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• Office Automation: What does destroy my encoding?

  - by Filburt

  I'm facing a problem with a Word Mail Merge Automation controlled by our CRM system. The setup Base for the Mail Merge is a Word .dot template which fires a macro on Document.New. Inside this macro I create a .Net component registered for COM. Set myCOMObject = CreateObject("MyCOMObject") The component pulls some data from a database and hands string values which are assigned to Word DocumentVariables. Set someClass = myCOMObject.GetSomeClass(123) ActiveDocument.Variables("docaddress") = someClass.GetSenderAddress(456) All string values returned from the component are encoded in UTF-8 (codepage 1200). What happens The problem arises when the CRM system calls Word to perform the Mail Merge: The string values from the component are turned into UTF-8 encoded strings. All the static text inside the template and the data pulled for the Mail Merge stay nicely encoded in UTF-16 - example the umlaut ü inside my DocumentVariables is turned into c3 b0 while it stays fc for the rest of the document (checked file in hex editor). If I'm creating a document from a template with the same macro functionallity but without performing a Mail Merge all strings are fine; i.e. are encoded in UTF-16. What changed According to the CRM software vendor the encoding of the Mail Merge data export was changed to UTF-16 with the new version we're currently testing. I found out that MS states that you'll expirience issues when the document and the Mail Merge data file encoding don't match. What I tried Since I'm assuming to merge with UTF-16 encoded data I added the following lines to my macro: ActiveDocument.TextEncoding = msoEncodingWestern ActiveDocument.SaveEncoding = msoEncodingUnicodeLittleEndian This is what the Mail Merge data document specifies in its document properties.

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• How do I add a header with data to a QTableWidget in Qt?

  - by San Jacinto

  Hi, I'm still learning Qt and I am indebted to the SO community for providing me with great, very timely answers to my Qt questions. Thank you. I'm quite confused on the idea of adding a header to a QTableWidget. What I'd like to do is have a table that contains information about team members. Each row for a member should contain his first and last name, each in its own cell, an email address in one cell, and office in the other cell. I'd to have a header above these columns to name them as appropriate. I'm trying to start off easy and get just the header to display "Last" (as in last name). Here is my code. int column = m_ui-teamTableWidget-columnCount(); m_ui-teamTableWidget-setColumnCount(column+1); QString* qq = new QString("Last"); m_ui-teamTableWidget-horizontalHeader()-model()-setHeaderData(0, Qt::Horizontal, QVariant(QVariant::String, &qq)); My table gets rendered corretly, but the header doesn't contain what I would expect. It contains 1 cell that contains the text "1". I am obviously doing something very silly here that is wrong, but i am lost. I keep pouring over the documentation, finding nothing. Here are the documentation links to the function calls I am making for the very last line. http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qtableview.html#horizontalHeader http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qabstractitemview.html#model http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qabstractitemmodel.html#setHeaderData Thanks for any and all help. Edit: HOW I SOLVED THE PROBLEM Using some help from the accepted answer, I came up with the following code: m_ui-teamTableWidget-setColumnCount(m_ui-teamTableWidget-columnCount()+1); QTableWidgetItem* qtwi = new QTableWidgetItem(QString("Last"),QTableWidgetItem::Type); m_ui-teamTableWidget-setHorizontalHeaderItem(0,qtwi);

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• Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

  - by Ngu Soon Hui

  We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

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• SignalR - Handling disconnected users

  - by guilhermeGeek

  Hy, I'm using the signalR library on a project to handle an notification and chat modules. I've a table on an database to keep a track of online users. The HUB for chat is inheriting IDisconnect where i disconnect the user. After disconnecting the user, i warm the users about that event. At this point, i check if the disconnect user is the client. If it's, then i call an method on HUB to reconnect the user (just update the table). I do this because with the current implementation, once the user closes a tab on the browser it calls the Disconnect task but he could have another tab opened. I've not tested (with larger requests) this module yet, but on my development server it could take a few seconds between the IDisconnect event, and the request from the user to connect again. I'm concerned with my implementation to handle disconnected users from the chat but i can't see another way to improve this. If possible, could someone give me a advice on this, or this is the only solution that i've?

