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  • Linux: Can I link multiple destinations via softlinks?

    - by kds1398
    Attempting to end up with something similar to this: $ ls -l lrwxrwxrwx 1 user group 4 Jun 28 2010 foo -> /home/bar lrwxrwxrwx 1 user group 4 Jun 29 2010 foo -> /etc/bar The intention is to be able to move a file to foo & have it go to both destination directories for now. The goal is to eventually unlink /home/bar link after confirming there are no issues with moving the files to /etc/bar. I am restricted in that I am unable to change or add to the process that moves the files.

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  • Sharing accounts between multiple computers running Ubuntu Linux

    - by john
    My school has a computer lab full of machines running Red Hat Linux. They have it set up so that you can log into any computer in the lab, and it automatically loads your desktop, home directory, etc, which makes it so all computers in the lab look the same to you, regardless or which one you're using. I have two computer at home running Ubuntu Linux. Could I do this same thing with my computers at home? What's it called, and how do I find documentation on how to set it up? Thanks!

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  • Request Multiple Maya Floating Server Licenses for extra Satellite clients

    - by Rob
    Hello all: I am currently setting up a 'render farm' for Maya 2008 Unlimited. One Maya workstation license comes with the ability to render on eight satellite nodes. It works perfect, the remote rendering works like a charm. However, we have additional boxes to set up as satellite rendering nodes, and we have extra Maya workstation licenses. Ideally, the workstation can take two licenses and thus render on 16 nodes, but I haven't been able to figure it out, or determine if it is actually possible. It's a big project, where rendering the entire thing is in the scope of weeks, so the speed up would be worth it. Any thoughts?

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  • Using True and False to select items to print

    - by user1753915
    I have a workbook that contains rows of information that needs to printed to a seperate worksheet in excel. I am trying to utilize a checkbox to indicate which items need to print and which items need to be skipped. The checkbox is located in column "A" and once checked and the macro ran, I want it to pick up the data in each cell of that particular row, transfer it a seperate worksheet (form), prompt and save the worksheet to pdf, clear the form, and then return to the main worksheet to continue until all rows have been checked. However, right now, my code is only looping through the very first "TRUE" statement and not continuing to the rest. Here is the code: Private Sub CommandButton1_Click() On Error GoTo ErrHandler: Dim i As Integer For i = 1 To 10 If ActiveSheet.OLEObjects("CheckBox" & i).Object.Value = False Then Else If ActiveSheet.OLEObjects("CheckBox" & i).Object.Value = True Then Call PrintWO Else End If Do Until ActiveSheet.OLEObjects("CheckBox" & i).Object.Value = 10 MsgBox "Nothing Selected to Print" Exit Do Exit Sub Loop End If Next i ErrHandler: End Sub

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  • R data frame select by global variable

    - by Matt
    I'm not sure how to do this without getting an error. Here is a simplified example of my problem. Say I have this data frame DF a b c d 1 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 3 4 5 6 Then I have a variable x <- min(c(1,2,3)) Now I want do do the following y <- DF[a == x] But when I try to refer to some variable like "x" I get an error because R is looking for a column "x" in my data frame. I get the "undefined columns selected" error How can I do what I am trying to do in R?

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  • Uploading multiple files asynchronously by blueimp jquery-fileupload

    - by Ryo
    I'm using jQuery File Upload library (http://github.com/blueimp/jQuery-File-Upload), and I've been stuck figuring out how to use the library satisfying the following conditions. The page has multiple file input fields surrounded by a form tag. Users can attach multiple files to each input field All files are sent to a server when the button is clicked, not when files are attached to the input fields. Upload is done asynchronously Say the page has 3 input fields with their name attributes being "file1[]", "file2[]" and "file3[]", the request payload should be like {file1: [ array of files on file1[] ], file2: [ array of files on file2[] ], ...} Here's jsFiddle, it's behaving weird so far in that it sends post request twice and the first one is cancelled. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/24/ The core part of js code looks like this. $(document).ready(function(){ var filesList = [] var elem = $("form") file_upload = elem.fileupload({ formData:{extra:1}, autoUpload: false, fileInput: $("input:file"), }).on("fileuploadadd", function(e, data){ filesList.push(data.files[0]) }); $("button").click(function(){ file_upload.fileupload('send', {files:filesList} ) }) }) Anybody have idea how to get this to work? Updates Now thanks to @CBroe 's comment, the issue that request is sent twice is fixed. However the keys of request parameter is not correctly set. Here's updated jsFiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/27/

