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  • Thread implemented as a Singleton

    - by rocknroll
    Hi all, I have a commercial application made with C,C++/Qt on Linux platform. The app collects data from different sensors and displays them on GUI. Each of the protocol for interfacing with sensors is implemented using singleton pattern and threads from Qt QThreads class. All the protocols except one work fine. Each protocol's run function for thread has following structure: void <ProtocolClassName>::run() { while(!mStop) //check whether screen is closed or not { mutex.lock() while(!waitcondition.wait(&mutex,5)) { if(mStop) return; } //Code for receiving and processing incoming data mutex.unlock(); } //end while } Hierarchy of GUI. 1.Login screen. 2. Screen of action. When a user logs in from login screen, we enter the action screen where all data is displayed and all the thread's for different sensors start. They wait on mStop variable in idle time and when data arrives they jump to receiving and processing data. Incoming data for the problem protocol is 117 bytes. In the main GUI threads there are timers which when timeout, grab the running instance of protocol using <ProtocolName>::instance() function Check the update variable of singleton class if its true and display the data. When the data display is done they reset the update variable in singleton class to false. The problematic protocol has the update time of 1 sec, which is also the frame rate of protocol. When I comment out the display function it runs fine. But when display is activated the application hangs consistently after 6-7 hours. I have asked this question on many forums but haven't received any worthwhile suggestions. I Hope that here I will get some help. Also, I have read a lot of literature on Singleton, multithreading, and found that people always discourage the use of singletons especially in C++. But in my application I can think of no other design for implementation. Thanks in advance A Hapless programmer

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  • Java split xml file

    - by CC
    Hi all, I'm working on a piece of code to split files. I want to split flat file (that's ok, it is working fine) and xml file. The idea is to split based of a number of files to split: I have a file, and I want to split it in x files (x is a parameters). I'm doing the split by taking the size of the file and spliting the size by the number of files to split. Then, mysolution was to use a BufferedReader and to use it like while ((n = reader.read(buffer, 0, buffer.length)) != -1) { { The main problem is that for the xml file I cannot just split it, but I have to split it based on a block delimited by a start xml tag and end xml tag: <start tag> bla bla xml stuff </end tag> So I cannot cut a block at the middle. So if when I'm at the half of a block, is the size of my new file is greater than my max, I will have to read until the end of the tag, and then, to start a next file. The problem is that I have all sort of cases, and is a bit difficult to search the end tag. - the block reads a text until the middle of the end tag - the block reads a text until the end of the end tag, and no more other caracter after - etc and in the same time to have a loop and read the next block. Some times the end of a block concatenated with the start of the next one, I have the end xml tag. I hope you get the idea. My question is, does anyone have some algorithm that does that more accurate and who i treating all special cases ? The idea is to split the file as quickly as possible. Thanks alot.

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  • Problems with registering click event listener to a frame-element

    - by distractedBySquirrels
    Hi everybody, I ran into a problem with adding an event listener. I wrote a Firefox plugin a while ago for my bachelor thesis. It was based on a different attacker model than you would normally expect. In this scenario the attacker was the service provider (like Facebook, Google,...), who reads all your private data stored on their site (via JS). My final solution was to temporally allow JS (while the page loads and after an user action occured). To observe the interaction I used event listener, which worked very well so far. But last week I noticed that my approach doesn't work with web sites which are using a frameset (I added the event listener to the body...). So I tried to add the listener to the frameset respectively to the frame. But the clicks are only noticed when you actually click on the frame... (eg resize the frame with your mouse) But I want to register clicks on the document loaded inside the frame. I already tried the .frameElement. Sadly it seems that Firefox doesn't like my (or, which is more likely, I'm too stuipd :) ) and claims there are no frames... Could anyone tell me how to add an event listener to the document inside a frame? The web site looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Frameset Test</title> </head> <frameset cols="150,*"> <frame src="nav.html" name="Navigation"> <frame src="main.html" name="Main"> </frameset> </html> This was my first bigger projekt with Mozilla so this could be a really dumb failure of mine... I hope you guys can help me. Thanks in advance. Sebastian