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• Python byte per byte XOR decryption

  - by neurino

  I have an XOR encypted file by a VB.net program using this function to scramble: Public Class Crypter ... 'This Will convert String to bytes, then call the other function. Public Function Crypt(ByVal Data As String) As String Return Encoding.Default.GetString(Crypt(Encoding.Default.GetBytes(Data))) End Function 'This calls XorCrypt giving Key converted to bytes Public Function Crypt(ByVal Data() As Byte) As Byte() Return XorCrypt(Data, Encoding.Default.GetBytes(Me.Key)) End Function 'Xor Encryption. Private Function XorCrypt(ByVal Data() As Byte, ByVal Key() As Byte) As Byte() Dim i As Integer If Key.Length <> 0 Then For i = 0 To Data.Length - 1 Data(i) = Data(i) Xor Key(i Mod Key.Length) Next End If Return Data End Function End Class and saved this way: Dim Crypter As New Cryptic(Key) 'open destination file Dim objWriter As New StreamWriter(fileName) 'write crypted content objWriter.Write(Crypter.Crypt(data)) Now I have to reopen the file with Python but I have troubles getting single bytes, this is the XOR function in python: def crypto(self, data): 'crypto(self, data) -> str' return ''.join(chr((ord(x) ^ ord(y)) % 256) \ for (x, y) in izip(data.decode('utf-8'), cycle(self.key)) I had to add the % 256 since sometimes x is 256 i.e. not a single byte. This thing of two bytes being passed does not break the decryption because the key keeps "paired" with the following data. The problem is some decrypted character in the conversion is wrong. These chars are all accented letters like à, è, ì but just a few of the overall accented letters. The others are all correctly restored. I guess it could be due to the 256 mod but without it I of course get a chr exception... Thanks for your support

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• jquery ready function: script not detecting a function

  - by deostroll

  There is a web page with place holder (a normal div). Via ajax calls I am loading a <form> and a <script> into the place holder. The script contains necessary javascript to initialize the form (i.e. for e.g. disable the controls so as to make form read-only, etc). Here is a piece of code I have; it works, but the commented part doesn't work. Because the script engine cannot find the object tristate_DisableControl which is a function in one of those scripts I call via ajax. $(document).ready(function() { // $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { // if (typeof (window.tristate_DisableControl) == 'undefined') { // if (typeof (window.console) != 'undefnied') // console.log((new Date()).toTimeString() + ' not logable'); // pausecomp(1000); // } // else // tristate_DisableControl(this); // }); //end $('#site_prefrences_content div').each() setTimeout(function() { $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { tristate_DisableControl(this); }) }, 1000); }); I thought by the time $(document).ready() executes the DOM will be properly loaded...

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• Reformat SQLGeography polygons to JSON

  - by James

  I am building a web service that serves geographic boundary data in JSON format. The geographic data is stored in an SQL Server 2008 R2 database using the geography type in a table. I use [ColumnName].ToString() method to return the polygon data as text. Example output: POLYGON ((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666)) MULTIPOLYGON (((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627 0 0, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666 0 0))) Geographic definitions can take the form of either an array of lat/long pairs defining a polygon or in the case of multiple definitions, an array or polygons (multipolygon). I have the following regex that converts the output to JSON objects contained in multi-dimensional arrays depending on the output. Regex latlngMatch = new Regex(@"(-?[0-9]{1}\.\d*)\s(\d{2}.\d*)(?:\s0\s0,?)?", RegexOptions.Compiled); private string ConvertPolysToJson(string polysIn) { return this.latlngMatch.Replace(polysIn.Remove(0, polysIn.IndexOf("(")) // remove POLYGON or MULTIPOLYGON .Replace("(", "[") // convert to JSON array syntax .Replace(")", "]"), // same as above "{lng:$1,lat:$2},"); // reformat lat/lng pairs to JSON objects } This is actually working pretty well and converts the DB output to JSON on the fly in response to an operation call. However I am no regex master and the calls to String.Replace() also seem inefficient to me. Does anyone have any suggestions/comments about performance of this?

