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  • Flex - Increase timeout on a PHP service function call

    - by Travesty3
    I'm using Flash Builder 4 Beta 2. I have it connecting to a PHP service. The way I set this up was using the wizard, so I didn't actually write the code to connect to it. The service looks like this: package services.flash { import mx.rpc.AsyncToken; import com.adobe.fiber.core.model_internal; import mx.rpc.AbstractOperation; import valueObjects.CustomDatatype8; import valueObjects.NewUsageData; import mx.collections.ItemResponder; import mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject; import mx.rpc.remoting.Operation; import com.adobe.fiber.services.wrapper.RemoteObjectServiceWrapper; import com.adobe.fiber.valueobjects.AvailablePropertyIterator; import com.adobe.serializers.utility.TypeUtility; [ExcludeClass] internal class _Super_FLASH extends RemoteObjectServiceWrapper { // Constructor public function _Super_FLASH() { // initialize service control _serviceControl = new RemoteObject(); var operations:Object = new Object(); var operation:Operation; operation = new Operation(null, "sendCommand"); operation.resultType = Object; operations["sendCommand"] = operation; ... } } One of the functions that I'm calling fetches users from a MySQL database. There are about 30,000 users right now. The service seems to timeout when fetching more than around 22,000 rows, I get the "Channel Disconnected before an acknowledgement was received" error. If I call the PHP script from a browser, it fetches them all with no problems at all, however. I have tried increasing the timeout in the PHP script (which didn't work), but obviously this isn't the problem since the browser is able to pull them up with no problems. Is there a way to increase the timeout of the PHP service in Flash Builder? I'm a bit of a noob when it comes to Flash, so please be descriptive. Thanks in advance!

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  • Colorbox with bxslider not working

    - by Bill K
    Hello I am trying to use bxslider with colorbox. My implementation of bxslider is like an example listed here. The difference is that I want only the pagers to be shown. Also when the user clicks one pager I want colorbox to open and have next and previous buttons. The problem is that I cant group the images with colorbox and next and previous button is not shown! The following code uses the rel option but with this way colorbox doesnt event start. What I have tried till now is: HTML <div class="slider_mini" style="position:relative;bottom:0px;"> <div id="bx-pager"> <a data-slide-index="0" href="image.jpg" class="imgz"><img style="width:130px;height:104px;" src="image.jpg"/></a> <a data-slide-index="1" href="image2.jpg" class="imgz"><img style="width:130px;height:104px;" src="image2.jpg"/></a> <a data-slide-index="2" href="image3.jpg" class="imgz"><img style="width:130px;height:104px;" src="image3.jpg"/></a> </div> </div> SCRIPT <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.imgz').colorbox({rel:'imgz'}); $('.bxslider.two').bxSlider({ pagerCustom: '#bx-pager' }); $('#bx-pager').bxSlider({ slideWidth: 130, minSlides: 2, maxSlides: 3, moveSlides: 1, slideMargin: 10 }); }); </script> Not working Fiddle. Feedback: The problem was in live website that I was calling colorbox before bxslider. I put the call after bxslider's and it works. Thank you.

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  • JSF Managed Property question

    - by kidvid
    I have a search page that I'll called "Parent." The search page references a country lookup page that I'll call "Child." When the user selects a country on Child's page and clicks on OK, I set the country back into the parent page. I do this by calling a method on the Parent page called "UpdateCountryCodeWithLookupValue(Child child)" When the user clicks on OK on the Child page, that method gets called in the parent, wherein it'll get the selected country code out of the Child page and set it into a text entry field. My question has to do with the proper way to set up this relationship in the faces config file. The way I have it now is that the child has a managed property for the parent. I.e., in my Child page I defined a method called "SetParent(Parent parent)". Is there any drawback to doing it this way? Would it be preferable to set the managed property so that the Child page class is a property of the parent instead of vice-versa? Let's say that I could have two Parent (search) pages open at the same time, and each of these was able to open the Child page (country code lookup). What would be the ramification for that circumstance in terms of the managed property in the faces config file? Thanks, Adrian

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  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

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  • Question about WeakReferences

    - by Impz0r
    Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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  • should std::auto_ptr<>::operator = reset / deallocate its existing pointee ?