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  • Problem with detecting the value of the drop down list on the server (servlet) side

    - by Harry Pham
    Client code is pretty simple: <form action="DDServlet" method="post"> <input type="text" name="customerText"> <select id="customer"> <option name="customerOption" value="3"> Tom </option> <option name="customerOption" value="2"> Harry </option> </select> <input type="submit" value="send"> </form> Here is the code on the Servlet Enumeration paramNames = request.getParameterNames(); while(paramNames.hasMoreElements()){ String paramName = (String)paramNames.nextElement(); //get the next element System.out.println(paramName); } When I print out, I only see, customerText, but not customerOption. Any idea why guys? What I hope is, if I select Tom in my option, once I submit, on my servlet I should able to do this: String paramValues[] = request.getParameterValues(paramName); and get back value of 3

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  • Setting up a multi-site CMS, collecting thoughts about the DB schema

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hello all, I'm collecting some thoughts about creating a multisite CMS. In my opinion there are two major approaches. All data is stored into 1 database, giving me the advantage of single point of updates; Seperated databases, so each client has its own database. Giving me the advantage to measure bandwith. Option 1 gives me the disadvantage of measuring bandwith while option is giving me the disadvantage of a single point of update structure. Are there any generic approaches for creating a sort of update system? So my clients can download a small package (maybe a zip with a conf file to tell the updatescript where to put all the files and how to extend the database??) Do you guys have some thougths about the best solution for a situation like this? I have my own webserver, full access to all resources and I'm developing in PHP with MySQL as DBMS. I hope to hear from you and I surely appreciate any effort you make to help me further! Greets from Holland, Ben Fransen

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  • Non Working Relationship

    - by Dominik K.
    Hello everyone, I got a problem with cake's model architecture. I got a Users-Model and a Metas-Model. Here are the model codes: Users: <?php class User extends AppModel { var $name = 'User'; var $validate = array( 'username' => array('notempty'), 'email' => array('email'), 'password' => array('notempty') ); var $displayField = 'username'; var $hasMany = array( 'Meta' => array( 'className' => 'Meta', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id' ) ); } ?> and the Metas Model: <?php class Meta extends AppModel { var $name = 'Meta'; //The Associations below have been created with all possible keys, those that are not needed can be removed var $belongsTo = array( 'User' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id', 'required' => true ) ); } ?> So now the question is why do I not get the Meta data into the User array? Should I get it in the Auth object? Or where can I work with the meta data? hope you can help me! Have a nice Day! Dom

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  • Multiple dynamic timers

    - by Rickard
    I am working on a project where I need to let the user create one (or more) timers to fire off an event. The user is supposed to define variables such as if the timer should be active and how often the timer will fire along with some other variables of what will happen when the timer is fiering. All these variables are stored in a dictionary (Disctionary) where the object holds all the variables the user has set and the string is the name that the user has chosen for this timer. I then want my program to loop through this dictionary and search for all objects which has the variable t_Active set to true (this I have already achieved). What I need help with figuring out is the follwoing: When it detects the variable, and if it's set to true, I need the program to see if there is already a timer created for this. If it isn't, it should create one and set the relevant parameters for the timer. The two variables t_num and t_period should decide the interval of the timer. t_num is an int and t_period is a string which will be set to either minutes, hours or days. Combining t_num with 60000 (minutes), 3600000 (hours) or 86400000 should give the corrct interval. But how would I go on about programatically create a timer for each user-defined active object? And how do I get the program to detect wether or not a timer has already been created? I have been searching both here and on google, but so far I haven't come across something that makes sense to me. I am still learning C#, so what make sense to you guys may not neccessarilly make sense to me yet. :) I hope I have explaned what I need good enough, please do ask me to clarify if you don't get me. Edit: Maybe I should also mention that the mentioned dictionary will also be saved to an XML file to that the user can pick up all the settings they made at any time.

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  • How to call a .NET COM method with an array from delphi using PSafeArray?

