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  • wxpython: Updating a dict or other appropriate data type from wx.lib.sheet.CSheet object

    - by bvmou
    If I have a notebook with three spreadsheet widgets, what is the best way to have changes to the spreadsheet update a dictionary (or maybe an sqlite file?). Do all wx grid objects come with a built in dictionary related to the SetNumberRows and SetNumberCols? Basically I am looking for guidance on how to work with the user-input data from a spreadsheet widget, as in this example adapted from the tutorial on python.org: class ExSheet(wx.lib.sheet.CSheet): def __init__(self, parent): sheet.CSheet.__init__(self, parent) self.SetLabelBackgroundColour('#CCFF66') self.SetNumberRows(50) self.SetNumberCols(50) class Notebook(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, parent, id, title): wx.Frame.__init__(self, parent, id, title) nb = wx.Notebook(self, -1, style=wx.NB_BOTTOM) self.sheet1 = ExSheet(nb) self.sheet2 = ExSheet(nb) self.sheet3 = ExSheet(nb) nb.AddPage(self.sheet1, "Sheet1") nb.AddPage(self.sheet2, "Sheet2") nb.AddPage(self.sheet3, "Sheet3") self.sheet1.SetFocus() self.StatusBar()

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  • how to save django object using dictionary?

    - by shahjapan
    is there a way that I can save the model by using dictionary for e.g. this is working fine, p1 = Poll.objects.get(pk=1) p1.name = 'poll2' p1.descirption = 'poll2 description' p1.save() but what if I have dictionary like { 'name': 'poll2', 'description: 'poll2 description' } is there a simple way to save the such dictionary direct to Poll

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  • Object-oriented GUI development in python

    - by ptabatt
    Hey guys, new programmer here. I have an assignment for class and I'm stuck... What I need to do is a create a GUI that gives someone a basic arithmetic problem in one box, asks the person to answer it, evaluates it, and tells you if you're right or wrong... Basically, what I have is this: [code] class Lesson(Frame): def init (self, parent=None): Frame.init(self, parent) self.pack() Lesson.make_widgets(self) def make_widgets(self): Label(self, text="").pack(side=TOP) ent = Entry(self) self.a = randrange(1,10) self.b = randrange(1,10) self.expr = choice(["+","-"]) ent.insert(END, str(self.a) + str(self.expr) + str(self.a)) [/code] I've broken this down into many little steps and basically, what I'm trying to do right now is insert a default random expression into the first entry widget. When I run this code, I just get a blank Label. Why is that? How can I put a something like "7+7" into the box? If you absolutely need background to the problem, it's question #3 on this link. http://reed.cs.depaul.edu/lperkovic/csc242/homeworks/Homework8.html -Thanks for all help in advance.

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  • xml conversion to Object c#

    - by Moony
    If i have an xml of the form Value1 Value2 ... And i define a class in my c# code for Detail and provide setters/getters for Name1, Name2 etc is there an api to directly read the xml and create Detail objects.

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  • Importing into a Exported object with MEF

    - by Nathan W
    I'm sorry if this question has already been asked 100 times, but I'm really struggling to get it to work. Say I have have three projects. Core.dll Has common interfaces Shell.exe Loads all modules in assembly folder. References Core.dll ModuleA.dll Exports Name, Version of module. References Core.dll Shell.exe has a [Export] that contains an single instance of a third party application that I need to inject into all loaded modules. So far the code that I have in Shell.exe is: static void Main(string[] args) { ThirdPartyApp map = new ThirdPartyApp(); var ad = new AssemblyCatalog(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); var dircatalog = new DirectoryCatalog("."); var a = new AggregateCatalog(dircatalog, ad); // Not to sure what to do here. } class Test { [Export(typeof(ThirdPartyApp))] public ThirdPartyApp Instance { get; set; } [Import(typeof(IModule))] public IModule Module { get; set; } } I need to create a instance of Test, and load Instance with map from the Main method then load the Module from ModuleA.dll that is in the executing directory then [Import] Instance into the loaded module. In ModuleA I have a class like this: [Export(IModule)] class Module : IModule { [Import(ThirdPartyApp)] public ThirdPartyApp Instance {get;set;} } I know I'm half way there I just don't know how to put it all together, mainly with loading up test with a instance of map from Main. Could anyone help me with this.

