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  • Does anyone know how to detect whether a Windows Service is running through Java

    - by GKelly
    There's plenty of information on running Java apps as services, but I need to know how to detect whether a windows service is running or not. Does anyone know how??? At the DOS prompt, I can run: tasklist /svc|findstr "NonRunningService" echo Return code for N onRunningService is %ERRORLEVEL% tasklist /svc|findstr "RunningService" echo Return code for RunningService is %ERRORLEVEL% I get the following: Return code for NonRunningService is 1 Return code for RunningService is 0 In code, I have: int retCode = Runtime.getRuntime.exec("tasklist /svc|findstr \"NonRunningService\"").waitFor(); System.out.println("Return code for NonRunningService is " + retCode); retCode = Runtime.getRuntime.exec("tasklist /svc|findstr \"RunningService\"").waitFor(); System.out.println("Return code for RunningService is " + retCode); I get the following output Return code for NonRunningService is 1 Return code for RunningService is 1 According to the JavaDocs, the waitFor() should block until the process finishes, and give me the exit value of the process. I've also tried using the Process/ProcessBuilder command line calls: //'tasklist /nh /fi "SERVICES eq RunningService"' will return a line for // each running service of the requested type. Process p1 = new ProcessBuilder("tasklist", "/nh", "/fi" "SERVICES eq RunningService").start(); p1.waitFor(); BufferedReader is = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p1.getInputStream())); String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Service - " + line); System.out.println("Running? ", (line==null?"No":"Yes"); gives: Service - Running? No even when I get lines in the output at the command line!

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  • Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

    - by Nick Babcock
    I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

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  • How to disable auto-generated WCF configuration

    - by user351025
    Every time my program runs vs adds the default configuration to my app.config file. At that run it works fine, but at the next run it actually tries to read the config. The problem is that the default configuration has errors, it adds the attribute "Address", but attritbutes are not allowed to have capitals so it throws an exception. This means I have to remove the bad section every run! I've tried to configure the .config but it gives errors. Here is the code that I use to host the server: private static System.Threading.AutoResetEvent stopFlag = new System.Threading.AutoResetEvent(false); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(Service), new Uri("http://localhost:8000")); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IService), new BasicHttpBinding(), "ChessServer"); host.Open(); stopFlag.WaitOne(); host.Close(); Here is the client code that calls the server: ChannelFactory<IChessServer> scf; scf = new ChannelFactory<IService> (new BasicHttpBinding(), "http://localhost:8000"); IService service = scf.CreateChannel(); Thanks for any help.

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  • iphone menu navigation with buttons help requested

    - by David
    Hi, I'm trying to program an iphone app that will have several different (sub)apps. Ideally, I want to know how to make the main menu for this app look and behave like the iphone's own app menu, but I can't figure it out. If any one knows a package or library that does this, please let me know. Plan B is to mock one using UIButtons, and here is where I'm having problems. Basically, when I press a button that should push a new view, it calls the push method, but I still see the top view. in the app delegate, I have something like: AppViewController *viewController; App1ViewController *app1ViewController; UINavigationController *navController; and in didFinishLaunching method, something like: viewController = [ [ AppViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; app1ViewController = [ [App1ViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; navController = [ [ UINavigationController alloc ] initWithRootViewController:viewController]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; and 2 methods -(void)app1{[ navController pushViewController: app1ViewController animated:YES ];} -(void)back{[ navController popViewControllerAnimated:YES ];} then I have 2 viewcontrollers in AppViewController.h @interface AppViewController : UIViewController { UINavigationController *navController; UIButton *appbtn1, *appbtn2, *appbtn3, *appbtn4; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end @interface App1ViewController : UIViewController { UITextView *textView; UINavigationController *navController; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end and define a loadView for each viewcontroller. However, when I press the app1 button and the app1 method gets called, it says the view hasa been pushed, but my view remains the buttons view, i.e. the root view. If I press the button again, it tells me I can't repush the app1view, the one I can't see. Any ideas? I can post the full code if that helps. Thank you for your time.

