in the server control's id attribute) except for data-bound / repeating controls which would break for those cases and therefore need suffixes or whatever to differentiate (basically, Predictable) Now that the site migrated to ASP.NET 4.0, I first attempted to use ClientIDMode of Static (in the web.config) but that broke too many places doing repeating controls (checkboxes inside gridviews, for instance) since they all resulted with the same id. So, I then tried Predictable (again, just in the web.config) so that the repeating controls wouldn't have conflicting id's, and it works well except that the master page content placeholder (which is indeed a naming container) is still reflecting in the resulting client id's (for instance, ContentPlaceHolder1_someCheckbox). Certainly I could leave the web.config setting as static and then go through all the databound/repeating controls switch them to Predictable, but I'm hoping there's some easier/simpler way to get that effect without having to scatter ClientIDMode attributes in those N number of places (or extend all those databound controls with my own usercontrol that just sets clientidmode, or whatever). I even thought of leaving web.config set to static and doing a master or basepage handler (preinit? not sure if that would work or not) that would go walk Controls with OfType<INamingContainer() (might be a better choice on the type, but that seems like a good starting choice looking at repeater and gridview) and then set those to Predictable so I'd get static for all my 'normal' things outside of repeating controls but not have to deal with static inside things like gridview/repeater/etc. I don't see any way to mark the content placeholder such that it 'opts out' of being included in child id's - setting the ID of the placeholder to empty/blank doesn't work as it's a required attribute :) At that point I figured there was a better/simpler way that I was missing and decided to ask on SO :) Edit: I thought about changing all my 'fetch by id' jquery calls from $('#foo') to fetch_by_id('foo') and then having that function return the 'right one' by checking $('#foo').length and then $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_foo').length (and maybe other patterns) or even just have it return $('#foo, #ContentPlaceHolder1_foo') (again, potentially other patterns) but changing all the places I fetch elements by id seemed pretty ugly too, and I'd like to avoid that abstraction layer if possible to do so easily :)

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• Memory leak, again!

  - by Dave

  A couple of weeks ago I was having trouble with memory leaks associated with a ContextMenuStrip. That problem was fixed. See that question here Now I'm having similar issues with ToolStrip controls. As in the previous problem, I'm creating a large number of UserControls and adding them to a FlowLayoutPanel. Each control creates a ToolStrip for itself in its constructor. When a control is removed from the FlowLayoutPanel (the only reference to the control), it seems memory for the ToolStrip is not being released. However when I comment out the code that creates the ToolStrip the memory leak doesn't happen. Is this the same sort of issue as the previous one - I need to set the ToolStrip to null? I don't see how that could be since this time the control is creating the strip itself, and all the button events etc are handled inside it. So shouldn't everything be GC'd when the control is no longer referenced? EDIT: As to the comments, the thing I don't understand is originally I was "making" my own toolstrip out of a panel and some labels. The labels were used as buttons. No memory leaks occurred this way. The only thing I've changed is using a proper ToolStrip with proper buttons in place of the panel, but all the event handlers are wired the same way. So why is it now leaking memory?

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• Entity Framework. Updating EntityCollection using disconnected objects via navigation property.

  - by yougotiger

  I have a question, much liket this unanswered one. I'm trying to work with the entity framework, and having a tough time getting my foreign tables to update. I have something basically like this in the DB: Incident (table): -ID -other fields Responses (table): -FK:Incident.ID -other fields And and entities that match: Incident (entity) -ID -Other fields -Responses (EntityCollection of Responses via navigation property) Each Incident can have 0 or more responses. In my Webpage, I have a form to allow the user to enter all the details of an Incident, including a list of responses. I can add everything to the database when a new Incident is created, however I'm having difficulty with editing the Incident. When the page loads for edit, I populate the form and then store the responses in the viewstate. When the user changes the list of responses (adds one, deletes one or edits one). I store this back into the viewstate. Then when the user clicks the save button, I'd like to save the changes to the Incident and the Responses back to the DB. I cannot figure out how to get the responses from the detached viewstate into the Incident object so that they can be updated together. Currently when the user clicks save, I'm getting the Incident to edit from the db, making changes to the Incident's fields and then saving it back to the DB. However I can't figure out how to have the detached list of responses from the viewstate attach to the Incident. I have tried the following without success: Clearning the Incident.Responses collection and adding the ones from the viewstate back in: Incident.Responses.Clear() for each objResponse in Viewstate("Responses") Incident.Responses.add(objResponse) next Creating an EntityCollection from my list and then assiging that to the Incident.Responses Incident.Responses = EntityCollectionFromViewstateList Iterating through the responses in Incident.Response and assigning the corresponding object from viewstate: for each ObjResponse in Incident.Responses objResponse = objCorrespondingModifedResonseFromViewState Next These all fail, I'd like to be able to merge the changes into the Inicdent object so that when the BLL calls SaveChanges on the changes to both the Incident and Responses will happen at the same time. Any suggestions? I keep finding lots of stuff about assigning foreign keys (singular), but I haven't found a great solution for doing a set of entities assigned to another entity in this manner.

