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• How to configure outgoing connections from an SQL stored procedure?

  - by Peter Vestberg

  I am working on a .NET project which uses Microsoft SQL server. In this project, I need a CLR stored procedure (written in C#) that uses a remote web service. So, when the stored procedure is executed on the SQL server, it makes web service calls and thus sends packets to a remote location. The problem is that when executing the SP I get: "System.Net.WebException: The request failed with HTTP status 403: Forbidden." The database user has full permission, the deployed CLR assembly and SP are even marked "unsafe", I tried signing it etc., so any of that is not causing the problem. When I am executing the very same C# code, but from a simple console application instead of as a SP, it all works fine. So I started to suspect a network related problem and had a packet sniffer running when executing both the SP and the console app version. What I realized was that the packets sent out had different destination IP addresses: the console app sent the packets directly to the web service IP while the SP sent the packets to a proxy server we use in our company. Due to network policies the latter is not allowed and that explains the "403 Forbidden" exception. So my question boils down to this: How can I configure the SP/MS SQL server to NOT use that proxy? I want it to send the packets directly to the web service IP, just like the test console app. (again, the C# code is the same , so it's not a programming matter). I've disabled all proxy settings in Internet Explorer in case the SQL server inherits these settings or something. However, no luck. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Best regards, Peter

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• SQL ORACLE - Datatable in where clause

  - by Gage

  Currently I have a sql call returning a dataset from a MSSQL database and I want to take a column from that data and return ID's based off that column from the ORACLE database. I can do this one at a time but that requires multiple calls, I am wondering if this can be done with one call. String sql=String.Format(@"Select DIST_NO FROM DISTRICT WHERE DIST_DESC = '{0}'", row.Table.Rows[0]["Op_Centre"].ToString()); Above is the string I am using to return one ID at a time. I know the {0} can be used to format your value into the string and maybe there is a way to do that with a datatable. Also to use multiple values in the where clause it would be: String sql=String.Format(@"Select DIST_NO FROM DISTRICT WHERE DIST_DESC in ('{0}')", row.Table.Rows[0] ["Op_Centre"].ToString()); Although I realize all of this can be done I am wondering if theres an easy way to add it all to the sql string in one call. As I am writing this I am realizing I could break the string into sections then just add every row value to the SQL string within the "WHERE DIST_DESC IN (" clause... I am still curious to see if there is another way though, and because someone else may come across this problem I will post a solution if I develop one. Thanks in advance.

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• VB .Net - Reflection: Reflected Method from a loaded Assembly executes before calling method. Why?

  - by pu.griffin

  When I am loading an Assembly dynamically, then calling a method from it, I appear to be getting the method from Assembly executing before the code in the method that is calling it. It does not appear to be executing in a Serial manner as I would expect. Can anyone shine some light on why this might be happening. Below is some code to illustrate what I am seeing, the code from the some.dll assembly calls a method named PerformLookup. For testing I put a similar MessageBox type output with "PerformLookup Time: " as the text. What I end up seeing is: First: "PerformLookup Time: 40:842" Second: "initIndex Time: 45:873" Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.IO Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic.Strings Imports System.Reflection Public Class Class1 Public Function initIndex(indexTable as System.Collections.Hashtable) As System.Data.DataSet Dim writeCode As String MessageBox.Show("initIndex Time: " & Date.Now.Second.ToString() & ":" & Date.Now.Millisecond.ToString()) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) writeCode = RefreshList() End Function Public Function RefreshList() As String Dim asm As System.Reflection.Assembly Dim t As Type() Dim ty As Type Dim m As MethodInfo() Dim mm As MethodInfo Dim retString as String retString = "" Try asm = System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom("C:\Program Files\some.dll") t = asm.GetTypes() ty = asm.GetType(t(28).FullName) 'known class location m = ty.GetMethods() mm = ty.GetMethod("PerformLookup") Dim o as Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(ty) Dim oo as Object() retString = mm.Invoke(o,Nothing).ToString() Catch Ex As Exception End Try return retString End Function End Class

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• Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

  - by Visage

  So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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• CGContext problems