    - by afriza
    I read here about std::auto_ptr<::operator= Notice however that the left-hand side object is not automatically deallocated when it already points to some object. You can explicitly do this by calling member function reset before assigning it a new value. However, when I read the source code for header file C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\ce\include\memory template<class _Other> auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Other>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Ty>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr_ref<_Ty> _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right._Ref (assume pointer) _Ty **_Pptr = (_Ty **)_Right._Ref; _Ty *_Ptr = *_Pptr; *_Pptr = 0; // release old reset(_Ptr); // set new return (*this); } What is the correct/standard behavior? How do other STL implementations behave?

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  • Files not waiting for each other

    - by Sunny
    I have two batch files as follows in which file2.bat is dependent on file1.bat's output: file1.bat @ECHO OFF setlocal enabledelayedexpansion SET "keystring1=" ( FOR /f "delims=" %%a IN ( Source.txt ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "Appprocess.exe" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 SET keystring1=%%a FOR %%b IN (App1 App2 App3 App4 App5 App6 ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "%%b" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 IF DEFINED keystring1 CALL ECHO(%%keystring1%% %%b&SET "keystring1=" )))>result.txt GOTO :EOF file2.bat @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion (for /f "tokens=1,2" %%a in (memory.txt) do ( for /f "tokens=5" %%c in ('find " %%a " ^< result.txt ') do echo %%c %%b ))> new.txt file1.bat usually takes 60 sec to complete its execution. In master.bat file i am calling above two files as: call file1.bat call file2.bat but file2.bat is not waiting for file1.bat to complete its execution. Even , i tried to call file2.bat within file1.bat as below but still its not waiting for file1.bat to get completed: @ECHO OFF setlocal enabledelayedexpansion SET "keystring1=" ( FOR /f "delims=" %%a IN ( Source.txt ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "HsvDataSource.exe" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 SET keystring1=%%a FOR %%b IN (EUHFMPROD USHFMPROD TL2TEST GSHFMPROD TL2PROD GSARCH1213 TL2FY13) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "%%b" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 IF DEFINED keystring1 CALL ECHO(%%keystring1%% %%b&SET "keystring1=" )))>file2.txt GOTO :EOF call file1.bat I also tried below start option, but no effect.: start file1.bat /wait call file2.bat Not getting ..why its happening..?

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  • How to avoid game rendering component circular references?

    - by CodexArcanum
    I'm working on a simple game design, and I wanted to break up my game objects into more reusable components. But I'm getting stuck on how exactly to implement the design I have in mind. Here's an example: I have a Logger object, whose job is simply to store a list of messages and render them to screen. You know, logging. Originally the Logger just held the list, and the game loop rendered it's contents. Then I moved the rendering logic into the Logger.Draw() method, and now I want to move it further into a LoggerRenderer object. In effect, I want to have the game loop call RenderAll, which will then call Logger.Render, which will in turn call the LoggerRenderer.Render and finally output the text. So the Logger needs to contain a Renderer object, but the Renderer needs access to the Logger's state (the message queue) in order to render. How do I resolve that? Should I be passing in the message queue and other state information explicitly to the Render method? Or should the game loop be calling the Renderer directly and it links back to the logger, but the RenderAll method never actually sees the logger object itself? This feels kind of like Command pattern, but I'm botching it up terribly.

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  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • Using multiple sockets, is non-blocking or blocking with select better?

    - by JPhi1618
    Lets say I have a server program that can accept connections from 10 (or more) different clients. The clients send data at random which is received by the server, but it is certain that at least one client will be sending data every update. The server cannot wait for information to arrive because it has other processing to do. Aside from using asynchronous sockets, I see two options: Make all sockets non-blocking. In a loop, call recv on each socket and allow it to fail with WSAEWOULDBLOCK if there is no data available and if I happen to get some data, then keep it. Leave the sockets as blocking. Add all sockets to a fd_set and call select(). If the return value is non-zero (which it will be most of the time), loop through all the sockets to find the appropriate number of readable sockets with FD_ISSET() and only call recv on the readable sockets. The first option will create a lot more calls to the recv function. The second method is a bigger pain from a programming perspective because of all the FD_SET and FD_ISSET looping. Which method (or another method) is preferred? Is avoiding the overhead on letting recv fail on a non-blocking socket worth the hassle of calling select()? I think I understand both methods and I have tried both with success, but I don't know if one way is considered better or optimal. Only knowledgeable replies please!