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  • Retrieve click() handler in jQuery for later use

    - by Xiong Chiamiov
    I'm using the jQuery tablesorter plugin to sort a table, which assigns .click() handlers to the <th>s in the table. Since my table has alternating colors for each column, I've built a simple fix_table_colors(identifier) function that does as it should when I call it manually using Firebug. I would like, however, to have that automatically called after a sort. To do this, I decided to retrieve the .click() handler from the <th>s, and assign a new handler that simply calls the previous handler, followed by fix_table_colors(). (This SO question is similar, but uses standard onClick() attributes, which won't work here.) From the accepted answer to this question, I have created the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $("table.torrents").tablesorter({ debug: true, headers: { 1: { sorter: 'name' }, 2: { sorter: 'peers' }, 3: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 4: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 5: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 6: { sorter: 'ratio' } } }); $('table.torrents thead th').each(function() { var th = $(this); var clickHandler = th.data('events').click[0]; th.click(function() { clickHandler(); fix_table_colors('table.torrents'); }); }); }); While this is conceptually correct, clickHandler doesn't appear to actually be a function, and so I cannot call it. With a bit more digging in Firebug, I found that click[3] appears to hold the function I'm looking for (and click[10] my new one). I get an 'e is undefined' error on line 2 of tablesorter.min.js when using that, though. Am I even going down the right path? I have a feeling that with what I've found so far, I can make this work, but it's going to be much uglier than I would expect it needs to be.

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  • onsubmit() does not work.

    - by the Hampster
    Here is something that I find disturbing. I created a small form, and I'm using AJAX to validate for me. I have a javascript function authenticate() that works sometimes. <form method="post" action="" id="login_form" onsubmit="authenticate()";> // various inputs <input type="button" onclick="authenticate()" value="Log In"> </form> authenticate() works just fine when I click the button. However, if I press enter the form is submitted, and it fails. It also fails if I call onSubmit(). In my debugging, I alert the outgoing texts-- they are identical. However, the Prototype Ajax function calls it the onSuccess, but there is just no response from the server. (The server outputs either "Success" or "Failure"). Why the different behaviors for onClick() vs onSubmit()? The exact same function is called, but the results are different. Any help would be appreciated. --Dave

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  • Is there a programming toolkit for converting "any file type" to a TIFF image?

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I've written several variations of a program. The purpose of the program is to convert "any file type" to a TIFF image represenation of that file, as if it were being printed using a printer. I'm currently using a third party printer driver that I send files to, and it outputs a TIFF image. This is nice, but it requires me to use Office Interop files, and interact with each individual processing application in order to print the files. I had previously tried a toolkit, called Apose .NET, which did not rely on Office Interop, and did not require any printer driver. It did the conversion all on its own and would create a TIFF image. The problem with Aspose .NET was that it did not support a wide variety of input file types. Most notably, it can't do Visio files. My project calls for the ability to create a TIFF image for virtually "any file type". (excluding exes, music files, and stuff) I know that finding something that handles literally any file type is probably not a very feasible task, so I figure if it can at least handle all the Office file types, Adobe types, and other major standard file types, then I can write a custom extension parsing module that uses those processing applications to do the printing of any file type that can be viewed using those applications. So, does anyone know of a toolkit that can do this? Preferably one that does not rely on Office or a printer driver. It does not have to be free, or open source. Or, if you know of an amazing printer driver that does this, I'm open to that too. Thanks in advance, Ryan

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  • Java UTF-8 to ASCII conversion with supplements

    - by bozo
    Hi, we are accepting all sorts of national characters in UTF-8 string on the input, and we need to convert them to ASCII string on the output for some legacy use. (we don't accept Chinese and Japanese chars, only European languages) We have a small utility to get rid of all the diacritics: public static final String toBaseCharacters(final String sText) { if (sText == null || sText.length() == 0) return sText; final char[] chars = sText.toCharArray(); final int iSize = chars.length; final StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(iSize); for (int i = 0; i < iSize; i++) { String sLetter = new String(new char[] { chars[i] }); sLetter = Normalizer.normalize(sLetter, Normalizer.Form.NFC); try { byte[] bLetter = sLetter.getBytes("UTF-8"); sb.append((char) bLetter[0]); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { } } return sb.toString(); } The question is how to replace all the german sharp s (ß, Ð, d) and other characters that get through the above normalization method, with their supplements (in case of ß, supplement would probably be "ss" and in case od Ð supplement would be either "D" or "Dj"). Is there some simple way to do it, without million of .replaceAll() calls? So for example: Ðonardan = Djonardan, Blaß = Blass and so on. We can replace all "problematic" chars with empty space, but would like to avoid this to make the output as similar to the input as possible. Thank you for your answers, Bozo

