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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • Google map API v3 event click raise when clickingMarkerClusterer?

    - by lucian.jp
    I have a Google Map API v3 map object on a page that uses MarkerClusterer. I have a function that need to run when we click on the map to it is registered as: google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function (event) { CallMe(event.latLng); }); So my problem is as follows: When I click on a cluster of MarkerClusterer instead of behaving like a marker and not raise the click event on the map but only the one from the marker it calls the click from the map. To test this I have generated an alert from the markerclusterer click: google.maps.event.addListener(markerClusterer, "clusterclick", function (cluster) { alert('MarkerClusterer click event'); }); So the clusterclick rises after the click event of map object. I then can't remove the listener of map object as a solution. Is there any way to test if there was a clusterer click in the click event of the map? Or a way to replicate the marker behaviour and do not raise the click event of map when clustererclick is called? Google and documentation didn’t help me. Thx

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  • Log off from Remote Desktop Session does not closing Session, showing the login screen again on Wind

    - by Santhosha
    Hi As per requirement we have written one custom GINA. I have observed one interesting behavior in Windows XP 32 Bit(SP2). Customized GINA internally calls windows default Windows GINA(msgina.dll) and shows one extra window as per our requirement. I used to do remote desktop to XP machine from my machine. After replacing Windows GINA with customized GINA I tried to log off from the XP Machine(I am Using Remote Desktop Connection to log in), Log off completes successfully(After showing saving your settings, Closing network connections etc) and I will get log in screen which we get during log on, this is not expected comapred to other flavors of Windows OD. Where as in other operating systems such as Windows XP 64 Bit/ Windows 2003 32/64 Bit even after replacing the Windows Gina with custom GINA remote desktop session closes after log off from the machine. I have tried installing Novell GINA on Windows XP 32 Bit but i have not find any issue with that. I have Tried upgrading XP SP2 to SP3, still i am facing the same issue. Whether anyone faced Such issues when worked with Windows GINA? Thanks in advance Santhosha K S

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  • Python byte per byte XOR decryption

    - by neurino
    I have an XOR encypted file by a VB.net program using this function to scramble: Public Class Crypter ... 'This Will convert String to bytes, then call the other function. Public Function Crypt(ByVal Data As String) As String Return Encoding.Default.GetString(Crypt(Encoding.Default.GetBytes(Data))) End Function 'This calls XorCrypt giving Key converted to bytes Public Function Crypt(ByVal Data() As Byte) As Byte() Return XorCrypt(Data, Encoding.Default.GetBytes(Me.Key)) End Function 'Xor Encryption. Private Function XorCrypt(ByVal Data() As Byte, ByVal Key() As Byte) As Byte() Dim i As Integer If Key.Length <> 0 Then For i = 0 To Data.Length - 1 Data(i) = Data(i) Xor Key(i Mod Key.Length) Next End If Return Data End Function End Class and saved this way: Dim Crypter As New Cryptic(Key) 'open destination file Dim objWriter As New StreamWriter(fileName) 'write crypted content objWriter.Write(Crypter.Crypt(data)) Now I have to reopen the file with Python but I have troubles getting single bytes, this is the XOR function in python: def crypto(self, data): 'crypto(self, data) -> str' return ''.join(chr((ord(x) ^ ord(y)) % 256) \ for (x, y) in izip(data.decode('utf-8'), cycle(self.key)) I had to add the % 256 since sometimes x is 256 i.e. not a single byte. This thing of two bytes being passed does not break the decryption because the key keeps "paired" with the following data. The problem is some decrypted character in the conversion is wrong. These chars are all accented letters like à, è, ì but just a few of the overall accented letters. The others are all correctly restored. I guess it could be due to the 256 mod but without it I of course get a chr exception... Thanks for your support

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  • validation control unable to find its control to validate