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  • Memorystream and Large Object Heap

    - by Flo
    I have to transfer large files between computers on via unreliable connections using WCF. Because I want to be able to resume the file and I don't want to be limited in my filesize by WCF, I am chunking the files into 1MB pieces. These "chunk" are transported as stream. Which works quite nice, so far. My steps are: open filestream read chunk from file into byet[] and create memorystream transfer chunk back to 2. until the whole file is sent My problem is in step 2. I assume that when I create a memory stream from a byte array, it will end up on the LOH and ultimately cause an outofmemory exception. I could not actually create this error, maybe I am wrong in my assumption. Now, I don't want to send the byte[] in the message, as WCF will tell me the array size is too big. I can change the max allowed array size and/or the size of my chunk, but I hope there is another solution. My actual question(s): Will my current solution create objects on the LOH and will that cause me problem? Is there a better way to solve this? Btw.: On the receiving side I simple read smaller chunks from the arriving stream and write them directly into the file, so no large byte arrays involved.

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  • XSLT: generate multiple object by incrementing attribute and value

    - by Daniel
    Hi, I have a xml as below that I'd like to copy n times while incrementing one of its element and one of its attribute. XML input: <Person position=1> <name>John</name> <number>1</number> <number>1</number> </Person> and I'd like something like below with the number of increment to be a variable. XML output: <Person position=1> <name>John</name> <number>1</number> </Person> <Person position=2> <name>John</name> <number>2</number> </Person> .... <Person position=n> <name>John</name> <number>n</number> </Person> Any clue

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  • Fluent NHibernate - Delete a related object when no explicit relationship exists in the model

    - by John Price
    I've got an application that keeps track of (for the sake of an example) what drinks are available at a given restaurant. My domain model looks like: class Restaurant { public IEnumerable<RestaurantDrink> GetRestaurantDrinks() { ... } //other various properties } class RestaurantDrink { public Restaurant Restaurant { get; set; } public Drink { get; set; } public string DrinkVariety { get; set; } //"fountain drink", "bottled", etc. //other various properties } class Drink { public string Name { get; set; } public string Manufacturer { get; set; } //other various properties } My db schema is (I hope) about what you'd expect; "RestaurantDrinks" is essentially a mapping table between Restaurants and Drinks with some extra properties (like "DrinkVariety" tacked on). Using Fluent NHibernate to set up mappings, I've set up a "HasMany" relationship from Restaurants to RestaurantDrinks that causes the latter to be deleted when its parent Restaurant is deleted. My question is, given that "Drink" does not have any property on it that explicitly references RestaurantDrinks (the relationship only exists in the underlying database), can I set up a mapping that will cause RestaurantDrinks to be deleted if their associated Drink is deleted?

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  • regarding setup (object file)

    - by asha
    i have made a firewall project in c language on linux operating system ,now i want to know how to make set of this project so that i can run this application on other system by installing it ?

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  • WCF wrapper COM object

    - by LarryR
    I have a third party COM component (they don't offer a .Net assy), that has the additional feature that it only works under x86 compile. I am trying to wrap this in a WCF service, but if I select x86, the service won't start (System.BadImageFormatException). Any workarounds for this ? Thanks Larry

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  • Rails 3 NameError (cannot remove Object::Version) error