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  • Can't call animated png script from external js file

    - by Tomas
    Hello, I'm trying to put an animated PNG dinamicaly from external .js file. First I found a simple animated png solution, which draws an animation wherever you put the code within tags, but now it looks like I don't know how to call the function properly from external file. The script is from www.squaregoldfish.co.uk/software/animatedpng, and it looks something like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="animatedpng.js"></script> <div id="pnganim" align="center"> <script> fishAnim = new AnimatedPNG('fish', 't01.png', 3, 100); fishAnim.draw(false); </script> </div> Now, I'm trying to call this from external.js file and jquery: function addFish(){ $('#pnganim').html('<script type="text/javascript" src="animatedpng.js" />'); fishAnim = new AnimatedPNG('fish', 'fish01.png', 3, 100); myFish = fishAnim.draw(false); $('#pnganim').append(myFish); } ... and it's not working. After I click a button that calls the addFish function, it opens only the first frame on a blank page. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks

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  • Batch Geocoding with Garmin Mapsource

    - by Mike Trader
    Please Note: I AM NOT LOOKING FOR AN ALTERNATIVE SOLUTION I lost track of this effort years ago but have need to geocode thousands of addresses nightly. I must use the very accurate database sitting on the machine, installed when the Nuvi map update installed Mapsource. When I contacted Garmin years ago, they expressed an interest in providing an API for this, but then I heard nothing and did not follow up. Their database is provided by navtec? I believe. Anyone have experience with that format? I posted on the Garmin Developer forum a while ago, but its a little lethargic over there :) Has anyone done this? Does anyone know how it might be done without an API; meaning database structure and calls? I'll take a solution in any language. Added: Garmin has expressed an interest in making this available to me. They just have not done it. I do not know the database format. I am NOT looking for an online solution or any other "alternative". This question is very specific. Contact Info: MikeTrader2 A T gmail D O T com Added: I offered a 400 pt bounty for this. Jeff Atwood then offered 400pts also. If you would like to see a solution to this, vote up the question and I will chase up Garmin and show there is interest in finally providing this. Please Note: I AM NOT LOOKING FOR AN ALTERNATIVE SOLUTION

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  • Silverlight RIA Services - how to do Windows Authentication?

    - by Gustavo Cavalcanti
    I am building my first Silverlight 3 + RI Services application and need some help. It will be deployed in an controlled corporate intranet, 100% windows clients. I have started from the Silverlight Business Application template. These are my requirements: Upon launch the application needs to recognize the currently logged-in user. The application needs to have access to other properties of the user in AD, such as email, full name, and group membership. Group membership is used to grand certain features in the application. A "login as a different user" link is to be always available - Some machines are available throughout the enterprise, logged-in as a certain generic user (verified by the absence of certain membership groups). In this case one can enter credentials and log in (impersonate) to the application as a user different from the one already logged-into the machine. This user is to be used in service calls I have modified the following in the default Business Application template: App.xaml: appsvc:WindowsAuthentication instead of the default FormsAuthentication Web.config: authentication mode="Windows" With these modifications I resolve requirement #1 (get the currently logged-in user). But when I examine RiaContext.Current.User, I don't have access to other properties from AD, such as group memberships. How can I achieve my other requirements? Thanks for your help.