    - by nat
    i have a repeater that is bound to a number of custom dataitems/types on the itemdatabound event for the repeater the code calls a renderedit function that depending on the custom datatype will render a custom control. it will also (if validation flag is set) render a validation control for the appropriate rendered edit control the edit control overrides the CreateChildControls() method for the custom control adding a number of literalControls thus protected override void CreateChildControls() { //other bits removed - but it is this 'hidden' control i am trying to validate this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format( "<input type=\"text\" name=\"{0}\" id=\"{0}\" value=\"{1}\" style=\"display:none;\" \">" , this.UniqueID , this.MediaId.ToString()) )); //some other bits removed } the validation control is rendered like this: where the passed in editcontrol is the control instance of which the above createchildcontrols is a method of.. public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.UniqueID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.Dynamic; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.ErrorMessage = this.Caption + " cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; } the problem is, altho the validation controls .ControlToValidate property is set to the uniqueid of the editcontrol. when i hit the page i get the following error: Unable to find control id 'FieldRepeater$ctl01$ctl00' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'FieldRepeater_ctl01_ctl00_validator'. i have tried changing the literal in the createchildcontrols to a new TextBox(), and then set the id etc then, but i get a similar problem. can anyone enlighten me? is this because of the order the controls are rendered in? ie the validation control is written before the editcontrol? or... anyhow any help much appreciated thanks nat

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  • Grouped UITableView Footer Sometimes Hidden On Quick Scroll

    - by jdandrea
    OK, this one is a puzzler. There is one similar post but it's not similar enough to count, so I'm posting this one. :) I've got a grouped UITableView with a header and footer. The footer includes two UIButton views, side-by-side. Nothing major. Now … there is a toggle button in a UIToolbar at the bottom for more/less info in this table view. So I build my index paths to delete/insert with fade row animation, all the usual ingredients, sandwiched between beginUpdates and endUpdates calls on the UITableView … and this works fine! In also happens that my footer can sometimes be pushed off past the bottom of the display. Here's where it gets weird. If I drag my finger up the display, scrolling the view upward, I should see that footer eventually, right? Well … most of the time I do. BUT, if I flick my finger up, for a faster scroll, the footer is missing. Even if you try to tap in that area - no response. However, if I scroll back down again, just to hide that footer (or rather hide the area where the footer would normally be), and then scroll back up, it's there once again! This only happens when inserting rows. If I delete rows, the footer stays put … unless of course it was already hidden and I didn't perform the aforementioned incantation to get it back. :) I am trying to trace through this, but to no avail. I suppose tracing through scroll operations is a bit of a crazy proposition! Perhaps some creative logging … suggestions, anyone? Or is this a known issue in 3.1 where row insert/deletes are concerned? (I don't recall seeing it until 3.1.)

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  • UIView Controller mysteriously getting deallocated

    - by Dan Ray
    I have a UINavigation scheme with a "welcome" page, a middle page, and a detail page. In the middle page, there's a segmented controller that can swap the main body of that page between a table, a calendar, and a MKMapView, each implemented with their own view controller classes. Today I implemented the MapView and its annotations and all of that. It's nice. And a detail disclosure on each callout takes you to the detail page just the same way as if you'd gotten there via the table. Lovely. I also have a right-button-bar button that pushes in a "search" view. From there you can search the data I'm navigating. When it's done filtering the data (an array of objects I'm keeping in a data singleton), it makes the table reload its data, and calls my annotation-clearer-and-builder methods on the map view, and then pops itself out, so the "middle" page (including whatever view was in the guts of it) is back on the screen. Problem is, if I go back and forth between the map and the search a couple times, any mention of the table view causes us to crash with: *** -[CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x710b810. (I obviously have NSZombies turned on.) I put an NSLog in the dealloc method of my table view controller. That thing's never getting called. I don't know if we're ditching it behind the scenes for memory purposes, or if I'm leaking it and can't get my hands back on it, or what. I'm sort of at a loss about where to look. Any hints?

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  • WMI Query Script as a Job

    - by Kenneth
    I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

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  • T4MVC not generating an action

    - by Maslow
    I suspected there was some hidden magic somewhere that stopped what looks like actual method calls all over the place in T4MVC. Then I had a view fail to compile, and the stackTrace went into my actual method. [Authorize] public string Apply(string shortName) { if (shortName.IsNullOrEmpty()) return "Failed alliance name was not transmitted"; if (Request.IsAuthenticated == false || User == null || User.Identity == null) return "Apply authentication failed"; Models.Persistence.AlliancePersistance.Apply(User.Identity.Name, shortName); return "Applied"; } So this method isn't generating in the template after all. <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Apply", "Apply", new RouteValueDictionary() { { "shortName", item.Shortname } }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" })%> <%=Html.ActionLink("Apply",MVC.Alliance.Apply(item.Shortname),new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" }) %> The second method threw an exception on compile because the method Apply in my controller has an [Authorize] attribute so that if someone that isn't logged on clicks this, they get redirected to login, then right back to this page. There they can click on apply again, this time being logged in. And yes I realize one is Ajax.ActionLink while the other is Html.ActionLink I did try them both with the T4MVC version.

