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  • Nhibernate get collection by ICriteria

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at getting my entity. MApping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> </class> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } I want get query such as SELECT * FROM sales s INNER JOIN sales_users su on su.sales_id=s.id WHERE su.user_id=:N How can i do this through ICriterion object? Thanks a lot.

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  • Trying to access a specific option value to generate a popup window

    - by Isaac
    I am trying to use a click event to generate a popup window based off of the specific value chosen. I am having trouble with the if statement and trying to access each specific option value. Can any of you give me some hints? <select id="offices"> <option value="Choose an Office">Choose an Office</option> <option value="Residential Education (ResEd)" >Residential Education (ResEd)</option> <option value="Dean of Students">Dean of Students</option> <option value="Office of Student Affairs">Office of Student Affairs</option> <option value="Vice-Provost of Student Affairs">Vice-Provost of Student Affairs</option> </select> </div> function display(){ var officearray = [{ Office: "Residential Education (ResEd)", ID: "725-2800", Description: "The Office of Residential Education is responsible for developing the policies, programs, and staffing which support the intellectual, educational, and community-building activities in student residences. Second Floor. " }, { Office: "Dean of Students", ID: "723-7833", Description: "The Dean of Students office is composed of 13 individual administrative units that are concerned with the general welfare of both undergraduate and graduate students, in and out of the classroom. Second floor." }, { Office: "Office of Student Activities (OSA)", ID: "723-2733", Description: "Services for student organizations, student-initiated major events and programs, and fraternities and sororities. Second floor." }, { Office: "Vice-Provost of Student Affairs", ID: "725-0911", Description: "The Vice Provost for Student Affairs is responsible to the Provost for providing services and programs to undergraduate and graduate students in support of the academic mission of the University. Second floor." }] for(var i = 0; i < officearray.length; i++) { var o = document.getElementById("offices") var oString = o.options[o.selectedIndex].value; newwindow2 = window.open('', 'name', 'height=200, width=150') var tmp = newwindow2.document if (oString == officearray[i].Office) { tmp.writeln(officearray[i].Description) } } } document.getElementsByTagName('option').addEventListener("click",display,false)

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  • Hibernate ScrollableResults Do Not Return The Whole Set of Results

    - by mlaverd
    Some of the queries we run have 100'000+ results and it takes forever to load them and then send them to the client. So I'm using ScrollableResults to have a paged results feature. But we're topping at roughly 50k results (never exactly the same amount of results). I'm on an Oracle9i database, using the Oracle 10 drivers and Hibernate is configured to use the Oracle9 dialect. I tried with the latest JDBC driver (ojdbc6.jar) and the problem was reproduced. We also followed some advice and added an ordering clause, but the problem was reproduced. Here is a code snippet that illustrates what we do: Criteria crit = sess.createCriteria(ABC.class); crit.add(Restrictions.eq("property", value)); crit.setFetchSize(pageSize); crit.addOrder(Order.asc("property")); ScrollableResults sr = crit.scroll(); ... ... do{ for (Object entry : page) sess.evict(entry); //to avoid having our memory just explode out of proportion page.clear(); for (int i =0 ; i < pageSize && ! metLastRow; i++){ if (resultSet.next()) page.add(sr.get(0)); else metLastRow = true; } metLastRow = metLastRow?metLastRow:sr.isLast(); sendToClient(page); }while(!metLastRow); So, why is it that I get the result set to tell me its at the end when it should be having so much more results?

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  • What is the behavior of a WPF 4 ControlStoryboardAction trigger?

    - by jonathan_ou
    Hi all! I have a question that's been bugging me for a while: I have a lengthy IO operation which I invoke asynchronously, and I want my UI to show a blinking text to tell the users that the data is loading. I have an IsLoading boolean property in my ViewModel, and I used a ControlStoryboardAction to kickoff the blinking animation, which is set to repeat forever. For my ControlStoryboardAction trigger, I configured a data trigger to see if IsLoading is true, and start my storyboard if true. My problem is, when my IO operation returns, and I set IsLoading back to false, the animation continues to play. I thought once the trigger condition evaluated to false, it would stop the animation? I then added a second ControlStoryboardAction to stop the animation if IsLoading evaluted to false, but this didn't have any effect. The animation continued to play after IsLoading was false. Can anyone explain to me how trigger works in ControlStoryboardAction? In normal data triggers in WPF, once the condition evaluated to false, the property would be set back to its original state. It seems triggers in WPF actions don't work the same way? Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Application connection with database persist after sucessfull transaction also.