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  • What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

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  • CAS authentication and redirects with jQuery Ajax

    - by Steve Nay
    I've got an HTML page that needs to make requests to a CAS-protected (Central Authentication Service) web service using the jQuery AJAX functions. I've got the following code: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: request, dataType: "json", complete: function(xmlHttp) { console.log(xmlHttp); alert(xmlHttp.status); }, success: handleRedirects }); The request variable can be either to the CAS server (https://cas.mydomain.com/login?service=myServiceURL) or directly to the service (which should then redirect back to CAS to get a service ticket). Firebug shows that the request is being made and that it comes back as a 302 redirect. However, the $.ajax() function isn't handling the redirect. I wrote this function to work around this: var handleRedirects = function(data, textStatus) { console.log(data, textStatus); if (data.redirect) { console.log("Calling a redirect: " + data.redirect); $.get(data.redirect, handleRedirects); } else { //function that handles the actual data processing gotResponse(data); } }; However, even with this, the handleRedirects function never gets called, and the xmlHttp.status always returns 0. It also doesn't look like the cookies are getting sent with the cas.mydomain.com call. (See this question for a similar problem.) Is this a problem with the AJAX calls not handling redirects, or is there more going on here than meets the eye?

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  • How to best show progress info when using ADO.NET?

    - by Yadyn
    I want to show the user detailed progress information when performing potentially lengthy database operations. Specifically, when inserting/updating data that may be on the order of hundreds of KB or MB. Currently, I'm using in-memory DataTables and DataRows which are then synced with the database via TableAdapter.Update calls. This works fine and dandy, but the single call leaves little opportunity to glean any kind of progress info to show to the user. I have no idea how much data is passing through the network to the remote DB or its progress. Basically, all I know is when Update returns and it is assumed complete (barring any errors or exceptions). But this means all I can show is 0% and then a pause and then 100%. I can count the number of rows, even going so far to cound how many are actually Modified or Added, and I could even maybe calculate per DataRow its estimated size based on the datatype of each column, using sizeof for value types like int and checking length for things like strings or byte arrays. With that, I could probably determine, before updating, an estimated total transfer size, but I'm still stuck without any progress info once Update is called on the TableAdapter. Am I stuck just using an indeterminate progress bar or mouse waiting cursor? Would I need to radically change our data access layer to be able to hook into this kind of information? Even if I can't get it down to the precise KB transferred (like a web browser file download progress bar), could I at least know when each DataRow/DataTable finishes or something? How do you best show this kind of progress info using ADO.NET?

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  • Threads in WCF service

    - by dragonfly
    Hi, there is a piece of code: class WCFConsoleHostApp : IBank { private static int _instanceCounter; public WCFConsoleHostApp () { Interlocked.Increment(ref _instanceCounter); Console.WriteLine(string.Format("{0:T} Instance nr " + _instanceCounter + " created", DateTime.Now)); } private static int amount; static void Main(string[] args) { ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(WCFConsoleHostApp)); host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Host is running..."); Console.ReadLine(); } #region IBank Members BankOperationResult IBank.Put(int amount) { Console.WriteLine(string.Format("{0:00} {1}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId, Thread.CurrentThread.IsThreadPoolThread) + " Putting..."); WCFConsoleHostApp.amount += amount; Thread.Sleep(20000); Console.WriteLine(string.Format("{0:00} {1}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId, Thread.CurrentThread.IsThreadPoolThread) + " Putting done"); return new BankOperationResult { CurrentAmount = WCFConsoleHostApp.amount, Success = true }; } BankOperationResult IBank.Withdraw(int amount) { Console.WriteLine(string.Format("{0:00} {1}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId, Thread.CurrentThread.IsThreadPoolThread) + " Withdrawing..."); WCFConsoleHostApp.amount -= amount; Thread.Sleep(20000); Console.WriteLine(string.Format("{0:00} {1}", Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId, Thread.CurrentThread.IsThreadPoolThread) + " Withdrawing done"); return new BankOperationResult { CurrentAmount = WCFConsoleHostApp.amount, Success = true }; } #endregion } My test client application calls that service in 50 threads (service is PerCall). What I found very disturbing is when I added Thread.Sleep(20000) WCF creates one service instance per second using different thread from pool. When I remove Thread.Sleep(20000) 50 instances are instanciated straight away, and about 2-4 threads are used to do it - which in fact I consider normal. Could somebody explain why when Thread.Sleep causes those funny delays in creating instances?

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  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

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  • Internet Explorer Warning when embedding Youtube on HTTPS site?