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  • Extending EF4 SQL Generation

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We're using EF4 in a fairly large system and occasionally run into problems due to EF4 being unable to convert certain expressions into SQL. At present, we either need to do some fancy footwork (DB/Code) or just accept the performance hit and allow the query to be executed in-memory. Needless to say neither of these is ideal and the hacks we've sometimes had to use reduce readability / maintainability. What we would ideally like is a way to extend the SQL generation capabilities of the EF4 SQL provider. Obviously there are some things like .Net method calls which will always have to be client-side but some functionality like date comparisons (eg Group by weeks in Linq to Entities ) should be do-able. I've Googled but perhaps I'm using the wrong terminology as all I get is information about the new features of EF4 SQL Generation. For such a flexible and extensible framework, I'd be surprised if this isn't possible. In my head, I'm imagining inheriting from the [SQL 2008] provider and extending it to handle additional expressions / similar in the expression tree it's given to convert to SQL. Any help/pointers appreciated. We're using VS2010 Ultimate, .Net 4 (non-client profile) and EF4. The app is in ASP.Net and is running in a 64-Bit environment in case it makes a difference.

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  • Good patterns for loose coupling in Java?

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. I'm new to java, and while reading documentation so far i can't find any good ways for programming with loose coupling between objects. For majority of languages i know (C++, C#, python, javascript) i can manage objects as having 'signals' (notification about something happens/something needed) and 'slots' (method that can be connected to signal and process notification/do some work). In all mentioned languages i can write something like this: Object1 = new Object1Class(); Object2 = new Object2Class(); Connect( Object1.ItemAdded, Object2.OnItemAdded ); Now if object1 calls/emits ItemAdded, the OnItemAdded method of Object2 will be called. Such loose coupling technique is often referred as 'delegates', 'signal-slot' or 'inversion of control'. Compared to interface pattern, technique mentioned don't need to group signals into some interfaces. Any object's methods can be connected to any delegate as long as signatures match ( C++Qt even extends this by allowing only partial signature match ). So i don't need to write additional interface code for each methods / groups of methods, provide default implementation for interface methods not used etc. And i can't see anything like this in Java :(. Maybe i'm looking a wrong way?

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  • Delphi Application using COMMIT and ROLLBACK for Multiple SQL Updates

    - by Matt
    Is it possible to use the SQL BEGIN TRANSACTION, COMMIT TRANSACTION, ROLLBACK TRANSACTION when embedding SQL Queries into an application with mutiple calls to the SQL for Table Updates. For example I have the following code: Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<Select Some Data>); Q.Open; Set Some Variables Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; What I would like to do is if the second update fails I want to roll back the first transaction. If I set a unique notation for the BEGIN, COMMIT, ROLLBACK so as to specify what is being committed or rolled back, is it feasible. i.e. before the first Update specify BEGIN TRANSACTION_A then after the last update specify COMMIT TRANSACTION_A I hope that makes sense. If I was doing this in a SQL Stored Procedure then I would be able to specify this at the start and end of the procedure, but I have had to break the code down into manageable chunks due to process blocks and deadlocks on a heavy loaded SQL Server.

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  • How do I add a header with data to a QTableWidget in Qt?