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  • TCP Proxy with multiple clients?

    - by Daphna
    I am looking for a TCP proxy - a utility that will connect to a port, read a TCP stream, and write it to clients that connect to it. The key point here is that there may be more than one client, and each client should receive a copy of the stream. Preferably windows solution, but Linux can be useful as well.

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  • Single domain name potentially resolving to multiple servers

    - by Jace
    first time here at Server Fault, and I apologize in advance that this domain stuff is not really my strength. Any and all suggestions are much appreciated. I am completely lost and incredibly tired! I've inherited an incredibly convoluted system from my predecessor, and I'm trying to find a way to solve it - or I need to be told that it just isn't possible. I've got an old site on ServerA (some kind of Linux distribution), with the domain SomeDomain.com There is a new site sitting on ServerB (Ubuntu), with the intention of having SomeDomain.com to serve it in the future (it is replacing the old site) ServerA also has a web app that is currently in use by other departments within the company (accessible at SomeDomain.com/web-app/) The goal: To have SomeDomain.com and all extensions of this domain name (sub-domains, URL's etc.) serve the new site on ServerB. BUT, the URL SomeDomain.com/web-app/ must serve the Web App on ServerA. The Catch: The ServerA is a shared server with a hosting company with VERY limiting restrictions in place - I cannot adjust DNS settings (apart from Name servers - but cannot set A records or anything, I have full access to ServerB to do as I wish). Therefore the web-app MUST be served from SomeDomain.com/web-app/ and not from a sub-domain or anything. These limitations make migrating the web-app from Server A to Server B rather undesirable, AND this web-app will be replaced in the near future, so it isn't worth the effort right now. Therefore, ultimately I will want 1 domain name to resolve to Server B's IP address most of the time, but in the event that the URL is SomeDomain.com/web-app/, it should resolve to Server A's IP. Note: The domain names don't, technically, have to resolve to one IP or another - but ultimately the URL's must stay consistent Some things I have tried: I've looked into mod_rewrite and .htaccess to try and achieve this effect, but it doesn't look like it's going to work for me - but I may have done it wrong (On Server B, I just checked if the request URI was /web-app/ and tried to serve the /web-app/ folder on Server A) I do have the ability to modify the name servers on both servers I am not able to make a sub domain on Server A that points back to Server A (I assume because the hosting company's servers use the URL to determine what site the serve). I figured this could be good as I'd could set an A record on Server B to point to the web app on Server A - but alas, Server A requires SomeDomain.com. If there is any more information I can give, please let me know. I need a nudge in the right direction, ideas or a solution.

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  • Apache httpd VirtualHost config - multiple sites

    - by DaFoot
    [Advised to post here from StackExchange] I have a site to work on, because of the way the URLs are built the application seems to have been created on the assumption that it will be at the server root (only app). On my dev server I have other projects and up to now a simple symlink has been working for me, but that's not the case now because this new app wants to sit at the route and process all URLs arriving on :80. Hopefully this snippet from httpd.conf will help explain what I'm trying to acheive: # default for any not matched elsewhere <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName localhost DocumentRoot /var/www/html/newproject </VirtualHost> # now try to pick out specific URLs <VirtualHost localhost/webdev> DocumentRoot /var/www/html/existingProject ServerName localhost/project </VirtualHost> Also need to be able to get same affect from wherever I'm accessing the httpd instance from. Hope that makes sense.

