Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 208/278 | < Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >

  • Java: Is clone() really ever used? What about defensive copying in getters/setters?

    - by GreenieMeanie
    Do people practically ever use defensive getters/setters? To me, 99% of the time you intend for the object you set in another object to be a copy of the same object reference, and you intend for changes you make to it to also be made in the object it was set in. If you setDate(Date dt) and modify dt later, who cares? Unless I want some basic immutable data bean that just has primitives and maybe something simple like a Date, I never use it. As far as clone, there are issues as to how deep or shallow the copy is, so it seems kind of "dangerous" to know what is going to come out when you clone an Object. I think I have only used clone() once or twice, and that was to copy the current state of the object because another thread (ie another HTTP request accessing the same object in Session) could be modifying it. Edit - A comment I made below is more the question: But then again, you DID change the Date, so it's kind of your own fault, hence whole discussion of term "defensive". If it is all application code under your own control among a small to medium group of developers, will just documenting your classes suffice as an alternative to making object copies? Or is this not necessary, since you should always assume something ISN'T copied when calling a setter/getter?

    Read the article

  • Debugging in VS 2008 locks a stored procedure

    - by larryq
    Hi everyone, I've got a strange one here. I have a .Net executable that, under the hood, calls a few stored procedures. For whatever reason, one of the stored procs hangs when I'm debugging. If I run the executable outside of visual studio things go fine, including this stored proc. It's when I'm debugging that this hangs, and it really hangs. If I stop the debugging session the IDE freezes and I have to kill it via taskmanager. I know which stored procedure has the trouble, as well as the actual statement within it that's the problem. It's calling an update statement that doesn't stand out as particularly special. I can run the identical statement (and the stored procedure itself) from SQL management studio wtih no problem. And, as I mentioned, the exe runs just fine outside the debugger. If I use the SQL activity monitor to see why things are hanging, the wait type says PREEMPTIVE_DEBUG. I'm not sure if that's helpful but if you need more info I'll try to get it to you. I've rebooted my machine (the SQL Server in question is on this box as well) and that didn't do anything, nor did rebuilding the executable. I'm scratching my head on this one and if you have any ideas what to check on next, I'm be happy to listen. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to output JSON from within Django and call it with jQuery from a cross domain?

    - by Emre Sevinç
    For a bookmarklet project I'm trying to get JSON data using jQuery from my server (which is naturally on a different domain) running a Django powered system. According to jQuery docs: "As of jQuery 1.2, you can load JSON data located on another domain if you specify a JSONP callback, which can be done like so: "myurl?callback=?". jQuery automatically replaces the ? with the correct method name to call, calling your specified callback." And for example I can test it successfully in my Firebug console using the following snippet: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any& format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); It prints the returned data in an alert window, e.g. 'Recent uploads tagged cat'. However when I try the similar code with my server I don't get anything at all: $.getJSON("http://mydjango.yafz.org/randomTest?jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); There are no alert windows and the Firebug status bar says "Transferring data from mydjango.yafz.org..." and keeps on waiting. On the server side I have this: def randomTest(request): somelist = ['title', 'This is a constant result'] encoded = json.dumps(somelist) response = HttpResponse(encoded, mimetype = "application/json") return response I also tried this without any success: def randomTest(request): if request.is_ajax() == True: req = {} req ['title'] = 'This is a constant result.' response = json.dumps(req) return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") So to cut a long story short: what is the suggested method of returning a piece of data from within a Django view and retrieve it using jQuery in a cross domain fashion? What are my mistakes above?

    Read the article

  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

    Read the article

  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

    Read the article

  • Does using ReadDirectoryChangesW require administrator rights?

    - by Alex Jenter
    The MSDN says that using ReadDirectoryChangesW implies the calling process having the Backup and Restore priviliges. Does this mean that only process launched under administrator account will work correctly? I've tried the following code, it fails to enable the required privileges when running as a restricted user. void enablePrivileges() { enablePrivilege(SE_BACKUP_NAME); enablePrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME); } void enablePrivilege(LPCTSTR name) { HANDLE hToken; DWORD status; if (::OpenProcessToken(::GetCurrentProcess(), TOKEN_ADJUST_PRIVILEGES, &hToken)) { TOKEN_PRIVILEGES tp = { 1 }; if( ::LookupPrivilegeValue(NULL, name, &tp.Privileges[0].Luid) ) { tp.Privileges[0].Attributes = SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED; BOOL result = ::AdjustTokenPrivileges(hToken, FALSE, &tp, 0, NULL, NULL); verify (result != FALSE); status = ::GetLastError(); } ::CloseHandle(hToken); } } Am I doing something wrong? Is there any workaround for using ReadDirectoryChangesW from a non-administrator user account? It seems that the .NET's FileSystemWatcher can do this. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

    - by TomTom
    Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

    Read the article

  • Why is curl in Ruby slower than command-line curl?