    - by San Jacinto
    Hi, I'm still learning Qt and I am indebted to the SO community for providing me with great, very timely answers to my Qt questions. Thank you. I'm quite confused on the idea of adding a header to a QTableWidget. What I'd like to do is have a table that contains information about team members. Each row for a member should contain his first and last name, each in its own cell, an email address in one cell, and office in the other cell. I'd to have a header above these columns to name them as appropriate. I'm trying to start off easy and get just the header to display "Last" (as in last name). Here is my code. int column = m_ui-teamTableWidget-columnCount(); m_ui-teamTableWidget-setColumnCount(column+1); QString* qq = new QString("Last"); m_ui-teamTableWidget-horizontalHeader()-model()-setHeaderData(0, Qt::Horizontal, QVariant(QVariant::String, &qq)); My table gets rendered corretly, but the header doesn't contain what I would expect. It contains 1 cell that contains the text "1". I am obviously doing something very silly here that is wrong, but i am lost. I keep pouring over the documentation, finding nothing. Here are the documentation links to the function calls I am making for the very last line. http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qtableview.html#horizontalHeader http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qabstractitemview.html#model http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qabstractitemmodel.html#setHeaderData Thanks for any and all help. Edit: HOW I SOLVED THE PROBLEM Using some help from the accepted answer, I came up with the following code: m_ui-teamTableWidget-setColumnCount(m_ui-teamTableWidget-columnCount()+1); QTableWidgetItem* qtwi = new QTableWidgetItem(QString("Last"),QTableWidgetItem::Type); m_ui-teamTableWidget-setHorizontalHeaderItem(0,qtwi);

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  • find(:all) and then add data from another table to the object

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have two tables: create_table "friendships", :force => true do |t| t.integer "user1_id" t.integer "user2_id" t.boolean "hasaccepted" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end and create_table "users", :force => true do |t| t.string "email" t.string "password" t.string "phone" t.boolean "gender" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.string "firstname" t.string "lastname" t.date "birthday" end I need to show the user a list of Friendrequests, so I use this method in my controller: def getfriendrequests respond_to do |format| case params[:id] when "to_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user2_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) when "from_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user1_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) end format.xml { render :xml => @friendrequests } format.json { render :json => @friendrequests } end end I do nearly everything using AJAX, so to fetch the First and Last name of the user with UID user2_id (the to_me param comes later, don't worry right now), I need a for loop which make multiple AJAX calls. This sucks and costs much bandwidth. So I'd rather like that getfriendrequests also returns the First and Last name of the corresponding users, so, e.g. the JSON response would not be: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3 } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4 } } ] but rather: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3, "firstname": "Jon", "lastname": "Skeet" } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4, "firstname": "Mark", "lastname": "Gravell" } } ] I thought of a for loop in the getfriendrequests method, but I don't know how to implement this, and maybe there is an easier way. It must also work for XML. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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  • How to architect Rails site that can be edited while running?

    - by Chris Kimpton
    Hi, I am writing a Rails app that "scrapes/navigates" some other websites and webservices for content. I am using Mechanize and Savon to do the heavylifting. But given the dynamic nature of the web, I'd like to make my calls to these editable by the admin users of the site - rather than requiring me to release a new version of the site. The actual scraping thread happens async to the website, using the daemons gem. My requirements are: Thinking that the scraping/webservice calling code is quite simple, the easiest route is to make the whole class editable by the admins. Keep a history of the scraping code - so that we can fairly easily revert if we introduce a problem. Initially use the code from the file system, but as soon as thats been edited and stored somewhere, to use that code instead. I am thinking my options are: Store the code in the db (with a history table for the old versions) Store the code in a private git repo somewhere and access that for the history/latest versions. I am thinking the git route might be easiest, given its raison d'etre is to track file history... But perhaps there is a gem/plugin that does all this for me, out of the box? Thanks in advance for any tips/advice. ~chris

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  • Bash: how to simply parallelize tasks?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I'm writing a tiny script that calls the "PNGOUT" util on a few hundred PNG files. I simply did this: find $BASEDIR -iname "*png" -exec pngout {} \; And then I looked at my CPU monitor and noticed only one of the core was used, which is quite sad. In this day and age of dual, quad, octo and hexa (?) cores desktop, how do I simply parallelize this task with Bash? (it's not the first time I've had such a need, for quite a lot of these utils are mono-threaded... I already had the case with mp3 encoders). Would simply running all the pngout in the background do? How would my find command look like then? (I'm not too sure how to mix find and the '&' character) I if have three hundreds pictures, this would mean swapping between three hundreds processes, which doesn't seem great anyway!? Or should I copy my three hundreds files or so in "nb dirs", where "nb dirs" would be the number of cores, then run concurrently "nb finds"? (which would be close enough) But how would I do this?