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• Json HTTP Module stream issue

  - by Justin

  Hey, I have an HTTP Module that I use to clean up the JSON returned by my web service (see http://www.codeproject.com/KB/webservices/ASPNET_JSONP.aspx?msg=3400287#xx3400287xx for an example of this.) Basically it relates to calling cross-domain JSON web services from javascript. There is this JsonHttpModule which uses a JsonResponseFilter Stream class to write out the JSON and the overloaded Write method is supposed to wrap the name of the callback function around the JSON, otherwise the JSON errors out as needing a label. However, if the JSON is really long, the Write method in the Stream class is called multiple times, causing the callback function to incorrectly get inserted midway through the JSON. Is there a way in the Stream class to wrap the callback function around the stream at the end or to specify that it write all of the JSON in 1 Write method instead of in chunks?? Here's where it calls the JsonResponseFilter in the JsonHttpModule: public void OnReleaseRequestState(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = (HttpApplication)sender; if (!_Apply(app.Context.Request)) return; // apply response filter to conform to JSONP app.Context.Response.Filter = new JsonResponseFilter(app.Context.Response.Filter, app.Context); } Here's the Write method in the JsonResponseFilter Stream class that gets called multiple times: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { var b1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(_context.Request.Params["callback"] + "("); _responseStream.Write(b1, 0, b1.Length); _responseStream.Write(buffer, offset, count); var b2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(");"); _responseStream.Write(b2, 0, b2.Length); } Thanks for any help! Justin

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• How to make Facebook Authentication from Silverlight secure?

  - by SondreB

  I have the following scenario I want to complete: Website running some HTTP(S) services that returns data for a user. Same website is additionally hosting a Silverlight 4 app which calls these services. The Silverlight app is integrating with Facebook using the Facebook Developer Toolkit (http://facebooktoolkit.codeplex.com/). I have not fully decided whether I want Facebook-integration to be a "opt-in" option such as Spotify, or if I want to "lock" down my service with Facebook-only authentication. That's another discussion. How do I protect my API Key and Secret that I receive from Facebook in a Silverlight app? To me it's obvious that this is impossible as the code is running on the client, but is there a way I can make it harder or should I just live with the fact that third parties could potentially "act" as my own app? Using the Facebook Developer Toolkit, there is a following C# method in Silverlight that is executed from the JavaScript when the user has fully authenticated with Facebook using the Facebook Connect APIs. [ScriptableMember] public void LoggedIn(string sessionKey, string secret, int expires, long userId) { this.SessionKey = sessionKey; this.UserId = userId; Obvious the problem here is the fact that JavaScript is injection the userId, which is nothing but a simple number. This means anyone could potentially inject a different userId in JavaScript and have my app think it's someone else. This means someone could hijack the data within the services running on my website. The alternative that comes to mind is authenticating the users on my website, this way I'm never exposing any secrets and I can return an auth-cookie to the users after the initial authentication. Though this scenario doesn't work very well in an out-of-browser scenario where the user is running the Silverlight app locally and not from my website.

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• When *not* to use prepared statements?

  - by Ben Blank

  I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

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• Bash: how to simply parallelize tasks?

  - by NoozNooz42

  I'm writing a tiny script that calls the "PNGOUT" util on a few hundred PNG files. I simply did this: find $BASEDIR -iname "*png" -exec pngout {} \; And then I looked at my CPU monitor and noticed only one of the core was used, which is quite sad. In this day and age of dual, quad, octo and hexa (?) cores desktop, how do I simply parallelize this task with Bash? (it's not the first time I've had such a need, for quite a lot of these utils are mono-threaded... I already had the case with mp3 encoders). Would simply running all the pngout in the background do? How would my find command look like then? (I'm not too sure how to mix find and the '&' character) I if have three hundreds pictures, this would mean swapping between three hundreds processes, which doesn't seem great anyway!? Or should I copy my three hundreds files or so in "nb dirs", where "nb dirs" would be the number of cores, then run concurrently "nb finds"? (which would be close enough) But how would I do this?