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  • Name Values in Excel Object model

    - by mcoolbeth
    I am using VSTO to create an Excel add-in. My plan is to persist objects inside of excel workbooks by serializing them to strings and assigning those strings to be the values of names in the workbook. However, when I call the API function to add the new name, I get a mysterious exception from the COM library. More precisely, I am calling _app.ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add(name, value, true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); where name = "an_object" and value = "TestTemplate|'Sheet1'!$A$1| 1Cube=(0,1):(1,2)| 2EntryNumber=(1,1):(2,2)| 3Description=(2,1):(3,2)| 4Group=(4,1):(5,2)| 5Repost=(3,1):(4,2)| 6Debit=(13,3):(16,4)| 7Credit=(13,2):(16,3)|Company=(6,1):(7,2)|Company Partner=(7,1):(8,2)|Time Monthly=(8,1):(9,2)|Currency=(9,1):(10,2)|Version=(10,1):(11,2)|Department=(13,0):(16,1)|Account=(13,1):(16,2)|" A hypothesis is that the value string does not qualify as a string that can be stored in a name (illegal characters, too long, etc) but I cannot find any documentation about what the restrictions are. Does anyone know what is going wrong here? The error message, in case anyone wants it, is Exception from HRESULT: 0x800A03EC Thanks alot.

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  • Loading animation Memory leak

    - by Ayaz Alavi
    Hi, I have written network class that is managing all network calls for my application. There are two methods showLoadingAnimationView and hideLoadingAnimationView that will show UIActivityIndicatorView in a view over my current viewcontroller with fade background. I am getting memory leaks somewhere on these two methods. Here is the code -(void)showLoadingAnimationView { textmeAppDelegate *textme = (textmeAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setNetworkActivityIndicatorVisible:YES]; if(wrapperLoading != nil) { [wrapperLoading release]; } wrapperLoading = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 320.0, 480.0)]; wrapperLoading.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; wrapperLoading.alpha = 0.8; UIView *_loadingBG = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 320.0, 480.0)]; _loadingBG.backgroundColor = [UIColor blackColor]; _loadingBG.alpha = 0.4; circlingWheel = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithActivityIndicatorStyle:UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge]; CGRect wheelFrame = circlingWheel.frame; circlingWheel.frame = CGRectMake(((320.0 - wheelFrame.size.width) / 2.0), ((480.0 - wheelFrame.size.height) / 2.0), wheelFrame.size.width, wheelFrame.size.height); [wrapperLoading addSubview:_loadingBG]; [wrapperLoading addSubview:circlingWheel]; [circlingWheel startAnimating]; [textme.window addSubview:wrapperLoading]; [_loadingBG release]; [circlingWheel release]; } -(void)hideLoadingAnimationView { [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setNetworkActivityIndicatorVisible:NO]; wrapperLoading.alpha = 0.0; [self.wrapperLoading removeFromSuperview]; //[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.8 target:wrapperLoading selector:@selector(removeFromSuperview) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; } Here is how I am calling these two methods [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(showLoadingAnimationView) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; and then somewhere later in the code i am using following function call to hide animation. [self hideLoadingAnimationView]; I am getting memory leaks when I call showLoadingAnimationView function. Anything wrong in the code or is there any better technique to show loading animation when we do network calls?

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  • PHP database simulation

    - by Emdiesse
    I have a PHP script that works by calling items from a database based upon the time they were placed in there and it deletes them if they are older than 5 minutes. Basically, I want to now simulate what would happen if this database was being updated regularly. So I was considering sticking in some code that loads an XML file then goes through and parses that into the database based upon the time data located within a node of the xml data... but the problem there is I want it to continually loop through an enter this data so it'll never actually run the other processes So I was thinking of having another PHP script do that that could do this independantly of the php script that is going to display this data... In theory: I am looking to have a button that I can press and it will then run some php code to load up an XML file from a directory on my web server and then iterate though the data sending the data, to a database, based upon the time within a node in the PHP script and when the script was first called So back to my page that displayed the data... if I continually hit refresh it will contain different results each time because data is being added by the other process and this php script removes the older data when it is refreshed Any information on this? Is there a way I can silently, and safely, run a php script without it being loaded into a browser... like a thread!?

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  • How to run an external SWF inside a Flex Application?

    - by lk
    I want to run an Action Script 3.0 Application into a Flex Application. To do this I've done the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication windowComplete="loadSwfApplication()" xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function loadSwfApplication() { var urlRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("path/to/the/application.swf"); swfLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, loadComplete); swfLoader.load(urlRequest); } private function loadComplete(completeEvent:Event) { var swfApplication:* = completeEvent.target.content; swfApplication.init(); // this is a Function that I made it in the Root class of swfApplication } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:SWFLoader id="sfwLoader"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> The problem is that in the calling of swfApplication.init(); the AIR Player throws me an exception: Security sandbox violation: caller file:///path/to/the/application.swf cannot access Stage owned by app:/SWFApplicationLoader.swf. This is because somewhere in application.swf I use the stage like this: if (root.stage != null) root.stage.addEventListener(Event.REMOVED, someFunction); root.stage.stageFocusRect = false; How can I load this swf application and USE the stage without any problems?