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  • Multiple subdomains resolving to one domain?

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to host an application, but allow the customer to use their own sub domain so that it does not confuse their own customers. So for example, by application would run on app.mydomain.com, but my customer would access it via their own subdomain (app.somedomain.com and/or app.anotherdomain.com). Is this even possible? (Possibly relevant information: my application is hosted on media temple and uses Apache) Thanks!

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  • Load balancers, multiple data centers and url based routing

    - by kunkunur
    There is one data center - dc1. There is a business need to setup another data center - dc2 in another geography and there might be more in the future say dc3. Within the data center dc1: There are two web servers say WS1 and WS2. These two webservers do not share anything currently. There isnt any necessity foreseen to have more webservers within each dc. dc1 also has a local load balancer which has been setup with session stickiness. So if a user say u1 lands on dc1 and if the load balancer decides to route his first request to WS1 then from there on all u1's requests will get routed to WS1. Local load balancer and webservers are invisible to the user. Local load balancer listens to the traffic on a virtual ip which is assigned to the virtual cluster of webservers ws1 and ws2. Virtual ip is the ip to which the host name is resolved to in the DNS. There are no client specific subdomains as of now instead there is a client specific url(context). ex: www.example.com/client1 and www.example.com/client2. Given above when dc2 is onboarded I want to route the traffic between dc1 and dc2 based on the client. The options that I have found so far are. Have client specific subdomains e.g. client1.example.com and client2.example.com and assign each of them with the virtual ip of the data center to which I want to route them. or Assign www.example.com and www1.example.com to first dc i.e. dc1 and assign www2.example.com to dc2. All requests will first get routed to dc1 where WS1 and WS2 will redirect the user to www1.example.com or www2.example.com based on whether the url ends with /client1 or /client2. I need help in the following If I setup a global load balancer between dc1 and dc2 do I have any alternative solutions. That is, can a global load balancer route the traffic based on the url ? Are there drawbacks to subdomain based solutions compared to www1 solution? With www1 solution I am worried that it creates a dependency on dc1 atleast for the first request and the user will see that he is getting redirected to a different url.

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  • jQuery: select all DIV's nested under specific DIV

    - by Chris
    I have an architecture similar to this: <div id="container"> <div>stuff here</div> <div>stuff here</div> <div>stuff here</div> <div>stuff here</div> </div> I want to, using jQuery, hide the cursor when the mouse enters #container. However as the nested divs appear on top it doesn't quite work that way. How can I hide the mouse cursor when hovering over any of the divs within #container. Below is the cursor hiding code. $('#container').mouseover(function() { $(this).css({cursor: 'none'}); });

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  • How to select the most recent set of dated records from a mysql table

    - by Ken
    I am storing the response to various rpc calls in a mysql table with the following fields: Table: rpc_responses timestamp (date) method (varchar) id (varchar) response (mediumtext) PRIMARY KEY(timestamp,method,id) What is the best method of selecting the most recent responses for all existing combinations of method and id? For each date there can only be one response for a given method/id. Not all call combinations are necessarily present for a given date. There are dozens of methods, thousands of ids and at least 356 different dates Sample data: timestamp method id response 2009-01-10 getThud 16 "....." 2009-01-10 getFoo 12 "....." 2009-01-10 getBar 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getFoo 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getBar 16 "....." Desired result: 2009-01-10 getThud 16 "....." 2009-01-10 getBar 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getFoo 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getBar 16 "....." (I don't think this is the same question - it won't give me the most recent response)

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  • Javascript terminates after trying to select data from an object passed to a function