  - by Peyman

  Hi I have a CALayer tree hierarchy A B C D where A is the view's root layer (and I create and add B,C and D layers. I am using the same delegate method `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context to provide content to each of these layers (implemented through a switch statement in the above method). At initiation A's content is drawn (A.contents) sequentially through these methods `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context -(void) drawCircle:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context where drawCircle does CGContextSaveGState(context); / draws circle and other paths here / CGContextRestoreGState(context); CGImageRef contentImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); theLayer.contents = (id) contentImage; CGImageRelease(contentImage); (i.e I save the Context, do the drawing, restore the context, make a bitmap of the context, update the layer's contents, in this case A's, then release the contentimage). When the user then clicks somewhere in the circle at touchesEnded:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event delegate method I then try to paint the content of B by (still in touchesEnded:) CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); [self drawLayer:self.B inContext:context]; [self.B setNeedsDisplay]; the setNeedsDisplay call the delegate - drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context again but this time the switch statement (using a layer flag) calls [self drawCircle:theLayer inContext:context]; with color red. The problem I am facing is that when -drawCircle: inContext: is called I get a long list of CGContext errors, starting with <Error>: CGContextSaveGState: invalid context and ending with CGBitmapContextCreateImage: invalid context I played around with making context the view's ivar and it worked so i am sure the context is the problem but I don't know what. I've tried CGContextFlush but it didn't help. Any help would be appreciated thank you

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• Why should I bother with unit testing if I can just use integration tests?

  - by CodeGrue

  Ok, I know I am going out on a limb making a statement like that, so my question is for everyone to convince me I am wrong. Take this scenario: I have method A, which calls method B, and they are in different layers. So I unit test B, which delivers null as a result. So I test that null is returned, and the unit test passes. Nice. Then I unit test A, which expects an empty string to be returned from B. So I mock the layer B is in, an empty string is return, the test passes. Nice again. (Assume I don't realize the relationship of A and B, or that maybe two differente people are building these methods) My concern is that we don't find the real problem until we test A and B togther, i.e. Integration Testing. Since an integration test provides coverage over the unit test area, it seems like a waste of effort to build all these unit tests that really don't tell us anything (or very much) meaningful. Why am I wrong?

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• C# .NET : Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

  - by contactmatt

  I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ funciton calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is suffice?

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• Execute code on assembly load

  - by Dmitriy Matveev

  I'm working on wrapper for some huge unmanaged library. Almost every of it's functions can call some error handler deeply inside. The default error handler writes error to console and calls abort() function. This behavior is undesirable for managed library, so I want to replace the default error handler with my own which will just throw some exception and let program continue normal execution after handling of this exception. The error handler must be changed before any of the wrapped functions will be called. The wrapper library is written in managed c++ with static linkage to wrapped library, so nothing like "a type with hundreds of dll imports" is present. I also can't find a single type which is used by everything inside wrapper library. So I can't solve that problem by defining static constructor in one single type which will execute code I need. I currently see two ways of solving that problem: Define some static method like Library.Initialize() which must be called one time by client before his code will use any part of the wrapper library. Find the most minimal subset of types which is used by every top-level function (I think the size of this subset will be something like 25-50 types) and add static constructors calling Library.Initialize (which will be internal in that scenario) to every of these types. I've read this and this questions, but they didn't helped me. Is there any proper ways of solving that problem? Maybe some nice hacks available?

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• How to give the menus associated with dojo's dijit.ComboBox different css from those of dijit.Menu

  - by sprugman

  When you use a dijit.ComboBox, the type ahead suggestions get implemented as a dijit.Menu. I've got a design which calls for the matched portion of the suggestion rows to be normal, and the unmatched portion to be bold. The structure that dojo creates is like this: <ul class="dijitReset dijitMenu"> <li role="option" class="dijitReset dijitMenuItem"> <span class="dijitComboBoxHighlightMatch">Ch</span>oice One </li> <li role="option" class="dijitReset dijitMenuItem"> <span class="dijitComboBoxHighlightMatch">Ch</span>oice Two </li> </ul> So I can target the matched part, but not the unmatched part. So my css needs to be something like: .dijitMenuItem { font-weight: bold; } .dijitMenuItem .dijitComboBoxHighlightMatch { font-weight: normal; } The problem is, if I do that, all menus will be bolded, and I don't want that. Just doing something like this: <select dojoType="dijit.form.ComboBox" class="foobar">[options]</select> puts the foobar class in the ComboBox, but the menu is an independent node not under that hierarchy. What's the easiest way to add a css class around the popup menu that the ComboBox generates?