    - by Stiivi
    I am trying to download more than 1m pages (URLs ending by a sequence ID). I have implemented kind of multi-purpose download manager with configurable number of download threads and one processing thread. The downloader downloads files in batches: curl = Curl::Easy.new batch_urls.each { |url_info| curl.url = url_info[:url] curl.perform file = File.new(url_info[:file], "wb") file << curl.body_str file.close # ... some other stuff } I have tried to download 8000 pages sample. When using the code above, I get 1000 in 2 minutes. When I write all URLs into a file and do in shell: cat list | xargs curl I gen all 8000 pages in two minutes. Thing is, I need it to have it in ruby code, because there is other monitoring and processing code. I have tried: Curl::Multi - it is somehow faster, but misses 50-90% of files (does not download them and gives no reason/code) multiple threads with Curl::Easy - around the same speed as single threaded Why is reused Curl::Easy slower than subsequent command line curl calls and how can I make it faster? Or what I am doing wrong? I would prefer to fix my download manager code than to make downloading for this case in a different way. Before this, I was calling command-line wget which I provided with a file with list of URLs. Howerver, not all errors were handled, also it was not possible to specify output file for each URL separately when using URL list. Now it seems to me that the best way would be to use multiple threads with system call to 'curl' command. But why when I can use directly Curl in Ruby? Code for the download manager is here, if it might help: Download Manager (I have played with timeouts, from not-setting it to various values, it did not seem help) Any hints appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I find the object with the oldest updated_at column in RJS?

    - by user284194
    Hello, I'm trying to remove the object with the oldest updated_at value when the rjs is executed. page.insert_html :top, :messages, :partial => @message page[@message].visual_effect :grow page[:message_form].reset Message.old_messages.each do |m| page.remove(m.id) end page.delay(1) do page.select('.message').last.visual_effect :fade end I'm using .last in there right now, but I have a periodically_call_remote in the view that continually updates and runs the rjs above. The line: page.select('.message').last.visual_effect :fade seems to only execute the first time because after the message that is "last" fades away there's nothing recognized as "last" anymore so I figure instead of calling .last I could find the object that has the oldest updated_at time stamp and just remove that instead. I'm thinking that I probably cannot do this using page.select since it only calls on css elements. And therefore I probably don't have access to the updated_at values in the Message model. Does anyone have a suggestion on how to accomplish removing the oldest message with rjs? The messages are already automatically removed in the model as new messages are created. But I want them to fade automatically when the RJS refreshes the element.

    Read the article

  • Using Rx to synchronize asynchronous events

    - by Martin Liversage
    I want to put Reactive Extensions for .NET (Rx) to good use and would like to get some input on doing some basic tasks. To illustrate what I'm trying to do I have a contrived example where I have an external component with asyncronous events: class Component { public void BeginStart() { ... } public event EventHandler Started; } The component is started by calling BeginStart(). This method returns immediately, and later, when the component has completed startup, the Started event fires. I want to create a synchronous start method by wrapping the component and wait until the Started event is fired. This is what I've come up with so far: class ComponentWrapper { readonly Component component = new Component(); void StartComponent() { var componentStarted = Observable.FromEvent<EventArgs>(this.component, "Started"); using (var startedEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false)) using (componentStarted.Take(1).Subscribe(e => { startedEvent.Set(); })) { this.componenet.BeginStart(); startedEvent.WaitOne(); } } } I would like to get rid of the ManualResetEvent, and I expect that Rx has a solution. But how?

    Read the article

  • How can I use Django with MySQL in MAMP stack?