    - by Sebastian Godelet
    Hello. I have an .NET (4.0) interface which is implemented with a ServicedComponent COM+ class: interface DotNetIface { void MethodRef(var System.Guid guid); void MethodArray(System.Guid[] guids, params object[] parameters); void MethodCStyle([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray, ArraySubType=UnmanagedType.Struct, SizeConst=5)]System.Guid[] guids); } Now I used the Delphi 2007 import wizard to import the type library, and as expected I get the following signatures: procedure MethodRef(var guid : TGuid); procedure MethodArray(guids : PSafeArray); procedure MethodCStyle(var guids : ClrGuid /* from mscorlib_TLB */); If i now call the "ref" method like this it works fine: procedure CallByRef(guid : TGuid); var test : TGuid; begin test := ... comRef.MethodRef(guid); end; Now I also need the array method procedure CallArray(); var localGuid : TGuid; arrayVariant : OleVariant; begin arrayVariant := VarArrayCreate([0,4], varVariant /* dont know here */); arrayVariant[0] := localGuid; /* compile error, cannot cast implicitly */ comRef.MethodArray(PSafeArray(TVarData(arrayVariant.VArray)), /* here this object... PSafeArray works actually*/); end; Now lastly i tried with a c array procedure CallCStyle(); var localGuid : TGuid; arrayOfGuid : array [0..4] of ClrGuid; begin arrayOfGuid[0] := ClrGuid(localGuid); comRef.MethodCStyle(PSafeArray(/* now i dont know put it*/, /* here this object... PSafeArray works actually*/); end; I seriously dont know how to make this work. I hope someone has more experience with COM marshalling thx Side node: I found VT_CLSID which i think can be passed for SafeArrayCreate, but I am not sure how to sue that

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  • Use $_FILES on a page called by .ajax

    - by RachelD
    I have two .php pages that I'm working with. Index.php has a file upload form that posts back to index.php. I can access the $_FILES no problem on index.php after submitting the form. My issue is that I want (after the form submit and the page loads) to use .ajax (jQuery) to call another .php file so that file can open and process some of the rows and return the results to ajax. The ajax then displays the results and recursively calls itself to process the next batch of rows. Basically I want to process (put in the DB etc) the csv in chunks and display it for the user in between chunks. Im doing it this way because the files are 400,000+ rows and the user doesnt want to wait the 10+ min for them all to be processed. I dont want to move this file (save it) because I just need to process it and throw it away and if a user closes the page while its processing the file wont be thrown away. I could cron script it but I dont want to. What I would really like to do is pass the (single) $_FILES through .ajax OR Save it in a $_POST or $_SESSION to use on the second page. Is there any hope for my cause? Heres the ajax code if that helps: function processCSV(startIndex, length) { $.ajax({ url: "ajax-targets/process-csv.php", dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: { startIndex: startIndex, length: length }, timeout: 60000, // 1000 = 1 sec success: function(data) { // JQuery to display the rows from the CSV var newStart = startIndex+length; if(newStart <= data['csvNumRows']) { processCSV(newStart, length); } } }); } processCSV(1, 2); }); P.S. I did try this Passing $_FILES or $_POST to a new page with PHP but its not working for me :( SOS.

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  • TextRenderer.DrawText renders Arial differently on XP vs Vista

    - by Michael
    I have a c# application that does text rendering, something on par with a simple wysiwyg text editor. I'm using TextRenderer.DrawText to render the text to the screen and GetTextExtentPoint32 to measure text so I can position different font styles/sizes on the same line. In Vista this all works fine. In XP however, Arial renders differently, certain characters like 'o' and 'b' take up more width than in Vista. GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the string as it would in Vista though, with the smaller widths. The end result is that every now and then a run of text will overlap the text preceding it because the preceding text gets measured as smaller than it actually is on the screen. Also, my text rendering code mimics ie's text rendering exactly (for simple formatting and english language only) and ie text rendering seems to be consistent between vista and xp - that's how I noticed the change in size of the different characters. Anyone have any ideas about what's going on? In short, TextRenderer.DrawText and GetTextExtentPoint32 don't match up in xp for Arial. DrawText seems to draw certain characters larger and/or smaller than it does in Vista but GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the text as it would in Vista (which seems to match the text rendering in ie on both xp and vista). Hope that makes sense. Note: unfortunately TextRenderer.MeasureString isn't fast or accurate enough to meet my requirements. I tried using it and had to rip it out.