    - by pellepim
    Our application is run over HTTPS which rarely presents any problems for us. When it comes to youtube however, the fact that they do not present any content over SSL connections is giving us some head ache when trying to embed clips. Mostly because of Internet Explorers famous little warning message: "Do you want to view only the webpage content that was delivered securely? This page contains content that will not be delivered using a secure HTTPS ... etc" I've tried to solve this in several ways. The most promising one was to use the ProxyPass functionality in Apache to map to YouTube. Like this: ProxyPass: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com ProxyPassReverse: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com This gets rid of the annoying warning. However, the youtube SWF fails to start streaming The SWF i manage to load into the browser simply states : "An error occurred, please try again later". Potential solutions are perhaps: Download youtube FLV:s and serve them out of own domain (gah) Use custom FLV-player and stream only FLV:s from youtube over a https proxy? Update 10 March: I've tried to use Googles Youtube API for ActionScript to load a player. It looked promising at first and I was able to load a player through my https:// proxy. However, the SWF that is loaded contains loads of explicit calls to different non-ssl urls to create authentication links for the FLV-stream and for loading different crossdomain policies. It really seems like we're not supposed to access flv-streams directly. This makes it very hard to bypass the Internet Explorer warning, short of ripping out the FLV:s from youtube and serving them out of your own domain. There are solutions out there for downloading youtubes FLV:s. But that is not compliant with the Youtube terms of use and is really not an option for us.

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  • Mocking inter-method dependencies

    - by Zecrates
    I've recently started using mock objects in my tests, but I'm still very inexperienced with them and unsure of how to use them in some cases. At the moment I'm struggling with how to mock inter-method dependencies (calling method A has an effect on the results of method B), and whether it should even be mocked (in the sense of using a mocking framework) at all? Take for example a Java Iterator? It is easy enough to mock the next() call to return the correct values, but how do I mock hasNext(), which depends on how many times next() has been called? Currently I'm using a List.Iterator as I could find no way to properly mock one. Does Martin Fowler's distinction between mocks and stubs come into play here? Should I rather write my own IteratorMock? Also consider the following example. The method to be tested calls mockObject.setX() and later on mockObject.getX(). Is there any way that I can create such a mock (without writing my own) which will allow the returned value of getX to depend on what was passed to setX?

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  • Bubble sort algorithm implementations (Haskell vs. C)

    - by kingping
    Hello. I have written 2 implementation of bubble sort algorithm in C and Haskell. Haskell implementation: module Main where main = do contents <- readFile "./data" print "Data loaded. Sorting.." let newcontents = bubblesort contents writeFile "./data_new_ghc" newcontents print "Sorting done" bubblesort list = sort list [] False rev = reverse -- separated. To see rev2 = reverse -- who calls the routine sort (x1:x2:xs) acc _ | x1 > x2 = sort (x1:xs) (x2:acc) True sort (x1:xs) acc flag = sort xs (x1:acc) flag sort [] acc True = sort (rev acc) [] False sort _ acc _ = rev2 acc I've compared these two implementations having run both on file with size of 20 KiB. C implementation took about a second, Haskell — about 1 min 10 sec. I have also profiled the Haskell application: Compile for profiling: C:\Temp ghc -prof -auto-all -O --make Main Profile: C:\Temp Main.exe +RTS -p and got these results. This is a pseudocode of the algorithm: procedure bubbleSort( A : list of sortable items ) defined as: do swapped := false for each i in 0 to length(A) - 2 inclusive do: if A[i] > A[i+1] then swap( A[i], A[i+1] ) swapped := true end if end for while swapped end procedure I wonder if it's possible to make Haskell implementation work faster without changing the algorithm (there's are actually a few tricks to make it work faster, but neither implementations have these optimizations)

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  • PoptorootViewController fails then removes all Viewcontrollers

    - by Spyker
    Trying to fix a very strange error, i have 3 view controllers that start from the app delegate and push each other accordingly. The 3rd view controller then has a toolbar button that calls the code here: -(void)showEventBrowser; { accelManeger.delegate = nil; NSLog(@"%u",[self.navigationController.viewControllers count]); [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; } This works the first time round but when i come back to this view controller and try again. Firstly it reports that there are 3 view controllers on the stack. It then deallocs the 2nd view controller in the stack and doesnt crash but will not go any further. If i hit the button again it says there are no view controllers on the stack and fails to respond. I have logs for all the viewdid, viewwill, e.t.c in each view controller and there appears to be no odd behaviour. Also no memory warnings from any view controllers. Why would this work once through but not the second time ?