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• What does ~ in the beginning of an URL in asp.net exactly do ?

  - by MarceloRamires

  I am editing a certain website which before used the port 80 (default) that was not required at the url (because it's default..) But the port had (for technical reasons) to be changed, and now it has to be informed. I can access the main page through ip:port\page like this: 1.2.3.4:81\page.aspx Every link in the website is composed like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" Text="random" NavigateUrl="~/fdr/whatever.aspx" /> And whenever I click on a link, the page doesn't load, but the URL is composed on the URL bar of the browser, then I simply add ":80" after the IP in the URL and it works. Due to the existance of querystrings (in other words, for already having access to the URL) I before thought that '~' in the beginning of a URL in a link was saying "keep in the same website, just change to this webpage in this folder", but if the port vanishes, I assume now that the address is requested (probably to IIS) the location of the current website. I want to know then (instead of having to add the port to each link in my website) how do I set up whoever is requested by the ~ in the link to add the port somehow. How do I do that?

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• Architecting ASP.net MVC App to use repositories and services

  - by zaladane

  Hello, I recently started reading about ASP.net MVC and after getting excited about the concept, i started to migrate all my webform project to MVC but i am having a hard time keeping my controller skinny even after following all the good advices out there (or maybe i just don't get it ... ). The website i deal with has Articles, Videos, Quotes ... and each of these entities have categories, comments, images that can be associated with it. I am using Linq to sql for database operations and for each of these Entities, i have a Repository, and for each repository, i create a service to be used in the controller. so i have - ArticleRepository ArticleCategoryRepository ArticleCommentRepository and the corresponding service ArticleService ArticleCategoryService ... you see the picture. The problem i have is that i have one controller for article,category and comment because i thought that having ArticleController handle all of that might make sense, but now i have to pass all of the services needed to the Controller constructor. So i would like to know what it is that i am doing wrong. Are my services not designed properly? should i create Bigger service to encapsulate smaller services and use them in my controller? or should i have an articleCategory Controller and an articleComment Controller? A page viewed by the user is made of all of that, thee article to be viewed,the comments associated with it, a listing of the categories to witch it applies ... how can i efficiently break down the controller to keep it "skinny" and solve my headache? Thank you! I hope my question is not too long to be read ...

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• How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

  - by mikep

  Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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• Zend_Form using subforms getValues() problem

  - by wiseguydigital

  Hi all, I am building a form in Zend Framework 1.9 using subforms as well as Zend_JQuery being enabled on those forms. The form itself is fine and all the error checking etc is working as normal. But the issue I am having is that when I'm trying to retrieve the values in my controller, I'm receiving just the form entry for the last subform e.g. My master form class (abbreviated for speed): Master_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { ZendX_JQuery::enableForm($this); $this->setAction('actioninhere') ... ->setAttrib('id', 'mainForm') $sub_one = new Form_One(); $sub_one->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_one, 'form-one'); $sub_two = new Form_Two(); $sub_two->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_two, 'form-two'); } } So that all works as it should in the display and when I submit without filling in the required values, the correct errors are returned. However, in my controller I have this: class My_Controller extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function createAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); $form = new Master_Form(); if ($request->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($request->getPost()) { // This is where I am having the problems print_r($form->getValues()); } } } } When I submit this and it gets past isValid(), the $form-getValues() is only returning the elements from the second subform, not the entire form.