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  • UILabel applying CGAffineTransformMakeRotation causing mysterious crash

    - by quantumpotato
    In -(id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil parentController:(GameViewController *)myGameController{ Have a series of transforming labels like so: deg90 = 1.570796326794897; //....transforms background.center = CGPointMake(160,230); background.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(deg90); BetLabel.text = @"test"; BetLabel.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(deg90); That last line is crashing me with: 2010-04-13 21:04:47.858 Game[1204:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '* -[NSCFArray objectAtIndex:]: index (1) beyond bounds (1)' 2010-04-13 21:04:47.893 Game[1204:207] Stack: ( 864992541, 859229716, (lots of numbers) But if I comment it out, I get the text changing fine. Uh oh, just did a test.. turns out the other transforms were on UIImageViews. Apparently rotating a label in this xib is causing the crash. But in another file the transforms are working fine: newprofileentry.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(1.570796326794897); playerb0.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(1.570796326794897); playerb1.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(1.570796326794897); Tried substituting deg90 with the full float value, still the same crash. Tried cleaning cache, restarting IB and Xcode, cleaning all targets. Program has been running fine until I just added these labels. Tried deleting the label, readding and reconnecting the Outlet, too. Thanks for reading, hope someone has an idea about this. Cheers!

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  • Windows console

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. Well, I have a simple question, at least I hope its simple. I was interested in win32 console for a while. Our teacher told us, that windows console is just for DOS and real mode emulation purposes. Well, I know it is not true, becouse DOS applications are runned by emulator which only uses console to display output. Another thing I learned is that console is built into Windows since NT. Well. But what I could not find is, how actually are console programs written to use console. I use Visual C++ for programming (well, for learning). So, the only thing I need to do for using console is select console project. I first thought that windows decides wheather it run app in console or tries to run app in window mode. So I created win32 program and tried printf(). Well, I could not compile it. I know that by definition printf() prints text or variables to stdout. I also found that stdout is the console interface for output. But, I could not find what actually stdout is. So, basicly what I want to ask is, where is the difference between console app and win32 app. I thought that windows starts console when it gets command from "console-family" functions. But obvisously it does not, so there must be some code that actually commands windows to create console interface. And the second question is, when the console is created, how does windows recognize which console terminal is used for what app? I mean, what actually is stdout? Is it a area in memory , or some windows routine that is called? Thanks.

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • Testing system where App-level and Request-level IoC containers exist

    - by Bobby
    My team is in the process of developing a system where we're using Unity as our IoC container; and to provide NHibernate ISessions (Units of work) over each HTTP Request, we're using Unity's ChildContainer feature to create a child container for each request, and sticking the ISession in there. We arrived at this approach after trying others (including defining per-request lifetimes in the container, but there are issues there) and are now trying to decide on a unit testing strategy. Right now, the application-level container itself is living in the HttpApplication, and the Request container lives in the HttpContext.Current. Obviously, neither exist during testing. The pain increases when we decided to use Service Location from our Domain layer, to "lazily" resolve dependencies from the container. So now we have more components wanting to talk to the container. We are also using MSTest, which presents some concurrency dilemmas during testing as well. So we're wondering, what do the bright folks out there in the SO community do to tackle this predicament? How does one setup an application that, during "real" runtime, relies on HTTP objects to hold the containers, but during test has the flexibility to build-up and tear-down the containers consistently, and have the ServiceLocation bits get to those precise containers. I hope the question is clear, thanks!