    - by Silmaril89
    Here is my javascript: $(document).ready(function(){ var queries = getUrlVars(); $.get("mail3.php", { listid: queries["listid"], mindex: queries["mindex"] }, showData, 'html'); }); function showData(data) { var response = $(data).find("#mailing").html(); if (response == null) { $("#results").html("<h3>Server didn't respond, try again.</h3>"); } else if (response.length) { var old = $("#results").html(); old = old + "<br /><h3>" + response + "</h3>"; $("#results").html(old); var words = response.split(' '); words[2] = words[2] * 1; words[4] = words[4] * 1; if (words[2] < words[4]) { var queries = getUrlVars(); $.get("mail3.php", { listid: queries["listid"], mindex: words[2] }, function(data){showData(data);}, 'html'); } else { var done = $(data).find("#done").html(); old = old + "<br />" + done; $("#results").html(old); } } else { $("#results").html("<h3>Server responded with an empty reply, try again.</h3>"); } } function getUrlVars() { var vars = [], hash; var hashes = window.location.href.slice(window.location.href.indexOf('?') + 1).split('&'); for (var i = 0; i < hashes.length; i++) { hash = hashes[i].split('='); vars.push(hash[0]); vars[hash[0]] = hash[1]; } return vars; } After the first line in showData: var response = $(data).find("#mailing").html(); the javascript stops. If I put an alert before it, the alert pops up, after it, it doesn't pop up. There must be something wrong with using $(data), but why? Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Save and restore multiple layers within a Photoshop action that flattens

    - by SuitCase
    I'm editing comic pages with layers - "background", "foreground", "lineart" and "over lineart". I have a Photoshop action that includes a Mode-Bitmap command, which requires the image to be flattened. I need this part of the action because I use the Halftone Screen method of reducing the greyscale image to bitmap on the "background" layer, creating a certain effect. I am pretty sure there is no filter or anything else that gives the same effect. After the mode is changed to bitmap, my action changes things back to greyscale for further changes. This poses a problem. I only want to do the bitmap mode change on the background layer, and after I do the change I want to restore the layer structure as it was - with the foreground, lineart and over lineart layers back above the now-halftoned background. My current method of saving these layers and restoring them is clumsy. My action is able to automatically save the "foreground" layer by selecting it, cutting it, then pasting it back in after the mode changing is over. But, for the "ink" and "over ink" layers, I have to manually cut these layers, paste them into a new document, and later re-cut and re-paste after running my action. This is so clunky! What I would like to know is if it's possible to set aside my layers in an automated way, and then bring them back in, also in an automated way. An ugly (but functional) solution would be to replicate my actions of creating new documents and pasting them temporarily there, but I don't think Photoshop allows you to do things outside of your current document with an action. It seems to me that the only way to do what I want is to use the "hack" of incorporating the clipboard into the action as a clever hack, but that leaves me stuck as I have two more layers that can't fit onto that same clipboard. Help or suggestions would be appreciated. I can keep on doing it manually, but to have a comprehensive action would save me a ton of time.

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  • Multiple IPs from one router

    - by ergoen
    I would like to know if it is possible (and if so, how) to configure a router running dd-wrt (or openwrt) to supply connected devices with two ip addresses. The network looks like this: [Internet] | [Router] | | [Comp1] [Comp2] ... My ISP provides me with enough public IP adresses to give all devices on my network one each. The easiest way to set that up is to just use the router as a switch. This will however lead to problems with some LAN based applications. I would still like to use Samba-shares between the computers as well as a vpn server. What I am looking for basically is if it is possible to use the router as a DHCP server for a local network (let's say giving IP adresses 192.168.1.xx to connected computers) while at the same time passing through public IP addresses to each as well?

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  • How to select the range for pasting using vba

    - by user1616384
    I wrote some code for selecting the particular row and pasting it in column wise using paste-special property. It is working correctly my code is : lngRow = Me.TextBox4.Value strCol = Me.TextBox5.Value Set rng = Range("A:A").Find(What:=lngRow, LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole) If rng Is Nothing Then MsgBox "Value not found in row 1", vbExclamation Else Range(rng, rng.End(xlToRight)).Copy Range("A1:E3").Columns(strCol).Offset(, 1).PasteSpecial Transpose:=True Range("A1:E3").Rows(1).Copy Range("A1:E3").Columns(strCol).PasteSpecial Transpose:=True endif the problem here is I am using Range(rng, rng.End(xlToRight)).Copy to copy the values and for pasting I am using Range("A1:E3").Columns(strCol).Offset(, 1).PasteSpecial Transpose:=True. How can I paste all the values which are copied? Because if the values are in column F then this macro will not paste those values.