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• IF expression in SQL

  - by chupinette

  INSERT INTO item_quotation (item_id, quotation_id,name_searched,item_name,other_name,selling_price,discounted_price) SELECT DISTINCT I.item_id," . $quotation_id . ",T.item_name, I.name,I.other_name, INV.selling_price, I.discounted_price FROM temp_quotations T, item I, inventory INV<br/> WHERE ( I.name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' ) OR I.other_name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' )) AND INV.item_id = I.item_id; I have a table called temp_quotations(temp_item_id,item_name)having values (1,grinder), (2,drill), (3,kit) I have another table called item(item_id,name,other_name,discounted_price) having values (1,grinder A,100),(2,kit A,200) When I execute this sql, it insert values in table item_quotation(item_id, quotation_id,name_searched,item_name,other_name,selling_price,discounted_price) for example in this case it will insert (1,1,grinder,grinder A,150,100) (2,1,kit,kit A, 250,200) Since the item drill is not found in table item, it wont display it in table item_quotations. I want to write an if statement within that sql so that when the item_name from temp_quotation does not match the name from item, it displays not found in the place of item_name. This is what i tried but it does not display "not found": INSERT INTO item_quotation (item_id, quotation_id,name_searched,item_name,other_name,selling_price,discounted_price) SELECT DISTINCT I.item_id," . $quotation_id . ",T.item_name, IF(I.name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' ),I.name,'not found'),I.other_name, INV.selling_price, I.discounted_price FROM temp_quotations T, item I, inventory INV WHERE ( I.name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' ) OR I.other_name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' )) AND INV.item_id = I.item_id;

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• How to use MSBuild to target multiple versions of .NET Framework?

  - by McKAMEY

  I am improving the builds for an open source project which currently supports .NET Framework v2.0, v3.5, and now v4.0. Up until now, I've restricted myself to v2.0 to ensure compatibility, but with VS2010 I am interested in having real targeted builds. I'm looking for some guidance on how to edit the MSBuild csproj/soln to be able to cleanly produce builds for each target. I'm willing to have complexity in the csproj and in a batch file to control the build. My goal is to be able to have a command line script that could produce the builds without needing Visual Studio installed, but only the necessary .NET Framework(s). Ideally, I'd like to minimize dependencies on additional software (e.g. NAnt). I'm pretty sure this can be done but am having trouble finding a definitive guide on setting it up and best practices. Bonus: my next step after getting this set up will be to better support Mono Framework. Any help on doing this same thing for Mono would be much appreciated.

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• How can I alter an external variable from inside my AJAX?

  - by tmedge

  I keep on having these same two problems. I have been trying to use Remy Sharp's wonderful tagSuggest plugin, and it works great. Until I try to use an AJAX call to get tags from my database. My setGlobalTags() works great, with my defined myTagList at the top of the function. What I want to do is set myTagList equal to the result from my AJAX. My problem is that I can neither call setGlobalTags() from inside my success or error functions, nor actually alter the original myTagList. Also, I keep on having this other issue as well. I keep this code in my Master page, and my AJAX returns 'success' on almost every page. I only (and always) get the error alert when I navigate to a page that actually contains something of id="ParentTags". I don't see why this is happening, because my $('#ParentTags').tagSuggest(); is definitely after my AJAX call. I realize that this is probably just some dumb conventions error, but I am new to this and I'm here to learn from you guys. Thanks in advance! $(function() { var myTagList = ['test', 'testMore', 'testALot']; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'Admin/GetTagList', dataType: 'json', success: function(resultTags) { myTagList = resultTags; alert(myTagList[0]); setGlobalTags(myTagList); }, error: function() { alert('Error'); setGlobalTags(myTagList); } }); setGlobalTags(myTagList); $('#ParentTags').tagSuggest(); });

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• Object Oriented Programming in AS3