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  • Q on Python serialization/deserialization

    - by neil
    What chances do I have to instantiate, keep and serialize/deserialize to/from binary data Python classes reflecting this pattern (adopted from RFC 2246 [TLS]): enum { apple, orange } VariantTag; struct { uint16 number; opaque string<0..10>; /* variable length */ } V1; struct { uint32 number; opaque string[10]; /* fixed length */ } V2; struct { select (VariantTag) { /* value of selector is implicit */ case apple: V1; /* VariantBody, tag = apple */ case orange: V2; /* VariantBody, tag = orange */ } variant_body; /* optional label on variant */ } VariantRecord; Basically I would have to define a (variant) class VariantRecord, which varies depending on the value of VariantTag. That's not that difficult. The challenge is to find a most generic way to build a class, which serializes/deserializes to and from a byte stream... Pickle, Google protocol buffer, marshal is all not an option. I made little success with having an explicit "def serialize" in my class, but I'm not very happy with it, because it's not generic enough. I hope I could express the problem. My current solution in case VariantTag = apple would look like this, but I don't like it too much import binascii import struct class VariantRecord(object): def __init__(self, number, opaque): self.number = number self.opaque = opaque def serialize(self): out = struct.pack('>HB%ds' % len(self.opaque), self.number, len(self.opaque), self.opaque) return out v = VariantRecord(10, 'Hello') print binascii.hexlify(v.serialize()) >> 000a0548656c6c6f Regards

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  • How to make new file permission inherit from the parent directory?

    - by Wai Yip Tung
    I have a directory called data. Then I am running a script under the user id 'robot'. robot writes to the data directory and update files inside. The idea is data is open for both me and robot to update. So I setup the permission and owner group like this drwxrwxr-x 2 me robot-grp 4096 Jun 11 20:50 data where both me and robot belongs to the 'robot-grp'. I change the permission and the owner group recursively like the parent directory. I regularly upload new files into the data directory using rsync. Unfortunately, new files uploaded does not inherit the parent directory's permission as I hope. Instead it looks like this -rw-r--r-- 1 me users 6 Jun 11 20:50 new-file.txt When robot tries to update new-file.txt, it fails due to lack of file permission. I'm not sure if setting umask helps. In anycase the new files does not really follow it. $ umask -S u=rwx,g=rx,o=rx I'm often confounded by Unix file permission. Do I even have a right plan? I'm using Debian lenny.

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  • xmlrpc client call in python does not come back

    - by Jack Ha
    Using Python 2.6.4, windows With the following script I want to test a certain xmlrpc server. I call a non-existent function and hope for a traceback with an error. Instead, the function does not return. What could be the cause? import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server("http://127.0.0.1:80", verbose=True) s.functioncall() The output is: send: 'POST /RPC2 HTTP/1.0\r\nHost: 127.0.0.1:80\r\nUser-Agent: xmlrpclib.py/1.0 .1 (by www.pythonware.com)\r\nContent-Type: text/xml\r\nContent-Length: 106\r\n\ r\n' send: "<?xml version='1.0'?>\n<methodCall>\n<methodName>functioncall</methodName >\n<params>\n</params>\n</methodCall>\n" reply: 'HTTP/1.1 200 OK\r\n' header: Content-Type: text/xml header: Cache-Control: no-cache header: Content-Length: 376 header: Date: Tue, 30 Mar 2010 13:27:21 GMT body: '<?xml version="1.0"?>\r\n<methodResponse>\r\n<fault>\r\n<value>\r\n<struc t>\r\n<member>\r\n<name>faultCode</name>\r\n<value><i4>1</i4></value>\r\n</membe r>\r\n<member>\r\n<name>faultString</name>\r\n<value><string>PVSS00ctrl (2), 2 010.03.30 15:27:21.395, CTRL, SEVERE, 72, Function not defined, functioncall , , \n</string></value>\r\n</member>\r\n</struct>\r\n</value>\r\n</fault>\r\n</m ethodResponse>\r\n' (here the program hangs and does not return until I kill the server) edit: the server is written in c++, using its own xmlrpc library

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  • C# NullReferenceException when passing DataTable