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• How to test if raising an event results in a method being called conditional on value of parameters

  - by MattC

  I'm trying to write a unit test that will raise an event on a mock object which my test class is bound to. What I'm keen to test though is that when my test class gets it's eventhandler called it should only call a method on certain values of the eventhandlers parameters. My test seems to pass even if I comment the code that calls ProcessPriceUpdate(price); I'm in VS2005 so no lambdas please :( So... public delegate void PriceUpdateEventHandler(decimal price); public interface IPriceInterface{ event PriceUpdateEventHandler PriceUpdate; } public class TestClass { IPriceInterface priceInterface = null; TestClass(IPriceInterface priceInterface) { this.priceInterface = priceInterface; } public void Init() { priceInterface.PriceUpdate += OnPriceUpdate; } public void OnPriceUpdate(decimal price) { if(price > 0) ProcessPriceUpdate(price); } public void ProcessPriceUpdate(decimal price) { //do something with price } } And my test so far :s public void PriceUpdateEvent() { MockRepository mock = new MockRepository(); IPriceInterface pi = mock.DynamicMock<IPriceInterface>(); TestClass test = new TestClass(pi); decimal prc = 1M; IEventRaiser raiser; using (mock.Record()) { pi.PriceUpdate += null; raiser = LastCall.IgnoreArguments().GetEventRaiser(); Expect.Call(delegate { test.ProcessPriceUpdate(prc); }).Repeat.Once(); } using (mock.Playback()) { test.Init(); raiser.Raise(prc); } }

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• Issue with Facebook JS API, revokeAuthorization

  - by BBonifield

  I am trying to integrate FB connect into our user profile screen. Although, I'm having an issue with FB.ApiClient.revokeAuthorization. http://pastie.org/921942 The basic problem is that I revoke the auth at line 44 after the user clicks the disconnect button. After that, all subsequent API calls don't have a valid session to even check user status. I've tried wrapping blocks in a FB.Connect.forceSessionRefresh block, but then the code will never be called at all. I'm not sure what the proper workflow should be for this purpose. Right now it's basically... User arrives at profile NOT connected to the application. User clicks on the connect button. Once connected, DOM manipulation occurs to hide the connect button and add in a disconnect button. User clicks on the disconnect button. User's authorization to the application is revoked and (it seems) the API session to the FB server is invalidated. DOM manipulation occurs to hide the disconnect button and readd the connect button. User clicks on the connect button. Once connected, the FB.Connect.get_loggedInUser() don't return the actual user.

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• Autocompleting \cite{} with emacs + auctex gives "cite: no such database entry"

  - by Alejandro Weinstein

  Hi: I am running Emacs 23.1.1 and AucTeX 11.85 in an Ubuntu 8.10 machine. After opening a tex file, the first time I try to use the autocompletion of the \cite{} command, I get "cite: info not available, use `C-c &' to get it." in the minibuffer. After doing the 'C-c &', I get "byte-code: No BibTeX entry with citation key". Subsequent calls to \cite gives me the message "cite: no such database entry" . I have a \bibliography{library} in my tex file, and the \cite{} entries that I did manually work as expected. I have the following in my .emacs (require 'reftex) (setq-default TeX-master nil) (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'TeX-PDF-mode) ;turn on pdf-mode. AUCTeX ;will call pdflatex to ;compile instead of latex. (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'LaTeX-math-mode) ;turn on math-mode by ;default (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'reftex-mode) ;turn on REFTeX mode by ;default (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'flyspell-mode) ;turn on flyspell mode by ;default (setq reftex-plug-into-AUCTeX t) (setq TeX-auto-save t) (setq TeX-save-query nil) (setq TeX-parse-self t) (setq-default TeX-master nil) I also tried the suggestions in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2699017/suggestion-for-cite-in-emacs-with-auctex, but it didn't work either. Alejandro.

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• Why should I bother with unit testing if I can just use integration tests?

  - by CodeGrue

  Ok, I know I am going out on a limb making a statement like that, so my question is for everyone to convince me I am wrong. Take this scenario: I have method A, which calls method B, and they are in different layers. So I unit test B, which delivers null as a result. So I test that null is returned, and the unit test passes. Nice. Then I unit test A, which expects an empty string to be returned from B. So I mock the layer B is in, an empty string is return, the test passes. Nice again. (Assume I don't realize the relationship of A and B, or that maybe two differente people are building these methods) My concern is that we don't find the real problem until we test A and B togther, i.e. Integration Testing. Since an integration test provides coverage over the unit test area, it seems like a waste of effort to build all these unit tests that really don't tell us anything (or very much) meaningful. Why am I wrong?