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• jquery ready function: script not detecting a function

  - by deostroll

  There is a web page with place holder (a normal div). Via ajax calls I am loading a <form> and a <script> into the place holder. The script contains necessary javascript to initialize the form (i.e. for e.g. disable the controls so as to make form read-only, etc). Here is a piece of code I have; it works, but the commented part doesn't work. Because the script engine cannot find the object tristate_DisableControl which is a function in one of those scripts I call via ajax. $(document).ready(function() { // $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { // if (typeof (window.tristate_DisableControl) == 'undefined') { // if (typeof (window.console) != 'undefnied') // console.log((new Date()).toTimeString() + ' not logable'); // pausecomp(1000); // } // else // tristate_DisableControl(this); // }); //end $('#site_prefrences_content div').each() setTimeout(function() { $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { tristate_DisableControl(this); }) }, 1000); }); I thought by the time $(document).ready() executes the DOM will be properly loaded...

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• Why is curl in Ruby slower than command-line curl?

  - by Stiivi

  I am trying to download more than 1m pages (URLs ending by a sequence ID). I have implemented kind of multi-purpose download manager with configurable number of download threads and one processing thread. The downloader downloads files in batches: curl = Curl::Easy.new batch_urls.each { |url_info| curl.url = url_info[:url] curl.perform file = File.new(url_info[:file], "wb") file << curl.body_str file.close # ... some other stuff } I have tried to download 8000 pages sample. When using the code above, I get 1000 in 2 minutes. When I write all URLs into a file and do in shell: cat list | xargs curl I gen all 8000 pages in two minutes. Thing is, I need it to have it in ruby code, because there is other monitoring and processing code. I have tried: Curl::Multi - it is somehow faster, but misses 50-90% of files (does not download them and gives no reason/code) multiple threads with Curl::Easy - around the same speed as single threaded Why is reused Curl::Easy slower than subsequent command line curl calls and how can I make it faster? Or what I am doing wrong? I would prefer to fix my download manager code than to make downloading for this case in a different way. Before this, I was calling command-line wget which I provided with a file with list of URLs. Howerver, not all errors were handled, also it was not possible to specify output file for each URL separately when using URL list. Now it seems to me that the best way would be to use multiple threads with system call to 'curl' command. But why when I can use directly Curl in Ruby? Code for the download manager is here, if it might help: Download Manager (I have played with timeouts, from not-setting it to various values, it did not seem help) Any hints appreciated.

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• Tips on managing dependencies for a release?

  - by Andrew Murray

  Our system comprises many .NET websites, class libraries, and a MSSQL database. We use SVN for source control and TeamCity to automatically build to a Test server. Our team is normally working on 4 or 5 projects at a time. We try to lump many changes into a largish rollout every 2-4 weeks. My problem is with keeping track of all the dependencies for a rollout. Example: Website A cannot go live until we've rolled out Branch X of Class library B, built in turn against the Trunk of Class library C, which needs Config Updates Y and Z and Database Update D, which needs Migration Script E... It gets even more complex - like making sure each developer's project is actually compatible with the others and are building against the same versions. Yes, this is a management issue as much as a technical issue. Currently our non-optimal solution is: a whiteboard listing features that haven't gone live yet relying on our memory and intuition when planning the rollout, until we're pretty sure we've thought of everything... a dry-run on our Staging environment. It's a good indication but we're often not sure if Staging is 100% in sync with Live - part of the problem I'm hoping to solve. some amount of winging it on rollout day. So far so good, minus a few close calls. But as our system grows, I'd like a more scientific release management system allowing for more flexibility, like being able to roll out a single change or bugfix on it's own, safe in the knowledge that it won't break anything else. I'm guessing the best solution involves some sort of version numbering system, and perhaps using a project management tool. We're a start-up, so we're not too hot on religiously sticking to rigid processes, but we're happy to start, providing it doesn't add more overhead than it's worth. I'd love to hear advice from other teams who have solved this problem.