    - by Timothy
    I've been struggling with a NullReferenceException and hope someone here will be able to point me in the right direction. I'm trying to create and populate a DataTable and then show the results in a DataGridView control. The basic code follows, and Execution stops with a NullReferenceException at the point where I invoke the new UpdateResults_Delegate. Oddly enough, I can trace entries.Rows.Count successfully before I return it from QueryEventEntries, so I can at least show 1) entries is not a null reference, and 2) the DataTable contains rows of data. I know I have to be doing something wrong, but I just don't know what. private delegate void UpdateResults_Delegate(DataTable entries); private void UpdateResults(DataTable entries) { dataGridView.DataSource = entries; } private void button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PerformQuery)); t.Start(); } private void PerformQuery() { DateTime start = new DateTime(dateTimePicker1.Value.Year, dateTimePicker1.Value.Month, dateTimePicker1.Value.Day, 0, 0, 0); DateTime stop = new DateTime(dateTimePicker2.Value.Year, dateTimePicker2.Value.Month, dateTimePicker2.Value.Day, 0, 0, 0); DataTable entries = QueryEventEntries(start, stop); Invoke(new UpdateResults_Delegate(UpdateResults), entries); } private DataTable QueryEventEntries(DateTime start, DateTime stop) { DataTable entries = new DataTable(); entries.Columns.Add("colEventType", typeof(Int32)); entries.Columns.Add("colTimestamp", typeof(Int32)); entries.Columns.Add("colDetails", typeof(String)); ... conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader r = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (r.Read()) { entries.Rows.Add(result.GetInt32(0), result.GetInt32(1), result.GetString(2)); } } return entries; }

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  • Objective-C respondsToSelector question.

    - by Holli
    From what I have learned so far: In Objective-C you can send any message to any object. If the object does implement the right method it will be executed otherwise nothing will happen. This is because before the message is send Objective-C will perform respondsToSelector. I hope I am right so far. I did a little program for testing where an action is invoked every time a slider is moved. Also for testing I set the sender to NSButton but in fact it is an NSSlider. Now I asked the object if it will respond to setAlternateTitle. While a NSButton will do and NSSlider will not. If I run the code and do respondsToSelector myself it will tell me the object will not respond to that selector. If I test something else like intValue, it will respond. So my code is fine so far. - (IBAction)sliderDidMove:(id)sender { NSButton *slider = sender; BOOL responds = [slider respondsToSelector:@selector(setAlternateTitle)]; if(responds == YES) { NSLog(@"YES"); } else { NSLog(@"NO"); } [slider setAlternateTitle:@"Hello World"]; } But when I actually send the setAlternateTitle message the program will crash and I am not exactly sure why. Shouldn't it do a respondsToSelector before sending the message?

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  • UITableView and UITableCellView, how does this work with core plot ?

    - by Luc
    Hello, I'm very new to iPhone programming, and I'm currently following tutos to understand the whole thing. I've been able to do what I needed (retrive data from a JSON http server, parse them with YAJL and plot the data in core plot). I have done this in a "simple" view where I have added a UILayerHostingView as requested by core-plot. I am now trying to follow this tuto: http://blogs.remobjects.com/blogs/mh/2010/01/26/p973 but I am missing the first part regarding the views... My understanding is that I need to create a view with a UITableView first. Then add a UITableCellView to make the first cell be able to contain the graph ? Is this right ? Where does the method "(id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyle)style" come from ? For my needs, only the first cell needs to contain a graph, I will put some other info in the other cells. As for now, I have created a new GraphListViewController, in the corresponding view I have added a listview but I do not see any auto generated methods regading cell customisation ? Do I need to implements DataSource in this controller and manually add some customisation methods ? Do I need to add a UITagbleViewCell to this UITableViewTable within IB ? Hope I am not getting to confusing... Thanks a lot for your help, Best Regards, Luc

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  • Comparing values from a string in a MySQL query

    - by bellesebastien
    I'm having some trouble comparing values found in VARCHAR fields. I have a table with products and each product has volume. I store the volume in a VARCHAR field and it's usually a number (30, 40, 200..) but there are products that have multiple volumes and their data is stored separated by semicolons, like so 30;60;80. I know that storing multiple volumes like that is not recommended but I have to work with it like it is. I'm trying to implement a search by volume function for the products. I want to also display the products that have a bigger or equal volume than the one searched. This is not a problem with the products that have a single volume, but it is a problem with the multiple volume products. Maybe an example will make things clearer: Let's say I have a product with this in it's volume field: 30;40;70;80. If someone searched for a volume, lets say 50, I want that product to be displayed. To do this I was thinking of writing my own custom MySQL function (I've never this before) but maybe someone can offer a different solution. I apologize for my poor English but I hope I made my question clear. Thanks.