    - by anupam3m
    Hi , I am using Spring.Data.NHibernate12 on my database level.my application connection with database is not getting released. Underneath given is Dataconfiguration.xml < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ? < objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net" xmlns:db="http://www.springframework.net/database" < object id="AuditLogger" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit.AuditLogger, Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit" singleton="false" < property name="CacheSettings" ref="CacheSettings"/ < /object < object id="CacheSettings" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities.UpdateEntityCacheHelper, Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities" singleton="false"/ < object type="Spring.Objects.Factory.Config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer, Spring.Core" < <property name="ConfigSections" value="databaseSettings"/> < < db:provider id="AMACDbProvider" provider="OracleClient-2.0" connectionString="Data Source=RISCODEVDB;User ID=amsbvt; Password=amsuser1234;"/ Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.Mapping Risco.Rsp.Ac.Logging.Appenders Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMappings --

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  • Strange ng-model behavior inside ng-repeat

    - by Mike Fisher
    I'm trying to build up a complex post request to run a report in my Angular app. I have a list of inputs all dynamically generated via an ng-repeat a simple version of my html looks like this. <div ng-repeat="filter in lists.filters"> <input type="checkbox" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['type']/> <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> </div> ng-repeat is looping over this array [ {name: 'Advertisers', value: 'advertisers'}, {name: 'Sizes', value: 'sizes'}, {name: 'Campaign IDs', value: 'campaigns'}, {name: 'Creative IDs', value: 'creatives'}, {name: 'Publishers', value: 'publishers'}, {name: 'Placement IDs', value: 'placements'}, {name: 'Seller Types', value: 'seller_types'}, {name: 'Impression Types', value: 'impression_types'}, {name: 'Bid Types', value: 'bid_types'}, {name: 'Seller Members', value: 'seller_members'}, {name: 'Buyer Members', value: 'buyer_members'}, {name: 'Insertion Order Ids', value: 'insertion_orders'}, {name: 'Countries', value: 'countries'}, {name: 'Site Ids', value: 'sites'}, {name: 'Sources', value: 'sources'} ]; The JSON I'm sending back needs to be structured like this: "filters": { "state": "all", "campaigns": {type:"include", values":[1,2]}, "creatives": {type:"exclude","values":[1,2]}, "publishers": {"values":[1,2]}, "placements": {type:"exclude",values":[1,2]}, "advertisers": {"values":[1,2]}, "sizes": {"values":[1,2]}, "countries": {"values":[1,2]}, "insertion_orders": {"values":[1,2]}, "sites": {"values":[1,2]}, "bid_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "impression_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "buyer_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "sources": {"values":[1,2]} } When I do this Angular throws an error: 'Cannot set property 'values' of undefined' and 'Cannot set property 'type' of undefined' Yet if I do this (inside ng-repeat) <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]/> Or this outside of ng-repeat <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> No errors are thrown and everything works fine. I'm positive that filter.value is defined and available on the scope even though Angular thinks it's not for some reason. I'm not quite sure what I'm doing wrong. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Issue with CAAnimation and CALayer Transforms

    - by Brian
    I have a CALayer that I want to animate across the screen. I have created two methods: one slide open the layer and one to slide close. These both work by assigning a property to the layer's transform property. Now I want to use a CAKeyFrameAnimation to slide open the layer. I got this working so the layer slides open, but now I can't slide the layer close using my old method. I am trying to figure out why this is. Any help would be great. Code: - (id)init { if( self = [super init] ) { bIsOpen = NO; closeTransform = self.transform; openTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(-235.0, 0.0, 0.0); } return self; } - (void)closeMenu { if( bIsOpen ) { self.transform = closeTransform; bIsOpen = !bIsOpen; } } - (void)openMenu { if( !bIsOpen ) { CAKeyframeAnimation *closeAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform"]; closeAnimation.duration = 1.0; closeAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; closeAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; closeAnimation.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:closeTransform],[NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:openTransform],nil]; closeAnimation.timingFunctions = [NSArray arrayWithObject:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]]; [self addAnimation:closeAnimation forKey:@"transform"]; bIsOpen = !bIsOpen; } }