  - by Jordan

  I'm building a game in as3 that has balls moving and bouncing off the walls. When the user clicks an explosion appears and any ball that hits that explosion explodes too. Any ball that then hits that explosion explodes and so on. My question is what would be the best class structure for the balls. I have a level system to control levels and such and I've already come up with working ways to code the balls. Here's what I've done. My first attempt was to create a class for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and finally Orb. These all extended each other in the order I just named them. I got it working but having Bounce extend Movement and Explosion extend Bounce, it just doesn't seem very object oriented because what if I wanted to add a box class that didn't move, but did explode? I would need a separate class for that explosion. My second attempt was to create Movement, Bounce and Explosion without extending anything. Instead I passed in a reference to the Orb class to each. Then the class stores that reference and does what it needs to do based on events that are dispatched by the Orb such as update, which was broadcast from Orb every enter frame. This would drive the movement and bounce and also the explosion when the time came. This attempt worked as well but it just doesn't seem right. I've also thought about using Interfaces but because they are more of an outline for classes, I feel like code reuse goes out the window as each class would need its own code for a specific task even if that task is exactly the same. I feel as if I'm searching for some form of multiple inheritance for classes that as3 does not support. Can someone explain to me a better way of doing what I'm attempting to do? Am I being to "Object Oriented" by having classed for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and Orb? Are Interfaces the way to go? Any feedback is appreciated!

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• Session cookie not being created in Rails, very rarely and frustratingly.

  - by James

  Hi everyone, This is an issue sporadically for very few users, however we haven't been able to replicate it. However I have now got a Chrome instance (Mac) which is reproducing the error (for some unknown reason), and I hope to not restart it until I have this nailed! Rails application, using memcached for session store. While the bug manifests in the _app_session_id cookie not being created, our javascript-generated cookie test and app-generated language cookies are being created successfully. This means that 422 / InvalidAuthToken errors are thrown for every form that is submitted by those afflicted - people can't log into the app. The error occurs across all browsers - had reports for IE7 and Firefox (which most users use). Switching to another browser often fixes the issue (though not always), and standard cache-cookie-clear tactics do not. So now that I have got Chrome open which is having the same issue - in development, staging and live environments (meaning http and https). All other browsers are fine. I've restarted the servers and restarted memcached. I don't really want to restart Chrome - in the risk that the issue does go away with that (having said that, it hasn't worked for users). I've been tcpdumping the requests - and although I'll keep digging, I'd love it if anyone had any suggestions, places to start looking, anything. This is really painful ;) Thanks!

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• TFS Folders - Getting them to work like Subversion "Trunk/Tags/Branches"

  - by Sam Schutte

  I recently started using Team Foundation Server, and am having some trouble getting it to work the way I want it to. I've used Subversion for a couple years now, and love the way it works. I always set up three folders under each project, Trunk, Tags, and Branches. When I'm working on a project, all my code lives under a folder called "C:\dev\projectname". This "projectname" folder can be made to point to either trunk, or any of the branches or tags using Subversion (with the switch command). Now that I'm using TFS (my client's system), I'd like things to work the same way. I created a "Trunk" folder with my project in it, and mapped "Project/Trunk/Website" to "c:\dev\Website". Now, I want to make a release under the "tags" folder (located in "Project/Tags/Version 1.0/Website", and TFS is giving me the following error when I execute the branch command: "No appropriate mapping exists for $Project/tags/Version 1.0/Website" From what I can find on the internet, TFS expects you to have a mapping to your hard drive at the root of the project (the "Project" folder in my case), and then have all the source code that lives in trunk, tags and branches all pulled down to your hard drive. This sucks because it requires way too much stuff on your hard drive, and even worse, when you are working in a solution in Visual Studio, you won't be able to pull down "Version 2.0" and have all your project references to other projects work, because they'll all be pointing to "trunk" folders under the main folder, not just the main folder itself. What I want to do is have the root "Project/Website" folder on my hard drive, and be able to have it point to (mapped to) either tags, branches, or trunk, depending on what i'm doing, without having to screw around with fixing Visual Studio project references. Ideas?