    - by Robert A Henru
    Hi all, I have difficulty especially in installing MySQLdb module (MySQL-python-1.2.3c1), to connect to the MySQL in MAMP stack. I've done a number of things such as copying the mysql include directory and library (including plugin) from a fresh installation of mysql (version 5.1.47) to the one inside MAMP (version 5.1.37). Now, the MySQLdb module build and install doesnt give me error. The error happens when I'm calling 'import MySQLdb' from python shell (version 2.6). Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/MySQLdb/__init__.py", line 19, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/_mysql.py", line 7, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/_mysql.py", line 6, in __bootstrap__ ImportError: dlopen(/Users/rhenru/.python-eggs/MySQL_python-1.2.3c1-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/_mysql.so, 2): Symbol not found: _mysql_affected_rows Referenced from: /Users/rhenru/.python-eggs/MySQL_python-1.2.3c1-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/_mysql.so Expected in: flat namespace in /Users/rhenru/.python-eggs/MySQL_python-1.2.3c1-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/_mysql.so Any idea, what else do I need to do to make it works? Thanks a bunch, Robert

    Read the article

  • Getting a connection from a Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 fails with message "User name property miss

    - by Abel Morelos
    I have a standalone application that needs to connect to a Sybase database via a datasource, I'm trying to connect using getConnection() and get the connection from this Sybase datasource which is hosted in WAS 6.1, sadly I'm getting an error JZ004 - Sybase(R) jConnect for JDBC(TM) Programmer's Reference: SQL Exception and Warning Messages JZ004 error message is: User name property missing in DriverManager.getConnection(..., Properties) Action: Provide the required user property. As you can see, this is not a connectivity (so we can discard JNDI or lookup problems), but rather a configuration problem. For my Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 I have set up the proper authentication alias (Component-managed Authentication Alias), and I know the credentials are alright, "Test Connection" is successful for this datasource. Somebody had a similar problem and was because of the authentication alias- http://forum.springsource.org/showthread.php?t=39915 Next, I tried calling getConnection() but now I provided the credentials like getConnection(user, password)... and this time it worked!!! So I suspect that somehow WAS 6.1 is not picking or taking the authentication info I set in the datasource as mentioned before. If you think that maybe getConnection(user, password) should be OK for my case, well, that's not the case since I have a requirement to keep the credentials in the server, the standalone application only needs to know the JNDI information to lookup the datasource. Please let me know if have faced a similar problem, or what would you suggest me to do. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

    Read the article

  • After Adding "readonly" attribute on text box not able to remove it in one event

    - by Sreedhar K
    Steps to repro USE Internet Explorer Check unlimited check box Click on text box (It will remove tick/check from check box) Try to enter text in text box We cannot enter in the text box 4. Click again on the text box. Now we will be able to enter text in the text box We tried by 1. Making attribute readOnly to flase i.e. $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); 2. Calling $('#myinput').click(); Below is the HTML code <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Make input read only</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.4.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <input id="myinput" type="text" /> <input id="mycheck" type="checkbox" /> <script type="text/javascript"> /*oncheck box click*/ $('#mycheck').click(function () { if ($(this).attr('checked')) { $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', 'readOnly'); } else { $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ } }); /*on text box click*/ $('#myinput').click(function () { $('#mycheck').removeAttr('checked'); $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ }); </script> </body> </html> Live copy

    Read the article

  • Design Practice Retrieve Multiple Users - PHP

    - by pws5068
    Greetings all, I'm looking for a more efficient way to grab multiple users without too much code redundancy. I have a Users class, (here's a highly condensed representation) Class Users { function __construct() { ... ... } private static function getNew($id) { // This is all only example code $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE User_ID=?"; $user = new User(); $user->setID($id); .... return $user; } public static function getNewestUsers($count) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users ORDER BY Join_Date LIMIT ?"; $users = array(); // Prepared Statement Data Here while($stmt->fetch()) { $users[] = Users::getNew($id); ... } return $users; } // These have more sanity/security checks, demonstration only. function setID($id) { $this->id = $id; } function setName($name) { $this->name = $name; } ... } So clearly calling getNew() in a loop is inefficient, because it makes $count number of calls to the database each time. I would much rather select all users in a single SQL statement. The problem is that I have probably a dozen or so methods for getting arrays of users, so all of these would now need to know the names of the database columns which is repeating a lot of structure that could always change later. What are some other ways that I could approach this problem? My goals include efficiency, flexibility, scalability, and good design practice.