    - by Jeff D
    Can anyone point me at what might be causing this error? There is no ApplicationTrace, and it locks the server hard on my development machine. I think it has something to do with the way rails reloads your classes in development mode, and it appears to have something to do with a Version constant. I can't find a reference to this though. Can anyone point me in the direction of what would cause this? activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `remove_const' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `remove_constant' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `instance_eval' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `remove_constant' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `remove_unloadable_constants!' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `each' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `remove_unloadable_constants!' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:317:in `clear' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application/bootstrap.rb:60:in `_callback_after_7' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/callbacks.rb:419:in `_run_call_callbacks' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/callbacks.rb:44:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/sendfile.rb:107:in `call' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/remote_ip.rb:48:in `call' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/show_exceptions.rb:46:in `call' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/rack/logger.rb:13:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/runtime.rb:17:in `call' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/cache/strategy/local_cache.rb:72:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/lock.rb:11:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/lock.rb:11:in `synchronize' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/lock.rb:11:in `call' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/static.rb:30:in `call' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application.rb:168:in `call' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application.rb:77:in `send' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application.rb:77:in `method_missing' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/rack/log_tailer.rb:14:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/content_length.rb:13:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/handler/webrick.rb:52:in `service' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:104:in `service' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:65:in `run' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:173:in `start_thread' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start_thread' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:95:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `each' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:23:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:82:in `start' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/handler/webrick.rb:13:in `run' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/server.rb:213:in `start' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands/server.rb:65:in `start' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands.rb:30 railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands.rb:27:in `tap' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands.rb:27 script/rails:6:in `require' script/rails:6

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  • How to get if the object already retrieved in inject

    - by zerkms
    Is it possible to know that particular dependency already has been satisfied by ninject kernel? To be clear: Let's suppose we have this module: Bind<IA>().To<A>(); Bind<IB>().To<B>(); And some "client"-code: var a = kernel.Get<IA>(); // how to get here "true" for assumption: "IA was requested (once)" // and "false" for: "IB was not requested ever"

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  • Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

    - by Andrew
    I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

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  • PHP form post, automatically mapping to an object (model binding)

    - by Pete Nelson
    I do a lot of ASP.NET MVC 2 development, but I'm tackling a small project at work and it needs to be done in PHP. Is there anything built-in to PHP to do model binding, mapping form post fields to a class? Some of my PHP code currently looks like this: class EntryForm { public $FirstName = ""; public $LastName = ""; } $EntryForm = new EntryForm(); if ($_POST && $_POST["Submit"] == "Submit") { $EntryForm->FirstName = trim($_POST["FirstName"]); $EntryForm->LastName = trim($_POST["LastName"]); } Is there anything built-in to a typical PHP install that would do such mapping like you'd find in ASP.NET MVC, or does it require an additional framework?

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  • Python ZSI : error while serializing an object ?

    - by KaluSingh Gabbar
    this is the code, I get error that it can not serialize reference (sumReq) sumReqClass = GED("http://www.some-service.com/sample", "getSumRequest").pyclass sumReq = sumReqClass() rq = GetSumSoapIn() sum._sumReqObj = sumReq rs=proxy.GetSum(rq, soapheaders=[credentials]) I get error : TypeError: bad usage, failed to serialize element reference (http://www.some-service.com/sample, getSumRequest), in: /SOAP-ENV:Body

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  • how to insert the correct activex object in a MFC dialog

    - by kellogs
    More exactly, the web browser control. In a WM6 dialog based MFC project. This is driving me nuts. Mr Google does not know a thing on this matter. I have tried embedding the "Microsoft Webbrowser Control" in my dialog box but at runtime I get some class not register error. I have heard that this happens because "Microsoft Webbrowser Control" is the windows desktop control, not the windows mobile one. Otherwise, I find it quite hard to believe that this control is really not registered even on the emulator (if it really wasn't registered, PIE would not start). Anybody used the webbrowser engine in a WM(6) MFC applications ? Even a CLSID would help... Thank you

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  • Strange issues with view switcher after object animator animations

    - by Barry Irvine
    I have two LinearLayout views that contain a number of edit texts and checkboxes for entering user information (name, email address etc). When a validation fails on one of these fields a gone textview is displayed showing the validation error. I have enclosed the two layouts within a ViewSwitcher and I animate between the two views using the ObjectAnimator class. (Since the code needs to support older versions of Android I am actually using the nineoldandroids backwards compatibility library for this). The bulk of the work is performed in my switchToChild method. If I flip the views more than twice then I start to run into strange errors. Firstly although the correct child view of the view animator is displayed it seems that the other view has focus and I can click on the views beneath the current one. I resolved this issue by adding a viewSwitcher.bringChildToFront at the end of the first animation. When I do this however and perform a validation on the 2nd view the "gone" view that I have now set to visible is not displayed (as if the linearlayout is never being re-measured). Here is a subset of the XML file: <ScrollView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/TitleBar" android:scrollbarAlwaysDrawVerticalTrack="true" android:scrollbarStyle="outsideOverlay" android:scrollbars="vertical" > <ViewSwitcher android:id="@+id/switcher" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/page_1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="vertical" > <!-- Lots of subviews here --> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/page_2" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="vertical" > And this is the main method for flipping between the views: private void switchToChild(final int child) { final ViewSwitcher viewSwitcher = (ViewSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.switcher); if (viewSwitcher.getDisplayedChild() != child) { final Interpolator accelerator = new AccelerateInterpolator(); final Interpolator decelerator = new DecelerateInterpolator(); final View visibleView; final View invisibleView; switch (child) { case 0: visibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_2); invisibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_1); findViewById(R.id.next).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); findViewById(R.id.back).setVisibility(View.GONE); break; case 1: default: visibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_1); invisibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_2); findViewById(R.id.back).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); findViewById(R.id.next).setVisibility(View.GONE); break; } final ObjectAnimator visToInvis = ObjectAnimator.ofFloat(visibleView, "rotationY", 0f, 90f).setDuration(250); visToInvis.setInterpolator(accelerator); final ObjectAnimator invisToVis = ObjectAnimator.ofFloat(invisibleView, "rotationY", -90f, 0f).setDuration(250); invisToVis.setInterpolator(decelerator); visToInvis.addListener(new AnimatorListenerAdapter() { @Override public void onAnimationEnd(Animator anim) { viewSwitcher.showNext(); invisToVis.start(); viewSwitcher.bringChildToFront(invisibleView); // If I don't do this the old view can have focus } }); visToInvis.start(); } } Does anyone have any ideas? This is really confusing me!

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  • Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

    - by Shabbyrobe
    I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

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  • Getting Object allocation at UIBarButtons

    - by Rani
    Hi guys, I'm getting allocation at UIBarbutton that i added to toolbar. masterviewcontroller.h UIBarButtonItem *markReadItems; UIBarButtonItem *markUnReadItems; UIBarButtonItem *refreshItems masterviewcontroller.m -(id)init{ if(self = [super init]){ refreshItems = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemRefresh target:self action:@selector(refreshItems)]; markReadItems = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemAdd target:self action:@selector(markAllAsRead)]; markUnReadItems = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemStop target:self action:@selector(markAllAsUnRead)]; } return self; } -(UIToolbar*)getToolbar { NSArray *items = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:refreshItems,markReadItems,markUnReadItems,nil]; [__toolBar setItems:items animated:NO]; } - (void)dealloc { [refreshItems release]; [markReadItems release]; [markUnReadItems release]; } Can any one help me to solve this. Thanks in advance.

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  • Cannot access implict object from within method in custom JSP tag file

    - by David Hamilton
    I'm attempting to create a custom jsp tag. Everything is working fine, except for the fact that I the request seems to be out-of-scope for my custom function. Here is the relevant bit from the .tag file: <%! private String process(String age, BigDecimal amount) { //Attempting to access request here results in an compile time error trying to: String url=request.getURL; } %> I'm very new to JSP so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious..but I can't seem to figure out what. Any help is appreciated.

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  • jquery animate from object center

    - by mtwallet
    Hi. I am trying to create a product viewer similar to the one at the bottom of this page http://www.logitech.com/en-gb/. As you can see the product animates from the center rather than top left which I think is Jquery's default. So what I am doing is trying animate the width and height and then also the offset to make it look like it animates from the center. My code looks like this: <style> body { background: black; } .box { background: #fff url('pic.jpg') no-repeat 0 0; width: 200px; height: 200px; margin: 10px 4%; float: left; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".box").hover(function() { $(".box").not(this).fadeTo(500, 0.5); $(this).animate({ width: 300, height: 300, left: -100, top: -100 }, 500); }, function() { $(this).animate({ width: 200, height: 200, left: 100, top: 100 }, 500); $(".box").fadeTo(500, 1); }); }); </script> I cannot seem to get this working as I want. Can anyone help with this or suggest a better technique? Many thanks

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