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  • Delphi How to wait for socket answer inside procedure?

    - by Astronavigator
    For some specific needs i need to create procedure that waits for socket request (or answer) in dll: TForm1 = class(TForm) ServerSocket1: TServerSocket; ...... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Wating... // Application.ProcessMessages; // Works with this line end; end; procedure TForm1.ServerSocket1ClientRead(Sender: TObject; Socket: TCustomWinSocket); begin MessageBoxA(0, PAnsiChar('Received: '+Socket.ReceiveText), '', MB_OK); Go := true; end; exports MyWaitProc; When I call Application.ProcessMessages everything works fine: application waits for request and then continues. But in my case calling Application.ProcessMessages causes to unlocking main form on host application (not dll's one). When I don't call Application.ProcessMessages application just hangs couse it cannot handle message... So, how to create such a procedure that's wating for socket answer ? Maybe there a way to wait for socket answer without using Application.ProcessMessages ? EDIT I also tried to use TIdTCPServer, for some reasons, the result is the same. TForm1 = class(TForm) IdTCPServer1: TIdTCPServer; ..... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Waiting ... // Application.ProcessMessages; end; end; procedure TForm1.IdTCPServer1Execute(AContext: TIdContext); var s: string; begin s := AContext.Connection.Socket.ReadString(1); AllText := AllText + s; Go := True; end;

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  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

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  • Atomic Instructions and Variable Update visibility

    - by dsimcha
    On most common platforms (the most important being x86; I understand that some platforms have extremely difficult memory models that provide almost no guarantees useful for multithreading, but I don't care about rare counter-examples), is the following code safe? Thread 1: someVariable = doStuff(); atomicSet(stuffDoneFlag, 1); Thread 2: while(!atomicRead(stuffDoneFlag)) {} // Wait for stuffDoneFlag to be set. doMoreStuff(someVariable); Assuming standard, reasonable implementations of atomic ops: Is Thread 1's assignment to someVariable guaranteed to complete before atomicSet() is called? Is Thread 2 guaranteed to see the assignment to someVariable before calling doMoreStuff() provided it reads stuffDoneFlag atomically? Edits: The implementation of atomic ops I'm using contains the x86 LOCK instruction in each operation, if that helps. Assume stuffDoneFlag is properly cleared somehow. How isn't important. This is a very simplified example. I created it this way so that you wouldn't have to understand the whole context of the problem to answer it. I know it's not efficient.

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  • Using boost::random as the RNG for std::random_shuffle

    - by Greg Rogers
    I have a program that uses the mt19937 random number generator from boost::random. I need to do a random_shuffle and want the random numbers generated for this to be from this shared state so that they can be deterministic with respect to the mersenne twister's previously generated numbers. I tried something like this: void foo(std::vector<unsigned> &vec, boost::mt19937 &state) { struct bar { boost::mt19937 &_state; unsigned operator()(unsigned i) { boost::uniform_int<> rng(0, i - 1); return rng(_state); } bar(boost::mt19937 &state) : _state(state) {} } rand(state); std::random_shuffle(vec.begin(), vec.end(), rand); } But i get a template error calling random_shuffle with rand. However this works: unsigned bar(unsigned i) { boost::mt19937 no_state; boost::uniform_int<> rng(0, i - 1); return rng(no_state); } void foo(std::vector<unsigned> &vec, boost::mt19937 &state) { std::random_shuffle(vec.begin(), vec.end(), bar); } Probably because it is an actual function call. But obviously this doesn't keep the state from the original mersenne twister. What gives? Is there any way to do what I'm trying to do without global variables?

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  • How to pull UIImages from NSData from a socket.