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  • problem with two key ranges in couchdb

    - by Duasto
    I'm having problem getting the right results in my coordinate system. To explain my system, I have this simple database that have x_axis, y_axis and name columns. I don't need to get all the data, I just need to display some part of it. For example, I have a coordinate system that have 10:10(meaning from x_axis -10 to 10 and from y_axis -10 to 10) and I want to display only 49 coordinates. In sql query I can do it something like this: "select * from coordinate where x_axis = -3 and x_axis <= 3 and y_axis = -3 y_axis <= 3" I tried this function but no success: "by_range": { "map": "function(doc) { emit([doc.x_axis, doc.y_axis], doc) }" } by_range?startkey=[-3,-3]&endkey=[3,3] I got a wrong results of: -3x-3 -3x-2 -3x-1 -3x0 -3x1 -3x2 -3x3 <-- should not display this part -- -3x4 -3x5 -3x6 -3x7 -3x8 -3x9 -3x10 <-- end of should not display this part -- ..... up to 3x3 to give you a better understanding of my project here is the screenshot of that I want to be made: Oops they don't allowed new poster to post an image img96(dot)imageshack(dot)us/img96/5382/coordinates(dot)jpg <<< just change the "(dot)" to "."

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  • Separate Certificate by Subdomain (With multiple IPs)

    - by Brian
    Note: Yes, I realize this problem is easier to solve by just using 1 multi-domain or wildcard certificate. I wish to have an ASP.NET site running on IIS with 2 SSL domains sharing 1 web application but using separate certificates. Assuming I have 2 certificates, this can be solved on IIS7 as follows: Web Application1: Binding 1: http, 80, IP Address *, Host Name * Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS1, using CERTDOMAIN1 (DOMAIN1 resolves to IPADDRESS1) Binding 3: https, 443, IPADDRESS2, using CERTDOMAIN2 (DOMAIN2 resolves to IPADDRESS2) That is to say, 2 certificates and 2 ip addresses, but both mapped to the same web application. In IIS6, the closest I have been able to come to this configuration is: Web Application1: Binding 1: http, 80, IPADDRESS1 Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS1, using CERTDOMAIN1 (DOMAIN1 resolves to IPADDRESS1) Web Application2: Binding 1: http, 80, IPADDRESS2 Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS2, using CERTDOMAIN2 (DOMAIN2 resolves to IPADDRESS2) That is to say, 2 certificates and 2 IP addresses, 2 web applications, both mapped to the same file location. The IIS6 solution is not optimal. Even if sharing an application pool, there are still costs associated with running the same site as two applications. Is upgrading from IIS6 to IIS7 a legitimate way to resolve this problem? Is there an IIS6 way to map 2 IP addresses within the same web application to different certificates?

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  • virtual host settings fail on multiple sites

    - by Ricalsin
    Wow. I'm puzzled. On my ubuntu system I've setup an apache2 server and configured three virtual hosts in the /etc/apache2/sites-available directory. a2ensite to symbolic link the sites-enabled. The first two work great; a simple url of localhost.mysitenames.com works great for the first two sites, both finding their DocumentRoot and Directory paths. The third always generates a Bad Request (Invalid Hostname) response. No server error.log as it never hits it. I've copied/pasted the working vhost files, made the minor changes to the ServerName, DocumentRoot and Directory and the same problem persists. I always "sudo /etc/init.d/apache2 restart" whenever I make a change. I've cleared the browser cache as well. No love. There's not a limit to the number of sites you can host, right? My goal was a localhost development environment with the expectation I can run any number of websites locally before pushing them to a live server. Any thoughts on how to debug this? Or, just a simple solution I am missing?

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