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  • DirectShow Filter I wrote dies after 10-24 seconds in Skype video call

    - by Robert Oschler
    I've written a DirectShow push filter for use with Skype using Delphi Pro 6 and the DSPACK DirectShow library. In preview mode, when you test a video input device in the Skype client Video Settings window, my filter works flawlessly. I can leave it up and running for many minutes without an error. However when I start a video call after 10 to 24 seconds, never longer, the video feed freezes. The call continues fine with the call duration counter clicking away the seconds, but the video feed is dead, stuck on whatever frame the freeze happened (although after a long while it turns black which I believe means Skype has given up on the filter). I tried attaching to the process from my debugger with a breakpoint literally set on every method call and none of them are hit once the freeze takes place. It's as if the thread that makes the DirectShow FillBuffer() call to my filter on behalf of Skype is dead or has been shutdown. I can't trace my filter in the debugger because during a Skype call I get weird int 1 and int 3 debugger hard interrupt calls when a Skype video call is in progress. This behavior happens even with my standard web cam input device selected and my DirectShow filter completely unregistered as a ActiveX server. I suspect it might be some "anti-debugging" code since it doesn't happen in video input preview mode. Either way, that is why I had to attach to the process after the fact to see if my FillBuffer() called was still being called and instead discovered that appears to be dead. Note, my plain vanilla USB web cam's DirectShow filter does not exhibit the freezing behavior and works fine for many minutes. There's something about my filter that Skype doesn't like. I've tried Sleep() statements of varying intervals, no Sleep statements, doing virtually nothing in the FillBuffer() call. Nothing helps. If anyone has any ideas on what might be the culprit here, I'd like to know. Thanks, Robert

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  • Google's Oauth for Installed apps vs. Oauth for Web Apps

    - by burgerguy
    So I'm having trouble understanding something... If you do Oauth for Web Apps, you register your site with a callback URL and get a unique consumer secret key. But once you've obtained an Oauth for Web Apps token, you don't have to generate Oauth calls to the google server from your registered domain. I regularly use my key and token from scripts running via an apache server at localhost on my laptop and Google never says "you're not sending this request from the registered domain." It just sends me the data. Now, as I understand it, if you do Oauth for Installed Apps, you use "anonymous" instead of a secret key you got from Google. I've been thinking of just using the OAuth for Web Apps auth method, then passing that token to an installed app that has my secret code embedded in its innards. The worry is that the code could be discovered by bad people. But what's more secure... making them work for the secret code or letting them default to anonymous? What really goes bad if the "secret" is discovered when the alternative is using "anonymous" as the secret?

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • Question about WeakReferences

    - by Impz0r
    Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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  • Using multiple sockets, is non-blocking or blocking with select better?

    - by JPhi1618
    Lets say I have a server program that can accept connections from 10 (or more) different clients. The clients send data at random which is received by the server, but it is certain that at least one client will be sending data every update. The server cannot wait for information to arrive because it has other processing to do. Aside from using asynchronous sockets, I see two options: Make all sockets non-blocking. In a loop, call recv on each socket and allow it to fail with WSAEWOULDBLOCK if there is no data available and if I happen to get some data, then keep it. Leave the sockets as blocking. Add all sockets to a fd_set and call select(). If the return value is non-zero (which it will be most of the time), loop through all the sockets to find the appropriate number of readable sockets with FD_ISSET() and only call recv on the readable sockets. The first option will create a lot more calls to the recv function. The second method is a bigger pain from a programming perspective because of all the FD_SET and FD_ISSET looping. Which method (or another method) is preferred? Is avoiding the overhead on letting recv fail on a non-blocking socket worth the hassle of calling select()? I think I understand both methods and I have tried both with success, but I don't know if one way is considered better or optimal. Only knowledgeable replies please!

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