    Read the article

  • multi-part identifier could not be bound error

    - by vishal Shah
    Here is my query: IF OBJECT_ID('NPWAS1513.dbo.usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load; GO CREATE PROCEDURE usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load @create_timestamp datetime, @update_timestamp datetime, @create_user varchar(50), @update_user varchar(50), @dbProdServ varchar(50) AS print 'dbProdServ is:'+ @dbProdServ; print 'current_user is:' +@current_user; DECLARE @sSQL AS VARCHAR(MAX); SET @sSQL = '' SET @sSQL = 'set identity_insert ' + @dbProdServ + '.mspex_qlk_billing_fact ON' EXEC(@sSQL); SET @sSQL = 'INSERT INTO ' + @dbProdServ +'.mspex_qlk_billing_fact (project_id, billing_year, billing_month, billing_month_desc, billing_date_id, projected_bill_amount, billed_year_to_date_amount, billed_inception_to_date_amount, remaining_bill_amount, actual_billed_amount, current_billing_percent, previous_billing_percent, billing_pct_diff, billing_type, final_bill_ind, last_in_progress_date, current_record_ind, load_time_stamp, total_contract_period, contract_period_current_year, partial_bill, create_timestamp, create_user, update_timestamp, update_user) SELECT project_dim.project_id, billing_final_data.billingyear, billing_final_data.billingmonth, billing_final_data.billingmonthdesc, Time_Dim.Time_ID, billing_final_data.projected_bill_amount, billing_final_data.billed_year_todate_amount, billing_final_data.billed_inception_todate_amount, billing_final_data.remaining_bill_amount, billing_final_data.actual_billed_amount, billing_final_data.current_billing_percent, billing_final_data.previous_billing_percent, billing_final_data.billing_pct_diff, billing_final_data.billing_type, billing_final_data.final_bill_ind, billing_final_data.last_in_progress_date, billing_final_data.current_record_ind, billing_final_data.load_time_stamp, billing_final_data.[Total Contract Period], billing_final_data.[Contract Period Current Year], billing_final_data.[Partial Bill],'''+ CAST(@create_timestamp as varchar(max)) + ''',''' + @create_user + ''','''+ CAST(@update_timestamp as varchar(50)) +''','''+ @update_user + ''' FROM '+ @dbProdServ +'.mspex_qlk_project_dim project_dim,'+ @dbProdServ +'.mspex_rpt_billing_final_data billing_final_data,'+ @dbProdServ + '.MSPEX_QLK_Time_Dim Time_Dim WHERE project_dim.myproject_project_uid = billing_final_data.projectuid AND'''+ convert(datetime, cast(billing_final_data.[BillingMonth] as nvarchar(2)) + '''/01/''' + cast(billing_final_data.[billingyear] as nvarchar(4)), 101) +''' + = Time_Dim.Time_Date'; BEGIN TRANSACTION EXEC(@sSQL) COMMIT TRANSACTION I get the error msg: Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 23 The multi-part identifier "mspex_rpt_billing_final_data.BillingMonth" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 23 The multi-part identifier "billing_final_data.billingyear" could not be bound. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 83 Invalid column name 'BillingMonth'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 84 Invalid column name 'billingyear'. I checked the column names, etc. and things are fine. In fact, I directly dragged the table name and column name to ensure that it is correct. Please help ASAP. Calling me at cell at 630-338-9427 would be great. But an URGENT response is absolutely necessary. Thanks guys.

    Read the article

  • verilog / systemverilog -- What is the behavior of blocking statements across two always blocks?

    - by miles.sherman
    I am wondering about the behavior of the below code. There are two always blocks, one is combinational to calculate the next_state signal, the other is sequential which will perform some logic and determine whether or not to shutdown the system. It does this by setting the shutdown_now signal high and then calling state <= next_state. My question is if the conditions become true that the shutdown_now signal is set (during clock cycle n) in a blocking manner before the state <= next_state line, will the state during clock cycle n+1 be SHUTDOWN or RUNNING? In other words, does the shutdown_now = 1'b1 line block across both state machines since the state signal is dependent on it through the next_state determination? enum {IDLE, RUNNING, SHUTDOWN} state, next_state; logic shutdown_now; // State machine (combinational) always_comb begin case (state) IDLE: next_state <= RUNNING; RUNNING: next_state <= shutdown ? SHUTDOWN : RUNNING; SHUTDOWN: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; default: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; endcase end // Sequential Behavior always_ff @ (posedge clk) begin // Some code here if (/*some condition) begin shutdown_now = 1'b0; end else begin shutdown_now = 1'b1; end state <= next_state; end

    Read the article

  • maven-release-plugin: Perform fails with 'working directory "...workspace\target\checkout\workspace"