    - by Jus' Wondrin'
    Hey all! I'm using ASyncSocket to move some UIImages from one device over to another. Essentially, on one device I have: NSMutableData *data = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(image, 0.1); if(isRunning){ [sock writeData:data withTimeout:-1 tag:0]; } So a new image will be added to the socket every so often (like a webcam). Then, on the other device, I am calling: [listenSocket readDataWithTimeout:1 tag:0]; which will respond with: - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didReadData:(NSData *)data withTag:(long)tag { [responseData appendData:data]; [listenSocket readDataWithTimeout:1 tag:0]; } Essentially, what I want to be able to do is have an NSTimer going which will call @selector(PullImages): -(void) PullImages { In here, I want to be able to pull images out of ResponseData. How do I do that? There might not be a complete image yet, there might be multiple images, there might be one and a half images! I want to parse the NSData into each existing image! } Any assistance? Thanks in advance!

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • Facebook IOS SDK: Error in Publish Story Dialog

    - by lividsquirrel
    I've successfully set up the "DemoApp" project from the Facebook IOS SDK to use my "OKC ThunderCast" Facebook application. I have also configured another "Tester" application from scratch to successfully use the Facebook SDK and publish stories to my news feed. However, in my production application, I always get this result when calling the "dialog" method. The full description of the error message is "Error on line 52 at column 17: Opening and ending tag mismatch: div line 0 and body" Here's a detailed walkthrough of all of my code to make sure nothing is missed. 1) A UIViewController calls the "authorize" method NSArray *fbPerms = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"read_stream", @"offline_access", nil]; [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook authorize:fbPerms delegate:self]; Note: The FacebookSingleton is a class I wrote that always returns a single instance of the "Facebook" class. I am using it successfully in other applications. 2) Safari is opened and the user is successfully authenticated and authorized 3) The application is called back and the "handleOpenUrl" method is called, which calls the "fbDidLogin" method of the UIViewController - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application handleOpenURL:(NSURL *)url { Facebook *fb = [FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook; return [fb handleOpenURL:url]; } 4) The same UIViewController handles the "fbDidLogin" event, and calls the "dialog" method - (void)fbDidLogin { [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook dialog:@"feed" andDelegate:self]; } I also have the necessary "URL Schemes" and "URL Types" entries in the .plist file. To my eyes, I am using exactly the same code in the "DemoApp", "Tester", and production applications. But while the DemoApp and Tester work, I always see this HTML error in the feed dialog in my production application. Has anyone seen a similar issue? Could it be related to the Facebook "Bundle ID" setting in the Facebook application settings? Is there some build or .plist setting that is different? I have invested a great deal of time into troubleshooting with no success in several weeks. Thanks in advance...

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  • WMI Query Script as a Job

    - by Kenneth
    I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

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  • Is an "infinite" iterator bad design?

    - by Adamski
    Is it generally considered bad practice to provide Iterator implementations that are "infinite"; i.e. where calls to hasNext() always(*) return true? Typically I'd say "yes" because the calling code could behave erratically, but in the below implementation hasNext() will return true unless the caller removes all elements from the List that the iterator was initialised with; i.e. there is a termination condition. Do you think this is a legitimate use of Iterator? It doesn't seem to violate the contract although I suppose one could argue it's unintuitive. public class CyclicIterator<T> implements Iterator<T> { private final List<T> l; private Iterator it; public CyclicIterator<T>(List<T> l) { this.l = l; this.it = l.iterator(); } public boolean hasNext() { return !l.isEmpty(); } public T next() { T ret; if (!hasNext()) { throw new NoSuchElementException(); } else if (it.hasNext()) { ret = it.next(); } else { it = l.iterator(); ret = it.next(); } return ret; } public void remove() { it.remove(); } }

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  • How to define Module and use it in dojo with AMD?

    - by Devdatta Tengshe
    I am maintaining and extending an old project which was pre-AMD. I wish to add an Chart to the application. for this, I have created a js file as follows: define(["dojox/charting/Chart",...."dijit/Dialog","dojo/dom-construct"], function (Chart) { function showDailyChart(data){ //code to show the chart in a dialog } return customModules.singleChart; }); I have saved this file as /customModules/singleChart.js In My main HTML Page, I have added it to the packages as follows: var dojoConfig = { parseOnLoad: true, packages: [....,{"name":"customModules", "location":location.pathname.replace(/\/[^/]+$/, "")+"/modules" } ]}; The function from which I want to call it, is pre-AMD. So I am calling it as follows: dojo.require("customModules.singleChart"); . . . customModules.singleChart.showDailyChart(data); I can see that /customModules/singleChart.js is loaded in the Firebug console as well as Net Tab. However there is no customModules.singleChart object. Strangely enough there is no error either. I have tested this in Firebug, as well as Google Chrome's developer tools. What is the correct way to call an AMD Module using dojo.require? Or is there a better way to do what I need?

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