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• Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

  - by Visage

  So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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• Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

  - by philrabin

  I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

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• asp.net doesn't render Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize code

  - by ajitatif

  i'm using the ASP.NET 2.0 Ajax Extensions on a web site. as always, everything is fine on local but the remote web site does not use ajax calls. my local server has the ASP.NET Ajax extensions installed but the remote one doesn't. i know that i should be able to use the Ajax extensions without installing them. so in turn, i added the extensions' .dll among the web site's references but still no luck. after my further investigation, i found out that local and remote pages have exactly the same HTML code rendered, except that the local (working) one has these lines //<![CDATA[ Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ScriptManager1', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls(['tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReportArgs','tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReport'], ['ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$chkTumu','ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnGetir'], [], 90); //]]> obviously, these are the lines of code that make callbacks possible. the question is why doesn't asp.net render these lines? what could be missing? by the way, the ScriptResource.axd and WebResource.axd doesn't give a 404 or anything, i can see through their js codes via Firebug. and one more thing: i'm unsure if it is related or not, but there are client-side asp.net validators on the page whose js code are not rendered either. again, those work fine locally. for further investigation you can see the remote site here : http://www.ajitatif.com/subdomains/nazer/Raporlar/danismanbasarim.aspx

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• R: disentangling scopes

  - by rescdsk

  Hi, Right now, in my R project, I have functions1.R with doFoo() and doBar(), functions2.R with other functions, and main.R with the main program in it, which first does source('functions1.R'); source('functions2.R'), and then calls the other functions. I've been starting the program from the R GUI in Mac OS X, with source('main.R'). This is fine the first time, but after that, the variables that were defined the first time through the program are defined for the second time functions*.R are sourced, and so the functions get a whole bunch of extra variables defined. I don't want that! I want an "undefined variable" error when my function uses a variable it shouldn't! Twice this has given me very late nights of debugging! So how do other people deal with this sort of problem? Is there something like source(), but that makes an independent namespace that doesn't fall through to the main one? Making a package seems like one solution, but it seems like a big pain in the butt compared to e.g. Python, where a source file is automatically a separate namespace. Any tips? Thank you!

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• Array property in Phing

  - by Jahangir

  I have a phing build file that checks the permission of certain files using the <touch> task. <target description="list of files to check permission" name="files-to-test"> <property name="filesToCheck" value=""/> <php expression="file_get_contents('filesToCheck.txt')" returnProperty="filesToCheck"/> <foreach list="${filesToCheck}" param="file" target="permission-test"/> </target> <target description="Test the permission of files that needs to be written" name="permission-test"> <touch file="${file}"/> </target> It calls an extenal file(filesToCheck.txt) which is just a list of different file locations. This works fine. But it prevents me from reusing the same list in my PHP code when I want to access a particular file based on a certain key from the same external file(filesToCheck.txt). I looked through Phing's documentation but didn't find any array Task. Does anyone know of a work around or is creating a new task the only solution for handling an array property in Phing ?

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• global variables in php not working as expected

  - by Josh Smeaton

  I'm having trouble with global variables in php. I have a $screen var set in one file, which requires another file that calls an initSession() defined in yet another file. The initSession() declares "global $screen" and then processes $screen further down using the value set in the very first script. How is this possible? To make things more confusing, if you try to set $screen again then call the initSession(), it uses the value first used once again. The following code will describe the process. Could someone have a go at explaining this? $screen = "list1.inc"; // From model.php require "controller.php"; // From model.php initSession(); // From controller.php global $screen; // From Include.Session.inc echo $screen; // prints "list1.inc" // From anywhere $screen = "delete1.inc"; // From model2.php require "controller2.php" initSession(); global $screen; echo $screen; // prints "list1.inc" Update: If I declare $screen global again just before requiring the second model, $screen is updated properly for the initSession() method. Strange.