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  • asp.net doesn't render Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize code

    - by ajitatif
    i'm using the ASP.NET 2.0 Ajax Extensions on a web site. as always, everything is fine on local but the remote web site does not use ajax calls. my local server has the ASP.NET Ajax extensions installed but the remote one doesn't. i know that i should be able to use the Ajax extensions without installing them. so in turn, i added the extensions' .dll among the web site's references but still no luck. after my further investigation, i found out that local and remote pages have exactly the same HTML code rendered, except that the local (working) one has these lines //<![CDATA[ Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ScriptManager1', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls(['tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReportArgs','tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReport'], ['ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$chkTumu','ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnGetir'], [], 90); //]]> obviously, these are the lines of code that make callbacks possible. the question is why doesn't asp.net render these lines? what could be missing? by the way, the ScriptResource.axd and WebResource.axd doesn't give a 404 or anything, i can see through their js codes via Firebug. and one more thing: i'm unsure if it is related or not, but there are client-side asp.net validators on the page whose js code are not rendered either. again, those work fine locally. for further investigation you can see the remote site here : http://www.ajitatif.com/subdomains/nazer/Raporlar/danismanbasarim.aspx

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  • radgrid insert using radwinow

    - by Hamza
    Hello Everybody, The company details page in my system has a user control to show the founders of the company, that user control represents the founders by using a Rad Grid and three buttons for insert/edit/delete founders, the founders grid is being bind by using a WCF service. the insert button calls a javascript method that opens a Rad Window in which the user can insert the data for a new founder my problem is: in the Add Founder Rad Window I shouldn't save the new founder in the database, when I press Add the Rad Grid should be closed and the new founder should be added to the founders Grid's datasource, and then the grid should be bind again the questions is: what is the best way to do that, I don't want to use sessions nor json, I tried to use another wcf service which takes two parameters: reference to the grid and the new founder, and in this wcf service I get the old datasource then add the new founder to it and finally rebind the grid again, but I have faced some problems like how can I send the reference to the grid from javascript method to a WCF service, also if I add more than one founder how can keep track of the new founders and the original datasource if any of you can lead me to an example similar to my case this would be very much appreciated, also any comments and feedback are most welcomed

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  • JQuery Deferred - Adding to the Deferred contract

    - by MgSam
    I'm trying to add another asynchronous call to the contract of an existing Deferred before its state is set to success. Rather than try and explain this in English, see the following pseudo-code: $.when( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 1 done.') jqXhr.pipe( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 2 done.'); }, }) ); }, }), $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 3 done.'); }, }) ).then(function(){ console.log('All done!'); }); Basically, Call 2 is dependent on the results of Call 1. I want Call 1 and Call 3 to be executed in parallel. Once all 3 calls are complete, I want the All Done code to execute. My understanding is that Deferred.pipe() is supposed to chain another asynchronous call to the given deferred, but in practice, I always get Call 2 completing after All Done. Does anyone know how to get jQuery's Deferred to do what I want? Hopefully the solution doesn't involve ripping the code apart into chunks any further. Thanks for any help.

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  • Json HTTP Module stream issue

    - by Justin
    Hey, I have an HTTP Module that I use to clean up the JSON returned by my web service (see http://www.codeproject.com/KB/webservices/ASPNET_JSONP.aspx?msg=3400287#xx3400287xx for an example of this.) Basically it relates to calling cross-domain JSON web services from javascript. There is this JsonHttpModule which uses a JsonResponseFilter Stream class to write out the JSON and the overloaded Write method is supposed to wrap the name of the callback function around the JSON, otherwise the JSON errors out as needing a label. However, if the JSON is really long, the Write method in the Stream class is called multiple times, causing the callback function to incorrectly get inserted midway through the JSON. Is there a way in the Stream class to wrap the callback function around the stream at the end or to specify that it write all of the JSON in 1 Write method instead of in chunks?? Here's where it calls the JsonResponseFilter in the JsonHttpModule: public void OnReleaseRequestState(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = (HttpApplication)sender; if (!_Apply(app.Context.Request)) return; // apply response filter to conform to JSONP app.Context.Response.Filter = new JsonResponseFilter(app.Context.Response.Filter, app.Context); } Here's the Write method in the JsonResponseFilter Stream class that gets called multiple times: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { var b1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(_context.Request.Params["callback"] + "("); _responseStream.Write(b1, 0, b1.Length); _responseStream.Write(buffer, offset, count); var b2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(");"); _responseStream.Write(b2, 0, b2.Length); } Thanks for any help! Justin