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• How to determine the data type of a CvMat

  - by Chris

  When using the CvMat type, the type of data is crucial to keeping your program running. For example, depending on whether your data is type float or unsigned char, you would choose one of these two commands: cvmGet(mat, row, col); cvGetReal2D(mat, row, col); Is there a universal approach to this? If the wrong data type matrix is passed to these calls, they crash at runtime. This is becoming an issue, since a function I have defined is getting passed several different types of matrices. How do you determine the data type of a matrix so you can always access its data? I tried using the "type()" function as such. CvMat* tmp_ptr = cvCreateMat(t_height,t_width,CV_8U); std::cout << "type = " << tmp_ptr->type() << std::endl; This does not compile, saying "term does not evaluate to a function taking 0 arguments". If I remove the brackets after the word type, I get a type of 1111638032 EDIT minimal application that reproduces this... int main( int argc, char** argv ) { CvMat *tmp2 = cvCreateMat(10,10, CV_32FC1); std::cout << "tmp2 type = " << tmp2->type << " and CV_32FC1 = " << CV_32FC1 << " and " << (tmp2->type == CV_32FC1) << std::endl; } Output: tmp2 type = 1111638021 and CV_32FC1 = 5 and 0

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• Call Webservice using Javascript

  - by ajithperuva

  I am trying to call a webservice using javascript.But it shows an error like selectSingleNode() is not a method.I am trying it in mozilla firefox.Which is perfectly working in explorer when i change XMLHttpRequest to ActiveXObject.here i am adding my source code which i am tried in firefox. // Web Service functionality // Global vars var xmlDoc = null; var _serviceCallback = null; // Calls web service, web service url and parms, and callback function or null must be provided. // Callback function receives a true or false based on success of call to host function callWebService(url, callback) { _serviceCallback = callback; if(xmlDoc == null) { // xmlDoc = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlDoc = new XMLHttpRequest(); } xmlDoc.onreadystatechange = stateChange; //callback for readystate xmlDoc.async = true; //do background processing //xmlDoc.load(url); xmlDoc.open('GET', url); xmlDoc.send(); //var doc= xmlDoc.responseXML; } // Updates readystate by callback function stateChange() { if (xmlDoc.readyState == 4) { var err = xmlDoc.parseError; var result = false; var nd; if(err.errorCode == 0) { nd = xmlDoc.selectSingleNode("//envelope/date_time"); if(nd.text != "") result = true; } // perform callback if provided if(_serviceCallback != null) _serviceCallback(result, nd == null ? "" : nd.text); } } // Callback supplied to XMLHttpRequest call function callbackTest(result, data) { obj = document.getElementById("txtOuput"); if(result) obj.value = "Success " + data; else obj.value = "Web Service Call Failed"; } Please help me...Already which kill my 8 more hours...

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• deepcopy and python - tips to avoid using it?

  - by blackkettle

  Hi, I have a very simple python routine that involves cycling through a list of roughly 20,000 latitude,longitude coordinates and calculating the distance of each point to a reference point. def compute_nearest_points( lat, lon, nPoints=5 ): """Find the nearest N points, given the input coordinates.""" points = session.query(PointIndex).all() oldNearest = [] newNearest = [] for n in xrange(nPoints): oldNearest.append(PointDistance(None,None,None,99999.0,99999.0)) newNearest.append(obj2) #This is almost certainly an inappropriate use of deepcopy # but how SHOULD I be doing this?!?! for point in points: distance = compute_spherical_law_of_cosines( lat, lon, point.avg_lat, point.avg_lon ) k = 0 for p in oldNearest: if distance < p.distance: newNearest[k] = PointDistance( point.point, point.kana, point.english, point.avg_lat, point.avg_lon, distance=distance ) break else: newNearest[k] = deepcopy(oldNearest[k]) k += 1 for j in range(k,nPoints-1): newNearest[j+1] = deepcopy(oldNearest[j]) oldNearest = deepcopy(newNearest) #We're done, now print the result for point in oldNearest: print point.station, point.english, point.distance return I initially wrote this in C, using the exact same approach, and it works fine there, and is basically instantaneous for nPoints<=100. So I decided to port it to python because I wanted to use SqlAlchemy to do some other stuff. I first ported it without the deepcopy statements that now pepper the method, and this caused the results to be 'odd', or partially incorrect, because some of the points were just getting copied as references(I guess? I think?) -- but it was still pretty nearly as fast as the C version. Now with the deepcopy calls added, the routine does it's job correctly, but it has incurred an extreme performance penalty, and now takes several seconds to do the same job. This seems like a pretty common job, but I'm clearly not doing it the pythonic way. How should I be doing this so that I still get the correct results but don't have to include deepcopy everywhere?

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• Objective C, Linking Error with extern variable..