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  • (EXCEL)VBA Spin button which steps through in an sql databases date time

    - by Gulredy
    I have an sql Database table in MySQL which have lots of rows with varied date time values. For example: 2012-08-21 10:10:00 <-- with these date there are around 12 rows 2012-08-21 15:31:00 <-- with these date there are around 5 rows 2012-08-22 11:40:00 <-- with these date there are around 10 rows 2012-08-22 12:17:00 <-- with these date there are around 9 rows 2012-08-22 12:18:00 <-- with these date there are around 7 rows 2012-08-25 07:21:00 <-- with these date there are around 6 rows If the user clicks on the SpinButton1_SpinUp() or SpinButton1_SpinDown() button then it should do the following: The SpinButton1_SpinUp() button should filter out those data from an sql table which is the next after what we are currently on now. Example: We have currently selected: 2012-08-21 15:31:00. The user hits the SpinUp button then the program selects those date from the database, which is the next higher value like this one: 2012-08-22 11:40:00. So the user hits the SpinUp button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date: 2012-08-22 11:40:00 The SpinButton1_SpinDown() will do exactly the reverse of the SpinUp button. When the user hits the SpinDown button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date 2012-08-21 10:10:00 So I think the date which we are currently on, should be stored in a variable. But on button hit not every bigger or lower data should be selected in the database, only those which are the closest bigger or the closest lower date. How can I do this? I hope I described my problem understandable. My native language is not english, so misunderstandings can occur! Please ask if you don't understand something! Thank you for reading!

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  • Malloc inside another function (ANSI C)

    - by Casper
    Hi I'll go straight to it. I'm working on an assignment, where I suddenly ran into trouble. I have to allocate a struct from within another function, obviously using pointers. I've been staring at this problem for hours and tried in a million different ways to solve it. This is some sample code (very simplified): ... some_struct s; printf("Before: %d\n", &s"); allocate(&s); printf("After: %d\n", &s"); ... /* The allocation function */ int allocate(some_struct *arg) { arg = malloc(sizeof(some_struct)); printf("In function: %d\n", &arg"); return 0; } This does give me the same address before and after the allocate-call: Before: -1079752900 In function: -1079752928 After: -1079752900 I know it's probably because it makes a copy in the function, but I don't know how to actually work on the pointer I gave as argument. I tried defining some_struct *s instead of some_struct s, but no luck. I tried with: int allocate(some_struct **arg) which works just fine (the allocate-function needs to be changed as well), BUT according to the assignment I may NOT change the declaration, and it HAS to be *arg.. And it would be most correct if I just have to declare some_struct s.. Not some_struct *s. I hope I make sense and some of you out there can help me :P Thanks in advice

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  • Is there a way to pass another parameter in the preg_replace_callback callback function?

    - by DaNieL
    mmmh guys, i really hope my english is good enaught to explain what i need. Lets take this example (that is just an example!) of code: class Something(){ public function Lower($string){ return strtolower($string); } } class Foo{ public $something; public $reg; public $string; public function __construct($reg, $string, $something){ $this->something = $something; $this->reg = $reg; $this->string = $string; } public function Replace(){ return preg_replace_callback($this->reg, 'Foo::Bar', $this->string); } public static function Bar($matches){ /* * [...] * do something with $matches and create the $output variable * [...] */ /* * I know is really useless in this example, but i need to have an istance to an object here * (in this example, the Something object, but can be something else!) */ return $this->something->Lower($output); } } $s = new Something(); $foo = new Foo($myregexp, $mystring, $s); $content = $foo->Replace(); So, the php manual say that to use a class method as callback in preg_replace_callback(), the method must be abstract. I need to pass an instance of a previuosly initialized object (in the example, an instance of the Something class) at the callback function. I tryed to use call_user_func(), but doesnt work (becose in this way i miss the matches parameter). Is there a way to do that, or have i to separate the process (doing before preg_match_all, for each match retrieve the replace value, and then a simple preg_replace)?

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  • What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

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