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• call lynx from jsp script

  - by Piero

  Hi, I have an execute(String cmd) in a jsp script that calls the exec method from the Runtime class. It works when I call a local command, like a php script stored on the server. for example: /usr/bin/php /path/to/php/script arg1 arg2 So I guess my execute command is ok, since it is working with that. Now when I try to call lynx, the text-based web browser, it does not work. If I call it in a terminal, it works fine: /usr/bin/lynx -dump -accept_all_cookies 'http://www.someurl.net/?arg1=1&arg2=2' But when I call this from my execute command, nothing happens... Any idea why? This is my execute method: public String execute(String cmd){ Runtime r = Runtime.getRuntime(); Process p = null; String res = ""; try { p = r.exec(cmd); InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(isr); String line = null; //out.println(res); while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { res += line; } p.waitFor(); } catch (Exception e) { res += e; } System.out.println(p.exitValue()); return res; }

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• How to prevent Hibernate from nullifying relationship column during entity removal

  - by Grzegorz

  I have two entities, A and B. I need to easily retrieve entities A, joined with entities B on the condition of equal values of some column (some column from A equal to some column in B). Those columns are not primary or foreign keys, they contain same business data. I just need to have access from each instance of A to the collection of B's with the same value of this column. So I model it like this: class A { @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name="column_in_B", referencedColumnName="column_in_A") Collection<B> bs; This way, I can run queries like "select A join fetch a.bs b where b...." (Actually, the real relationship here is many-to-many. But when I use @ManyToMany, Hibernate forces me to use join table, which doesnt exist here. So I have to use @OneToMany as workaround). So far so good. The main problem is: whenever I delete an instance of A, hibernate calls "Update B set column_in_B = null", becuase it thinks the column_in_B is foreign key pointing at primary key in A (and because row in A is deleted, it tries to clean the foreign key in B). BUT the column_in_B IS NOT a foreign key, and can't be modified, because it causes data lost (and this column is NOT NULL anyway in my case, causing data integerity exception to be thrown). Plese help me with this. How to model such relationships with Hibernate? (I would call it "virtual relationships", or "secondary relationships" or so: as they are not based on foreign keys, they are just some shortcuts which allows for retrieving related objects and quering for them with HQL)

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• Exposing a .Net Service

  - by Dave

  I have written a Windows Service in .Net and I want to expose the classes to be called by other .Net code. Specifically, I have an API that I want to expose via a DLL that will be placed in the GAC, and I want the DLL in the GAC to use the classes of the .Net Windows Service. I need this architecture as the code in the Windows Service needs to be run as a different user/account as the caller of the API (the account would be created at install time). My plan was to expose the Windows Service classes via COM (regasm.exe to register and tlbexp.exe to create the type library), and then call the classes in the GAC DLL via COM (imported via tlbimp.exe). However I get the following error from tlbimp: TlbImp : error TI0000 : System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException - Type library '' was exported from a CLR assembly and cannot be re- imported as a CLR assembly. This implies to me that my method is not going to easily work. I can only think that I might need a C++ DLL as a bridge for my GAC DLL to invoke the COM calls, but this seems like a nasty solution. I am basically looking for suggestions. Does anyone know how to expose classes of a Windows Service written in .Net to other .Net code?

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• JQuery Deferred - Adding to the Deferred contract

  - by MgSam

  I'm trying to add another asynchronous call to the contract of an existing Deferred before its state is set to success. Rather than try and explain this in English, see the following pseudo-code: $.when( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 1 done.') jqXhr.pipe( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 2 done.'); }, }) ); }, }), $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 3 done.'); }, }) ).then(function(){ console.log('All done!'); }); Basically, Call 2 is dependent on the results of Call 1. I want Call 1 and Call 3 to be executed in parallel. Once all 3 calls are complete, I want the All Done code to execute. My understanding is that Deferred.pipe() is supposed to chain another asynchronous call to the given deferred, but in practice, I always get Call 2 completing after All Done. Does anyone know how to get jQuery's Deferred to do what I want? Hopefully the solution doesn't involve ripping the code apart into chunks any further. Thanks for any help.

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