  - by LCYSoft

  I have a very simple java code like this. I don't have any idea how to do this in Objective C. Especially, the static part which calls the getLocalAddress() method and assign it into the static string variable. I know how to set a static variable and a static method in Objective but I dont know how to implement that static { } part in java. Thanks in advance... public class Address { public static String localIpAddress; static { localIpAddress = getLocalIpAddress(); } public Address() { } static String getLocalIpAddress() { //do something to get local ip address } } I added this in my .h file #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> extern NSString *localIpAddress; @class WifiAddrss; @interface Address : NSObject { } @end And my .m file looks like #import "Address.h" #import "WifiAddress.h" @implementation Address +(void)initialize{ if(self == [Address class]){ localIpAddress = [self getLocalIpAddress]; } } +(NSString *)getLocalIpAddress{ return address here } -(id)init{ self = [super init]; if (self == nil){ NSLog(@"init error"); } return self; } @end And Now I am getting a linking error and it complains about "extern NSString *localIpAddress" part. If I change the extern to static, it works fine. But what I wanted to do is that I want make the scope of "localIpAddress" variable as grobal. Since if I put "static" in front of a variable in Objective-C then the variable is only visible in the class. But this time, I want to make that as a grobal variable. So my question is how to make "localIpAddress" variable as a grobal variable which is initialized once when the first time Address class is created.. Thanks in advance...

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• DRY Authenticated Tasks in Cocoa (with distributed objects)

  - by arbales

  I'm kind of surprise/infuriated that the only way for me to run an authenticated task, like perhaps sudo gem install shi*t, is to make a tool with pre-written code. I'm writing a MacRuby application, which doesn't seem to expose the KAuthorization* constants/methods. So.. I learned Cocoa and Objective-C. My application creates a object, serves it and calls the a tool that elevates itself and then performs a selector on a distributed object (in the tool's thread). I hoped that the distributed object's methods would evaluated inside the tool, so I could use delegation to create "privileged" tasks. If this won't work, don't try to save it, I just want a DRY/cocoa solution. AuthHelper.m //AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges of this. AuthResponder* my_responder = [AuthResponder sharedResponder]; // Gets the proxy object (and it's delegate) NSString *selector = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:argv[3]]; NSLog(@"Performing selector: %@", selector); setuid(0); if ([[my_responder delegate] respondsToSelector:NSSelectorFromString(selector)]){ [[my_responder delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:NSSelectorFromString(selector) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:YES]; } RandomController.m - (void)awakeFromNib { helperToolPath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingString:@"/AuthHelper"]; delegatePath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingString:@"/ABExtensions.rb"]; AuthResponder* my_responder = [AuthResponder initAsService]; [my_responder setDelegate:self]; } -(oneway void)install_gems{ NSArray *args = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"gem", @"install", @"sinatra", nil]; [NSTask launchedTaskWithLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/sudo" arguments:args]; NSLog(@"Ran AuthResponder.delegate.install_gems"); // This prints. } ... other privileges tasks. "sudo gem update --system" for one. I'm guessing the proxy object is performing the selector in it's own thread, but I want the current (privileged thread) to do it so I can use sudo. Can I force the distributed object to evaluate the selector on the tool's thread? How else can I accomplish this dryly/cocoaly?

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• oData/ADO.NET Data Services using LINQ-to-SQL with a decryption layer

  - by Program.X

  I have written an application using LINQ-to-SQL that submits a web form into a database. I absact the LINQ-to-SQL away using a Repository pattern. This repository has the basic methods: Get(), Save(), etc. As a development of the project, I needed to encrypt certain fields in the form. This was trivial, as I just added the encryption calls to the Get(), Save() methods in the Repository. Now, I want to put an oData layer over it, to allow RESTful extraction from MS Excel 2010 (when it comes out). I have this working, after a few stumbles on useless error messages, etc. However, obviously, those encrypted fields are still encrypted. My repository pattern would have decrypted these for me. As far as I know, I have to directly bind my oData service to the LINQ-to-SQL context for the schema, etc. to work - unless I enter a whole world of pain (any URLs appreciated). Is there a way I can insert my encryption/decryption layer into the request so decryption is done "on the fly"? I looked at the OnStartProcessingRequest() overload of DataService but this doesn't seem that useful.