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• Counting computers for each lab

  - by Irvin

  Alright I have a problem with having to count PCs, and Macs from different labs. In each lab I need to display how many PC and Macs there is available. The data is coming from a SQL server, right am trying sub queries and the use of union, this the closest I can get to what I need. The query below shows me the number of PCs, and Macs in two different columns, but of course, the PCs will be in one row and the Macs on another right below it. Having the lab come up twice. EX: LabName -- PC / MAC Lab1 -- 5 / 0 Lab1 -- 0 / 2 Query SELECT Labs.LabName, COUNT(*),0 AS Mac FROM HardWare INNER JOIN Labs ON HardWare.LabID = Labs.LabID WHERE ComputerStatus = 'AVAILABLE' GROUP BY Labs.LabName UNION SELECT Labs.LabName, COUNT(*), (SELECT COUNT(Manufacturer)) AS Mac FROM HardWare INNER JOIN Labs ON HardWare.LabID = Labs.LabID WHERE ComputerStatus = 'AVAILABLE' AND Manufacturer = 'Apple' GROUP BY Labs.LabName ORDER BY Labs.LabName So is there any way to get them together in one row as in Lab1 -- 5 / 2 or is there a different way to write the query? anything will be a big help, am pretty much stuck here. Cheers

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• Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

  - by TandemAdam

  I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

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• python add two list and createing a new list

  - by Adam G.

  lst1 = ['company1,AAA,7381.0 ', 'company1,BBB,-8333.0 ', 'company1,CCC, 3079.999 ', 'company1,DDD,5699.0 ', 'company1,EEE,1640.0 ', 'company1,FFF,-600.0 ', 'company1,GGG,3822.0 ', 'company1,HHH,-600.0 ', 'company1,JJJ,-4631.0 ', 'company1,KKK,-400.0 '] lst2 =['company1,AAA,-4805.0 ', 'company1,ZZZ,-2576.0 ', 'company1,BBB,1674.0 ', 'company1,CCC,3600.0 ', 'company1,DDD,1743.998 '] output I need == ['company1,AAA,2576.0','company1,ZZZ,-2576.0 ','company1,KKK,-400.0 ' etc etc] I need to add it similar product number in each list and move it to a new list. I also need any symbol not being added together to be added to that new list. I am having problems with moving through each list. This is what I have: h = [] z = [] a = [] for g in hhl: spl1 = g.split(",") h.append(spl1[1]) for j in c_hhl: spl2 = j.split(",") **if spl2[1] in h: converted_num =(float(spl2[2]) +float(spl1[2])) pos=('{0},{1},{2}'.format(spl2[0],spl2[1],converted_num)) z.append(pos)** else: pos=('{0},{1},{2}'.format(spl2[0],spl2[1],spl2[2])) z.append(pos) for f in z: spl3 = f.split(",") a.append(spl3[1]) for n in hhl[:]: spl4 = n.split(",") if spl4[1] in a: got = (spl4[0],spl4[1],spl4[2]) hhl.remove(n) smash = hhl+z #for i in smash: for i in smash: print(i) I am having problem iterating through the list to make sure I get all of the simliar product to a new list,(bold) and any product not in list 1 but in lst2 to the new list and vice versa. I am sure there is a much easier way.

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• Mysql Database Question about Large Columns

  - by murat

  Hi, I have a table that has 100.000 rows, and soon it will be doubled. The size of the database is currently 5 gb and most of them goes to one particular column, which is a text column for PDF files. We expect to have 20-30 GB or maybe 50 gb database after couple of month and this system will be used frequently. I have couple of questions regarding with this setup 1-) We are using innodb on every table, including users table etc. Is it better to use myisam on this table, where we store text version of the PDF files? (from memory usage /performance perspective) 2-) We use Sphinx for searching, however the data must be retrieved for highlighting. Highlighting is done via sphinx API but still we need to retrieve 10 rows in order to send it to Sphinx again. This 10 rows may allocate 50 mb memory, which is quite large. So I am planning to split these PDF files into chunks of 5 pages in the database, so these 100.000 rows will be around 3-4 million rows and couple of month later, instead of having 300.000-350.000 rows, we'll have 10 million rows to store text version of these PDF files. However, we will retrieve less pages, so again instead of retrieving 400 pages to send Sphinx for highlighting, we can retrieve 5 pages and it will have a big impact on the performance. Currently, when we search a term and retrieve PDF files that have more than 100 pages, the execution time is 0.3-0.35 seconds, however if we retrieve PDF files that have less than 5 pages, the execution time reduces to 0.06 seconds, and it also uses less memory. Do you think, this is a good trade-off? We will have million of rows instead of having 100k-200k rows but it will save memory and improve the performance. Is it a good approach to solve this problem and do you have any ideas how to overcome this problem? The text version of the data is used only for indexing and highlighting. So, we are very flexible. Thanks,