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  • Reformat SQLGeography polygons to JSON

    - by James
    I am building a web service that serves geographic boundary data in JSON format. The geographic data is stored in an SQL Server 2008 R2 database using the geography type in a table. I use [ColumnName].ToString() method to return the polygon data as text. Example output: POLYGON ((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666)) MULTIPOLYGON (((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627 0 0, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666 0 0))) Geographic definitions can take the form of either an array of lat/long pairs defining a polygon or in the case of multiple definitions, an array or polygons (multipolygon). I have the following regex that converts the output to JSON objects contained in multi-dimensional arrays depending on the output. Regex latlngMatch = new Regex(@"(-?[0-9]{1}\.\d*)\s(\d{2}.\d*)(?:\s0\s0,?)?", RegexOptions.Compiled); private string ConvertPolysToJson(string polysIn) { return this.latlngMatch.Replace(polysIn.Remove(0, polysIn.IndexOf("(")) // remove POLYGON or MULTIPOLYGON .Replace("(", "[") // convert to JSON array syntax .Replace(")", "]"), // same as above "{lng:$1,lat:$2},"); // reformat lat/lng pairs to JSON objects } This is actually working pretty well and converts the DB output to JSON on the fly in response to an operation call. However I am no regex master and the calls to String.Replace() also seem inefficient to me. Does anyone have any suggestions/comments about performance of this?

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  • When *not* to use prepared statements?

    - by Ben Blank
    I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

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  • 32 bit dllimport generating incorrect format error (0x8007000b) on win7 x64 platform

    - by DFP
    Hello, I'm trying to install and run a 32 bit application on a Win7 x64 machine. The application is built as a Win32 app. It runs fine on 32 bit platforms. On the x64 machine it installs correctly in the Programs(x86) directory and runs fine until I make a call into a 32 bit dll. At that time I get the incorrect format error (0x8007000b) indicating it is trying to load the dll of the wrong bitness. Indeed it is trying to load the 64 bit dll from the System32 directory rather than the 32 bit version in the SystemWOW64 directory. Another 32 bit application provided by the dll vendor runs correctly and it does load the 32 bit dll from the SystemWOW64 directory. I do not have source to their application to see how they are accessing the DLL. I'm using the DllImport function as shown below to access the dll. Is there a way to decorate the DllImport calls to force it to load the 32 bit version? Any thoughts appreciated. Thanks, DP public static class Micronas { [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacBuildDeviceList(uint uFlags); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacGetNumberOfDevices(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetFirstDevice(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetNextDevice(uint handle); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacSetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, uint data); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public unsafe static extern uint UacGetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, IntPtr data); }

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  • Office Automation: What does destroy my encoding?

    - by Filburt
    I'm facing a problem with a Word Mail Merge Automation controlled by our CRM system. The setup Base for the Mail Merge is a Word .dot template which fires a macro on Document.New. Inside this macro I create a .Net component registered for COM. Set myCOMObject = CreateObject("MyCOMObject") The component pulls some data from a database and hands string values which are assigned to Word DocumentVariables. Set someClass = myCOMObject.GetSomeClass(123) ActiveDocument.Variables("docaddress") = someClass.GetSenderAddress(456) All string values returned from the component are encoded in UTF-8 (codepage 1200). What happens The problem arises when the CRM system calls Word to perform the Mail Merge: The string values from the component are turned into UTF-8 encoded strings. All the static text inside the template and the data pulled for the Mail Merge stay nicely encoded in UTF-16 - example the umlaut ü inside my DocumentVariables is turned into c3 b0 while it stays fc for the rest of the document (checked file in hex editor). If I'm creating a document from a template with the same macro functionallity but without performing a Mail Merge all strings are fine; i.e. are encoded in UTF-16. What changed According to the CRM software vendor the encoding of the Mail Merge data export was changed to UTF-16 with the new version we're currently testing. I found out that MS states that you'll expirience issues when the document and the Mail Merge data file encoding don't match. What I tried Since I'm assuming to merge with UTF-16 encoded data I added the following lines to my macro: ActiveDocument.TextEncoding = msoEncodingWestern ActiveDocument.SaveEncoding = msoEncodingUnicodeLittleEndian This is what the Mail Merge data document specifies in its document properties.

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  • Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

    - by Visage
    So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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