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• Autocompleting \cite{} with emacs + auctex gives "cite: no such database entry"

  - by Alejandro Weinstein

  Hi: I am running Emacs 23.1.1 and AucTeX 11.85 in an Ubuntu 8.10 machine. After opening a tex file, the first time I try to use the autocompletion of the \cite{} command, I get "cite: info not available, use `C-c &' to get it." in the minibuffer. After doing the 'C-c &', I get "byte-code: No BibTeX entry with citation key". Subsequent calls to \cite gives me the message "cite: no such database entry" . I have a \bibliography{library} in my tex file, and the \cite{} entries that I did manually work as expected. I have the following in my .emacs (require 'reftex) (setq-default TeX-master nil) (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'TeX-PDF-mode) ;turn on pdf-mode. AUCTeX ;will call pdflatex to ;compile instead of latex. (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'LaTeX-math-mode) ;turn on math-mode by ;default (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'reftex-mode) ;turn on REFTeX mode by ;default (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'flyspell-mode) ;turn on flyspell mode by ;default (setq reftex-plug-into-AUCTeX t) (setq TeX-auto-save t) (setq TeX-save-query nil) (setq TeX-parse-self t) (setq-default TeX-master nil) I also tried the suggestions in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2699017/suggestion-for-cite-in-emacs-with-auctex, but it didn't work either. Alejandro.

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• Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

  - by TheStijn

  hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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• Problem calling web service from within JBOSS EJB Service

  - by Rob Goodwin

  I have a simple web service sitting on our internal network. I used SOAPUI to do a bit of testing, generated the service classes from the WSDL , and wrote some java code to access the service. All went as expected as I was able to create the service proxy classes and make calls. Pretty simple stuff. The only speed bump was getting java to trust the certificate from the machine providing the web service. That was not a technical problem, but rather my lack of experience with SSL based web services. Now onto my problem. I coded up a simple EJB service and deployed it into JBoss Application Server 4.3 and now get the following error in the code that previously worked. 12:21:50,235 WARN [ServiceDelegateImpl] Cannot access wsdlURL: https://WS-Test/TestService/v2/TestService?wsdl I can access the wsdl file from a web browser running on the same machine as the application server using the URL in the error message. I am at a loss as to where to go from here. I turned on the debug logs in JBOSS and got nothing more than what I showed above. I have done some searching on the net and found the same error in some questions, but those questions had no answers. The web services classes where generated with JAX-WS 2.2 using the wsimport ant task and placed in a jar that is included in the ejb package. JBoss is deployed in RHEL 5.4, where the standalone testing was done on Windows XP.

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• Debugging in VS 2008 locks a stored procedure

  - by larryq

  Hi everyone, I've got a strange one here. I have a .Net executable that, under the hood, calls a few stored procedures. For whatever reason, one of the stored procs hangs when I'm debugging. If I run the executable outside of visual studio things go fine, including this stored proc. It's when I'm debugging that this hangs, and it really hangs. If I stop the debugging session the IDE freezes and I have to kill it via taskmanager. I know which stored procedure has the trouble, as well as the actual statement within it that's the problem. It's calling an update statement that doesn't stand out as particularly special. I can run the identical statement (and the stored procedure itself) from SQL management studio wtih no problem. And, as I mentioned, the exe runs just fine outside the debugger. If I use the SQL activity monitor to see why things are hanging, the wait type says PREEMPTIVE_DEBUG. I'm not sure if that's helpful but if you need more info I'll try to get it to you. I've rebooted my machine (the SQL Server in question is on this box as well) and that didn't do anything, nor did rebuilding the executable. I'm scratching my head on this one and if you have any ideas what to check on next, I'm be happy to listen. Thanks!

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• secure rest API for running user "apps" in an iframe

  - by Brian Armstrong

  I want to let users create "apps" (like Facebook apps) for my website, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to make it secure. I have a REST api i want to run the user apps in an iframe on my own site (not a safe markup language like FBML) I was first looking at oAuth but this seems overkill for my solution. The "apps" don't need to be run on external sites or in desktop apps or anything. The user would stay on my site at all times but see the user submitted "app" through the iframe. So when I call the app the first time through the iframe, I can pass it some variables so it knows which logged in user is using it on my site. It can then use this user session in it's own API calls to customize the display. If the call is passed in the clear, I don't want someone to be able to intercept the session and impersonate the user. Does anyone know a good way to do this or good write up on it? Thanks!

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• 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

  - by TomTom

  Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

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• Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

  - by manu08

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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