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• UTF8 charset, diacritical elements, conversion problems - and Zend Framework form escaping

  - by imanc

  Hey, I am writing a webapp in ZF and am having serious issues with UTF8. It's using multi lingual content through Zend Form and it seems that ZF heavily escapes all of these characters and basically just won't show a field if there's diacritical elements 'é' and if I use the HTML entity equivalent e.g. é it gets escaped so that the user will see 'é'. Zend Form allows for having non escaped data, but trying to use this is confusing, and it seems it'd need to be used all over the place. So, I have been told that if the page and the text is in UTF8, no conversion to htmlentities is required. Is this true? And if the last question is true, then how do I convert the source text to UTF8? I am comfortable setting up apache so that it sends a default UTF8 charset heading, and also adding the charset meta tag to the html, but doing this I am still getting messed up encoding. I have also tried opening the translation csv file in TextWrangler on OSX as UTF8, but it has done nothing. Thanks! L

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• Foreign/accented characters in sql query

  - by FromCanada

  I'm using Java and Spring's JdbcTemplate class to build an SQL query in Java that queries a Postgres database. However, I'm having trouble executing queries that contain foreign/accented characters. For example the (trimmed) code: JdbcTemplate select = new JdbcTemplate( postgresDatabase ); String query = "SELECT id FROM province WHERE name = 'Ontario';"; Integer id = select.queryForObject( query, Integer.class ); will retrieve the province id, but if instead I did name = 'Québec' then the query fails to return any results (this value is in the database so the problem isn't that it's missing). I believe the source of the problem is that the database I am required to use has the default client encoding set to SQL_ASCII, which according to this prevents automatic character set conversions. (The Java environments encoding is set to 'UTF-8' while I'm told the database uses 'LATIN1' / 'ISO-8859-1') I was able to manually indicate the encoding when the resultSets contained values with foreign characters as a solution to a previous problem with a similar nature. Ex: String provinceName = new String ( resultSet.getBytes( "name" ), "ISO-8859-1" ); But now that the foreign characters are part of the query itself this approach hasn't been successful. (I suppose since the query has to be saved in a String before being executed anyway, breaking it down into bytes and then changing the encoding only muddles the characters further.) Is there a way around this without having to change the properties of the database or reconstruct it? PostScript: I found this function on StackOverflow when making up a title, it didn't seem to work (I might not have used it correctly, but even if it did work it doesn't seem like it could be the best solution.):

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• asp.net mvc: What is the correct way to return html from controller to refresh select list?

  - by Mark Redman

  Hi, I am new to ASP.NET MVC, particularly ajax operations. I have a form with a jquery dialog for adding items to a drop-down list. This posts to the controller action. If nothing (ie void method) is returned from the Controller Action the page returns having updated the database, but obviously there no chnage to the form. What would be the best practice in updating the drop down list with the added id/value and selecting the item. I think my options are: 1) Construct and return the html manually that makes up the new <select> tag [this would be easy enough and work, but seems like I am missing something] 2) Use some kind of "helper" to construct the new html [This seems to make sense] 3) Only return the id/value and add this to the list and select the item [This seems like an overkill considering the item needs to be placed in the correct order etc] 4) Use some kind of Partial View [Does this mean creating additional forms within ascx controls? not sure how this would effect submitting the main form its on? Also unless this is reusable by passing in parameters(not sure how thats done) maybe 2 is the option?] UPDATE: Having looked around a bit, it seems that generating html withing the controller is not a good idea. I have seen other posts that render partialviews to strings which I guess is what I need and separates concerns (since the html bits are in the ascx). Any comments on whether that is good practice.

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