    - by Ed
    Hi, I have maven project that fails when release:perform is called, though release;prepare works as expected. I have found the bug report (below) which certainly seems to resemble the issue I have but not entirely sure I understand the problem: MRELEASE516 The last few lines of output I get: [INFO] Executing: cmd.exe /X /C "p4 -d E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout -p 10.20.0.38:1666 client -d myProjectWorkspace-MavenSCM-E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout" [INFO] Executing goals 'deploy'... [WARNING] Base directory is a file. Using base directory as POM location. [WARNING] Maven will be executed in interactive mode, but no input stream has been configured for this MavenInvoker instance. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error executing Maven. Working directory "E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout\workspace" does not exist! From reading the bug report the possible cause of the error is related to my modules' structure, I've tried to outline it below: /workspace | |+ pom.xml (root pom whose parent is the build pom, | calling release:perform on this pom) | [Modules: moduleA and moduleB] | |- moduleA |+ pom.xml (parent is also build pom) |+ build/pom.xml (the build pom - no custom parent) |- moduleB |+ pom.xml (parent is build pom) It seems that the root pom should be in some common directory inside 'workspace' from the error but tried that and doesn't work, nor make sense as to why I need it. What does the warning Base directory is a file want me to do instead?! It then figures that the base directory is workspace which then means the working directory is not found...any ideas? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading chart on the view in asp.net mvc?

    - by mary
    hello, I am working on the chart project in asp.net mvc. i used followinf code to genrate the chart on the controller. Chart chart1 = new Chart(); chart1.Height = 296; chart1.Width = 412; chart1.ImageType = ChartImageType.Png; Title title = chart1.Titles.Add("Main"); Series series1 = chart1.Series.Add("series1"); chart1.Series["series1"].Points.DataBindXY(xvalues, yvalues); chart1.Series["series1"].ChartType = SeriesChartType.Column ; ChartArea chartArea = chart1.ChartAreas.Add("Default"); chartArea.Area3DStyle.Enable3D = false ; MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); chart1.SaveImage(ms); return File(ms.GetBuffer(), @"image/png"); and on the view page i am calling it as img src="/Home/SampleChart" alt="Sample Chart" when i am running it on local pc its working fine but when i deployed it on server then chart is not displaying instated alernate text is showing. and its not working on another pc also. plz if anyone can know the reson tell me. thank you.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading chart on the view in asp.net mvc?

    - by mary
    hello, I am working on the chart project in asp.net mvc. i used followinf code to genrate the chart on the controller. Chart chart1 = new Chart(); chart1.Height = 296; chart1.Width = 412; chart1.ImageType = ChartImageType.Png; Title title = chart1.Titles.Add("Main"); Series series1 = chart1.Series.Add("series1"); chart1.Series["series1"].Points.DataBindXY(xvalues, yvalues); chart1.Series["series1"].ChartType = SeriesChartType.Column ; ChartArea chartArea = chart1.ChartAreas.Add("Default"); chartArea.Area3DStyle.Enable3D = false ; MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); chart1.SaveImage(ms); return File(ms.GetBuffer(), @"image/png"); and on the view page i am calling it as when i am running it on local pc its working fine but when i deployed it on server then chart is not displaying instated alernate text is showing. and its not working on another pc also. plz if anyone can know the reson tell me. thank you.

    Read the article

  • Filter subform using combobox

    - by TT1611
    This has taken me nearly 2 weeks and I dont know what else to do. I have a main form (UserSearch) that has a subform (TestUserSub). The associated table for both forms is tblusers. very simple; on the main form (UserSearch) I have a comboboxes associated with the fields in the tblusers eg cmbid, cmbname, cmbdept and so on. All I want, is for a user to make a selection from any of these comboboxes and for the associated fields to display in the subform (TestUserSub). I have tried several different versions of code in the afterupdate event in a couple of the comboboxes and nothing is happening in the subform or in other instances I get error message. One example i have tried is filtering running an SQL command Private Sub cmbid_AfterUpdate() Dim strSQL As String If IsNull(Me.cmbaccess) Then Me.RecordSource = "tblusers" Else strSQL = "SELECT tblUsers.[Team Member_ID] FROM tblUsers " & _ "WHERE (((tblUsers.[Team Member_ID])= " & [form_testusersub].[txtid2]))& ";" Me.RecordSource = strSQL End If End Sub The above didnt work..Can someone please help me with this. I have a sample database that i have been working off and by some very strange way, they have managed to do this same thing without calling any code. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Properly declare delegation in Objective C (iPhone)