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  • Correct method to search for AD user by email address from .NET

    - by BrianLy
    I'm having some issues with code that is intended to find a user in Active Directory by searching on their email address. I have tried 2 methods but I'm sometimes finding that the FindOne() method will not return any results on some occasions. If I look up the user in the GAL in Outlook I see the SMTP email address listed. My end goal is to confirm that the user exists in AD. I only have the email address as search criteria, so no way to use first or last name. Method 1: Using mail property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(mail=" + email + ")"; search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); Method 2: proxyAddresses property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(proxyAddresses=SMTP:" + email + ")"; // I've also tried with =smtp: search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); I've tried changing the case of the email address input but it still does not return a result. Is there a problem here with case sensitivity? If so, what is the best way to resolve it?

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  • How to find that Mutex in C# is acquired?

    - by TN
    How can I find from mutex handle in C# that a mutex is acquired? When mutex.WaitOne(timeout) timeouts, it returns false. However, how can I find that from the mutex handle? (Maybe using p/invoke.) UPDATE: public class InterProcessLock : IDisposable { readonly Mutex mutex; public bool IsAcquired { get; private set; } public InterProcessLock(string name, TimeSpan timeout) { bool created; var security = new MutexSecurity(); security.AddAccessRule(new MutexAccessRule(new SecurityIdentifier(WellKnownSidType.WorldSid, null), MutexRights.Synchronize | MutexRights.Modify, AccessControlType.Allow)); mutex = new Mutex(false, name, out created, security); IsAcquired = mutex.WaitOne(timeout); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { if (IsAcquired) mutex.ReleaseMutex(); } #endregion } Currently, I am using my own property IsAcquired to determine whether I should release a mutex. Not essential but clearer, would be not to use a secondary copy of the information represented by IsAcquired property, but rather to ask directly the mutex whether it is acquired by me. Since calling mutex.ReleaseMutex() throws an exception if it is not acquired by me. (By acquired state I mean that the mutex is in not-signaled state when I am owning the mutex.)

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  • WPF - Setting ComboBox.SelectedItem in XAML based on matching object

    - by Andy T
    Hi, so, I have templated combobox that is basically acting as a simple colour palette. It is populated with a list of SolidColorBrush objects. Fine. Now, I have some data that holds the hex value of the current colour. I have a converter that converts the hex into a SolidColorBrush. Also fine. Now, I want to set the SelectedItem property of the combobox based on the colour from my datasource. Since my combo is populated with objects of type SolidColourBrush, and my binding converter is returning a SolidColorBrush, I assumed it would be as simple as saying: SelectedItem="{Binding Color, Converter={StaticResource StringToBrush}}" However... it doesn't work :( I've tested that the binding is working behind the scenes by using the exact same value for the Background property of the combobox. It works fine. So, clearly I can't just say SelectedItem = [something] where that [something] is basically an object equal to the item I want to be selected. What is the right way to do this? Surely it's possible in a XAML-only styley using binding, and I don't have to do some nasty C# iterating through all items in the combobox trying to find a match (that seems awfully old-school)...? Any help appreciated. Many thanks! AT

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  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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  • Maven webapp with Eclipse and WTP plugin deploy files in stranges ways in Tomcat

    - by hokkos
    Hi, I use Eclipse J2EE 3.5 with Maven and tomcat. To deploy my maven webapp with WTP I added a Dynamic Web Module facet and changed the "org.eclipse.wst.common.component" file of the project because the webapp is not in a WebContent directory, here is the content of the file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project-modules id="moduleCoreId" project-version="1.5.0"> <wb-module deploy-name="tkey-ca-web"> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="/src/main/webapp"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/WEB-INF/classes" source-path="/src/main/java"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/WEB-INF/classes" source-path="/src/main/resources"/> <property name="context-root" value="toto"/> <property name="java-output-path" value="/toto/target/classes"/> </wb-module> </project-modules> But it never deploy the content correctly, in "workspace.metadata.plugins\org.eclipse.wst.server.core\tmp1\wtpwebapps\toto\" the directory structure is correct with WEB-INF and META-INF but empty, the jsp, html, css files are in "workspace.metadata.plugins\org.eclipse.wst.server.core\tmp1\wtpwebapps\toto\WEB-INF\classes\" with another WEB-INF and META-INF structure but with the files. I don't understand this at all, thanks.

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  • How to serialize object containing NSData?

    - by AO
    I'm trying to serialize an object containing a number of data fields...where one of the fields is of datatype NSData which won't serialize. I've followed instructions at http://www.isolated.se but my code (see below) results in the error "[NSConcreteData data]: unrecognized selector sent to instance...". How do I serialize my object? Header file: @interface Donkey : NSObject<NSCoding> { NSString* s; NSData* d; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString* s; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSData* d; - (NSData*) serialize; @end Implementation file: @implementation Donkey @synthesize s, d; static NSString* const KEY_S = @"string"; static NSString* const KEY_D = @"data"; - (void) encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { [coder encodeObject:self.s forKey:KEY_S]; [coder encodeObject:self.d forKey:KEY_D]; } - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder; { if(self = [super init]) { self.s = [coder decodeObjectForKey:KEY_STRING]; self.d [coder decodeObjectForKey:KEY_DATA]; } return self; } - (NSData*) serialize { return [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:self]; } @end

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  • Duck type testing with C# 4 for dynamic objects.

    - by Tracker1
    I'm wanting to have a simple duck typing example in C# using dynamic objects. It would seem to me, that a dynamic object should have HasValue/HasProperty/HasMethod methods with a single string parameter for the name of the value, property, or method you are looking for before trying to run against it. I'm trying to avoid try/catch blocks, and deeper reflection if possible. It just seems to be a common practice for duck typing in dynamic languages (JS, Ruby, Python etc.) that is to test for a property/method before trying to use it, then falling back to a default, or throwing a controlled exception. The example below is basically what I want to accomplish. If the methods described above don't exist, does anyone have premade extension methods for dynamic that will do this? Example: In JavaScript I can test for a method on an object fairly easily. //JavaScript function quack(duck) { if (duck && typeof duck.quack === "function") { return duck.quack(); } return null; //nothing to return, not a duck } How would I do the same in C#? //C# 4 dynamic Quack(dynamic duck) { //how do I test that the duck is not null, //and has a quack method? //if it doesn't quack, return null }

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  • .net mvc pass dictionary data from view to controller

    - by Wei Ma
    A while ago, I was trying to pass a dictionary data from my view to my controller. And I was able to do so after googling on the net(remember it was one of scott hanselman's posts). The solution I had was something like <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Key"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Value"%>"/> <%}%> public ActionResult Process(IDictionary<string,string> properties) { doSomething(); return View(); } The code worked for awhile and then I did some refactoring and got rid of this chunk of code. Today, I ran into a situation in which I would like to pass a dictionary again. But no matter how hard I try, the properties parameter received by the action was always null. I tried the above code and <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Keys["+index+"]"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Values["+index+"]"%>"/> <%}%> Neither code worked. I googled again but couldn't find the post that helped me before. Can someone point out what I did wrong? thanks a million.

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  • iReport / jFreeChart - Combining getItemPaint() override and series colors

    - by barneskd
    I'm attempting to create a bar chart that needs to use specific series colors for N number of categories and a separate color for 1 other category. Here is an example: http://i.imgur.com/1DeCF.png (Sorry, I don't have enough points to embed images yet) In the mockup, Categories 1-3 use a collection of 5 colors to render their series while Category 4 uses a single grey color. My first approach was to override the getItemPaint() method using a customizer class, but I can only figure out how to define a color on the category level, not the series level. Is it possible to define colors on category and/or series levels? Something like, If category != "Category4" Use colors A, B, C, D, and E in category's series Else Use color F in category's series Another thought I had was to combine iReport's Series Colors bar chart property and the getItemPaint() override; that way I could define the 5 colors to use in iReport and use the getItemPaint() override only in the case where the category equals "Category 4". So far I've had no luck combining the two; if the override is defined it overrides iReport's Series Color property.

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  • Show WPF tooltip on disabled item only

    - by DT
    Just wondering if it is possible to show a WPF on a disabled item ONLY (and not when the item is enabled). I would like to give the user a tooltip explaining why an item is currently disabled. I have an IValueConverter to invert the boolean IsEnabled property binding. But it doesn't seem to work in this situation. The tooltip is show both when the item is enabled and disabled. So is is possible to bind a tooltip.IsEnabled property exclusively to an item's own !IsEnabled? Pretty straightforward question I guess, but code example here anyway: public class BoolToOppositeBoolConverter : IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } #endregion } And the binding: <TabItem Header="Tab 2" Name="tabItem2" ToolTip="Not enabled in this situation." ToolTipService.ShowOnDisabled="True" ToolTipService.IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsEnabled, ElementName=tabItem2, Converter={StaticResource oppositeConverter}}"> <Label Content="Item content goes here" /> </TabItem> Thanks folks.

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  • Binding a WPF ComboBox to a different ItemsSource within a ListBox DataTemplate

    - by tjans
    I have a ListBox that contains a textbox and a combobox in its datatemplate: <ListBox Height="147" Margin="158,29,170,0" Name="PitcherListBox" VerticalAlignment="Top" ItemsSource="{Binding SomeCollectionOfObjects}" Background="Black"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBox Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding LocalArrayOfIntsProperty}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I want to bind the listbox to a collection of objects (which I've done successfully), but I want the combobox in the above datatemplate to have its itemssource set to a local property on the window (array of ints). I still want the combobox to have a two-way bind between its selected item and a property on the collection of objects... I have the following in code: PitcherListBox.DataContext = this; Basically in the end, I want the combobox within the listbox to have a different itemssource than the listbox itself. I can't seem to figure out how to change the ComboBox's ItemsSource in XAML. Can someone provide me some feedback? Thanks!

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  • Spring - How do you set Enum keys in a Map with annotations

    - by al nik
    Hi all, I've an Enum class public enum MyEnum{ ABC; } than my 'Mick' class has this property private Map<MyEnum, OtherObj> myMap; I've this spring xml configuration. <util:map id="myMap"> <entry key="ABC" value-ref="myObj" /> </util:map> <bean id="mick" class="com.x.Mick"> <property name="myMap" ref="myMap" /> </bean> and this is fine. I'd like to replace this xml configuration with Spring annotations. Do you have any idea on how to autowire the map? The problem here is that if I switch from xml config to the @Autowired annotation (on the myMap attribute of the Mick class) Spring is throwing this exception nested exception is org.springframework.beans.FatalBeanException: Key type [class com.MyEnum] of map [java.util.Map] must be assignable to [java.lang.String] Spring is no more able to recognize the string ABC as a MyEnum.ABC object. Any idea? Thanks

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  • Setting database-agnostic default column timestamp using Hibernate

    - by unsquared
    I'm working on a java project full of Hibernate (3.3.1) mapping files that have the following sort of declaration for most domain objects. <property name="dateCreated" generated="insert"> <column name="date_created" default="getdate()" /> </property> The problem here is that getdate() is an MSSQL specific function, and when I'm using something like H2 to test subsections of the project, H2 screams that getdate() isn't a recognized function. It's own timestamping function is current_timestamp(). I'd like to be able to keep working with H2 for testing, and wanted to know whether there was a way of telling Hibernate "use this database's own mechanism for retrieving the current timestamp". With H2, I've come up with the following solution. CREATE ALIAS getdate AS $$ java.util.Date now() { return new java.util.Date(); } $$; CALL getdate(); It works, but is obviously H2 specific. I've tried extending H2Dialect and registering the function getdate(), but that doesn't seem to be invoked when Hibernate is creating tables. Is it possible to abstract the idea of a default timestamp away from the specific database engine?

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  • How to make designer generated .Net application settings portable

    - by Ville Koskinen
    Hello, I've been looking at modifying the source of the Doppler podcast aggregator with the goal of being able to run the program directly from my mp3 player. Doppler stores application settings using a Visual Studio designer generated Settings class, which by default serializes user settings to the user's home directory. I'd like to change this so that all settings would be stored in the same directory as the exe. It seems that this would be possible by creating a custom provider class which inherits the SettingsProvider class. Has anyone created such a provider and would like to share code? Update: I was able to get a custom settings provider nearly working by using this MSDN sample, i.e. with simple inheritance. I was initially confused as Windows Forms designer stopped working until I did this trick suggested at Codeproject: internal sealed partial class Settings { private MySettingsProvider settingsprovider = new MySettingsProvider(); public Settings() { foreach (SettingsProperty property in this.Properties) { property.Provider = settingsprovider; } ... The program still starts with window size 0;0 though. Anyone with any insight to this? Why the need to assing the provider in runtime---instead of using attributes as suggested by MSDN? Why the changes in how the default settings are passed to the application with the default settings provider vs. the custom one?

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  • WPF not applying default styles defined in MergedDictionaries?

    - by Burgberger
    In a WPF application I defined default control styles in separate resource dictionaries (e.g. "ButtonStyle.xaml"), and added them as merged dictionaries to a resource dictionary named "ResDictionary.xaml". If I refer this "ResDictionary.xaml" as merged dictionary in my App.xaml, the default styles are not applied. However, if I refer the "ButtonStyle.xaml", it works correctly. If I recompile the same code in .NET 3.5 or 3.0, it recognizes and applies the default styles referred in "App.xaml" through "ResDictionary.xaml", but not in .NET 4.0. At runtime if I check the Application.Current.Resources dictionary, the default styles are there, but they are not applied, only if I specify the Style property explicitly in the Button control. Are there any solutions to refer a resource dictionary (containig default styles) this way in .NET 4.0? App.xaml: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles/ResDictionary.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> ResDictionary.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Default/ButtonStyle.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> ButtonStyle.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Yellow"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary>

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  • Storing arrays in NSUserDefaultsController

    - by neoneye
    Currently I use NSUserDefaults and I'm interested in using NSUserDefaultsController, so that I get notifications when things change. Below is my current code. items = /* NSArray of MYItem's */; NSData* data = [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:items]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject:data forKey:kMYItems]; How should I rework my code to store items in NSUserDefaultsController ? Is NSKeyedArchiver the smartest way to store arrays? @interface MYItem : NSObject <NSCoding> { NSString* name; NSString* path; } @property (copy) NSString* name; @property (copy) NSString* path; @end @implementation MYItem @synthesize name, path; -(void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { [coder encodeObject:name forKey:@"name"]; [coder encodeObject:path forKey:@"path"]; } -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { [super init]; [self setName:[coder decodeObjectForKey:@"name"]]; [self setPath:[coder decodeObjectForKey:@"path"]]; return self; } @end

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  • Does WPF break an Entity Framework ObjectContext?

    - by David Veeneman
    I am getting started with Entity Framework 4, and I am getting ready to write a WPF demo app to learn EF4 better. My LINQ queries return IQueryable<T>, and I know I can drop those into an ObservableCollection<T> with the following code: IQueryable<Foo> fooList = from f in Foo orderby f.Title select f; var observableFooList = new ObservableCollection<Foo>(fooList); At that point, I can set the appropriate property on my view model to the observable collection, and I will get WPF data binding between the view and the view model property. Here is my question: Do I break the ObjectContext when I move my foo list to the observable collection? Or put another way, assuming I am otherwise handling my ObjectContext properly, will EF4 properly update the model (and the database)? The reason why I ask is this: NHibernate tracks objects at the collection level. If I move an NHibernate IList<T> to an observable collection, it breaks NHibernate's change tracking mechanism. That means I have to do some very complicated object wrapping to get NHibernate to work with WPF. I am looking at EF4 as a way to dispense with all that. So, to get EF4 working with WPF, is it as simple as dropping my IQueryable<T> results into an ObservableCollection<T>. Does that preserve change-tracking on my EDM entity objects? Thanks for your help.

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  • Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

    - by James
    Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

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