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    Ok, This has been explained a few times (I got most of the way there using this post on SO), but I am missing something. I am able to compile cleanly, and able to set the delegate as well as call methods from the delegate, but I'm getting a warning on build: No definition of protocol 'DetailViewControllerDelegate' is found I have a DetailViewController and a RootViewController only. I am calling a method in RootViewController from DetailViewController. I have the delegate set up as so: In RootViewController.h: #import "DetailViewController.h" @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate, DetailViewControllerDelegate> //Error shows up here { //Some Stuff Here } //Some other stuff here @end In RootViewController.m I define the delegate when I create the view using detailViewController.delegate = self In DetailViewController.h: @protocol DetailViewControllerDelegate; #import "RootViewController.h" @interface DetailViewController : UITableViewController <UITextFieldDelegate> { id <DetailViewControllerDelegate> delegate; } @property (nonatomic, assign) id <DetailViewControllerDelegate> delegate; @end @protocol DetailViewControllerDelegate //some methods that reside in RootViewController.m @end I feel weird about declaring the protocol above the import in DetailViewController.h, but if I don't it doesn't build. Like I said, the methods are called fine, and there are no other errors going on. What am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • How can I add a plugin to the registry while using a Zend_Form?

    - by Mallika Iyer
    I have a zend form that I'm initializing as follows: $form = new Form_XYZ(); I have a display group in that form, which I'm calling like this: $form->addDisplayGroup($generalSettingsGroup, 'general', array( 'legend' => 'General', 'disableDefaultDecorators' => true, 'decorators' => array( 'FormElements', 'FieldSet', array('HtmlTag', array('tag' => 'div', 'class' => 'general') ) ) ) ); I get this error : ArrayObject Object ( [exception] => Zend_Loader_PluginLoader_Exception Object ( [message:protected] => Plugin by name 'FieldSet' was not found in the registry; used paths:Zend_Form_Decorator_: Zend/Form/Decorator/ [string:private] => [code:protected] => 0 [file:protected] => /usr/share/pear/PEAR/Zend/Loader/PluginLoader.php [line:protected] => 406 [trace:private] => Array ................... How can I add the FieldSet plugin to the registry? I'm using the default Zend_Form Fieldset decorator.

    Read the article

  • Find & Replace - using a Regex for this?

    - by Jack W-H
    Hey folks. Regexs make me cry, so, I came here for help. I'm looking for some tips on Find & Replace in Panic's Coda. I know the F&R is pretty advance but I'm just looking for the best way to do this. I'm trying to rewrite a 'template engine' (very basic) I have going on with a webapp I'm coding in PHP (CodeIgniter). Currently I'm calling my template like so: $this->load->view('subviews/template/headerview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/menuview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/sidebar'); $this->load->view('The-View-I-Want-To-Load'); // This is the important line $this->load->view('subviews/template/footerview'); However it's inefficient using five lines of code every time I want to load up a different page, in every different controller. So I rewrote it like this: $data['view'] = 'The-View-I-Want-To-Load'; $this->load->view('template',$data); That way if I need to make any major changes to the design it can easily be done from the template.php view file (which contains the header, menu, sidebar views etc. etc.). However I use the previous 5-lines all over the place in many different controllers and functions. So, my question is --- How can I find and replace the old template engine (5 lines of code) for the new one - substituting in the name of the view in the important, unique line for the one in $data['view]? Does that make any sense?! If not I'll try and rephrase! I mean, is there a way of doing this via a Regex or something? Or am I on completely the wrong lines here? Thanks for your help Jack

    Read the article

  • How do i close the alert dialog that displays custom view

    - by Asdfg
    I have an activity named MainActivity which has a button. On click of that button i am displaying an AlertDialog which contains a custom view named ChildWindow.xml. That custom view has multiple textboxes and a OK button. On click of the OK button, i am calling a method of MainActivity. I am able to access the ChildWindow here as view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Once the user clicks on the OK button, i have to close the alert dialog which i am able to do as view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); My problem is even though i have closed the the ChildWindow in the above statement, i am able to get reference to the textbox in the next line which means AlertDialog is closed but child window is still there. This is how the OK button click looks like: This works as expected: EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); This should not work as i am closing the alert dialog and then getting the reference of the textbox but this works too. view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); I think i am closing the alert dialog but i am not destroying it from the memory. Can someone point me out what am i missing here?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >