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  • C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

    - by Kevin Won
    This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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  • How can I get the dimensions of a drawn string without padding?

    - by Dan Herbert
    I'm trying to create an image with some text on it and I want the image's size to match the size of the rendered text. When I use System.Windows.Forms.TextRenderer.MeasureText(...) to measure the text, I get dimensions that include font padding. When the text is rendered, it seems to use the same padding. Is there any way to determine the size of a string of text and then render it without any padding? This is the code I've tried: // Measure the text dimensions var text = "Hello World"; var fontFamily = new Font("Arial", 30, FontStyle.Regular); var textColor = new SolidBrush(Color.Black); Size textSize = TextRenderer.MeasureText(text, fontFamily, Size.Empty, TextFormatFlags.NoPadding); // Render the text with the given dimensions Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(textSize.Width, textSize.Height); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp); g.TextRenderingHint = TextRenderingHint.AntiAliasGridFit; g.DrawString(text, fontFamily, textColor, new PointF(0, 0)); bmp.Save("output.png", ImageFormat.Png); This is what currently gets rendered out: This is what I want to render: I also looked into Graphics.MeasureString(...), but that can only be used on an existing Graphics object. I want to know the size before creating the image. Also, calling Graphics.MeasureString(...) returns the same dimensions, so it doesn't help me any.

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  • Facebook Connect - Using both FBML and PHP Client

    - by Ryan
    I am doing my second Facebook connect site. On my first site, I used the facebook coonect FBML to sign a user in, then I could access other information via the PHP Client. With this site, using the same exact code, it doesn't seem to be working. I'd like someone to be able to sign in using the Facebook button: <fb:login-button length="long" size="medium" onlogin="facebook_onlogin();"></fb:login-button> After they have logged in, the facebook_onlogin() function makes some AJAX requests to a PHP page which attempts to use the Facebook PHP Client. Here's the code from that page: $facebook = new Facebook('xxxxx API KEY xxxxx', 'xxxxx SECRET KEY xxxxx'); //$facebook->require_login(); ** I DONT WANT THIS LINE!! $userID = $facebook->api_client->users_getLoggedInUser(); if($userID) { $user_details = $facebook->api_client->users_getInfo($userID, 'last_name, first_name'); $firstName = $user_details[0]['first_name']; $lastName = $user_details[0]['last_name']; $this->view->userID = $userID; $this->view->firstName = $firstName; $this->view->lastName = $lastName; } The problem is that the PHP Client thinks I don't have a session key, so the $userID never get set. If I override the $userID with my facebook ID (which I am logged in with) I get this error: exception 'FacebookRestClientException' with message 'A session key is required for calling this method' in C:\wamp\www\mab\application\Facebook\facebookapi_php5_restlib.php:3003 If I uncomment the require_login(), it will get a session ID, but it redirects pages around a lot and breaks my AJAX calls. I am using the same code I successfully did this with on another site. Anyone have any ideas why the PHP client don't know about the session ID after a user has logged in with the connect button? Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Response.Redirect in a COM+ Object Called from Classic ASP Page

    - by ajdams
    Basically we moved from IIS 5 to IIS 7 and I am trying to update some of our old COM objects to .NET by rewriting them in C#. What I am have so far is a Classic ASP page calling the COM+ object and then I am trying to do a simple redirect within the COM+ object (this is just for testing purposes, it's not what the object will do eventually). My problem/question is, why does the redirect call not work properly? Am I doing something wrong or can you not redirect within a COM+ object? All that happens is a blank white page comes up and if I check the IIS logs, I see no errors. Here is my code so far: In Classic ASP (the call to COM+) Set oBankReg = CreateObject("BVSRegistration.SignIn") oBankReg.GetBankId(bankid) Code in C# COM object: using System; using System.Web; using System.Text; using System.EnterpriseServices; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; [assembly: ApplicationName("BVSRegistration")] [assembly: Description("COM+ upgrade of the BVSRegistration VB6 SignIn.cls.")] [assembly: ApplicationActivation(ActivationOption.Server)] [assembly: ApplicationAccessControl(false, AccessChecksLevel = AccessChecksLevelOption.ApplicationComponent)] namespace BVSRegistration { public class SignIn : ServicedComponent { public void GetBankId(string bankid) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("http://www.google.com"); } } } Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Adivce on Method overloads.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

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  • Custom UITableViewCell changing indexPath While Scrolling ?

    - by Chris
    I have a custom UITableViewCell which I created in Interface Builder. I am successfully Dequeuing cells, but as I scroll, the cells appear to begin calling different indexPaths. In this example, I am feeding the current indexPath.section and indexPath.row into the customCellLabel. As I scroll the table up and down, some of the cells will change. The numbers can be all over the place, but the cells are not skipping around visually. If I comment out the if(cell==nil), then the problem goes away. If I use a standard cell, the problem goes away. Ideas why this might be happening? // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = (UITableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"CalendarEventCell"]; if (cell == nil) { NSLog(@"Creating New Cell !!!!!"); NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CalendarEventCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = (UITableViewCell *)[nib objectAtIndex:0]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } // Set up the cell... [customCellLabel setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d - %d",indexPath.section, indexPath.row]]; return cell; }

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  • Natural language grammar and user-entered names

    - by Owen Blacker
    Some languages, particularly Slavic languages, change the endings of people's names according to the grammatical context. (For those of you who know grammar or studied languages that do this to words, such as German or Russian, and to help with search keywords, I'm talking about noun declension.) This is probably easiest with a set of examples (in Polish, to save the whole different-alphabet problem): Dorothy saw the cat — Dorota zobaczyla kota The cat saw Dorothy — Kot zobaczyl Dorote It is Dorothy’s cat — To jest kot Doroty I gave the cat to Dorothy — Dalam kota Dorotie I went for a walk with Dorothy — Poszlam na spacer z Dorota “Hello, Dorothy!” — “Witam, Doroto!” Now, if, in these examples, the name here were to be user-entered, that introduces a world of grammar nightmares. Importantly, if I went for Katie (Kasia), the examples are not directly comparable — 3 and 4 are both Kasi, rather than *Kasy and *Kasie — and male names will be wholly different again. I'm guessing someone has dealt with this situation before, but my Google-fu appears to be weak today. I can find a lot of links about natural-language processing, but I don'think that's quite what I want. To be clear: I'm only ever gonna have one user-entered name per user and I'm gonna need to decline them into known configurations — I'll have a localised text that will have placeholders something like {name nominative} and {name dative}, for the sake of argument. I really don't want to have to do lexical analysis of text to work stuff out, I'll only ever need to decline that one user-entered name. Anyone have any recommendations on how to do this, or do I need to start calling round localisation agencies ;o) Further reading (all on Wikipedia) for the interested: Declension Grammatical case Declension in Polish Declension in Russian Declension in Czech nouns and pronouns Disclaimer: I know this happens in many other languages; highlighting Slavic languages is merely because I have a project that is going to be localised into some Slavic languages.

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  • Jsp page getting called from cache rather than getting loaded from server

    - by sam4u-optimistic86
    I am calling a jsp based on 2 parameters which is passed from jsp 1 in this way.Below i pass 2 parameters into 2.jsp and based on these 2 parameters data is displayed in 2.jsp.I have a loop in which i have a number of hrefs like the one i have described below.Each of these href passes a different set of value to 2.jsp. out.println("<a href=\"2.jsp?prId=" + prog.getId() + count + "\">" + prog.getName() + "</a>"); I retrieve these 2 parameters in 2.jsp using the following lines count_id = request.getParameter( "country_id" ); prog_id = Integer.parseInt(request.getParameter( "program_id" )); Based on these 2 parameters i show the corresponding data in 2.jsp Now i have a back button in 2.jsp and i call 1.jsp in 2.jsp using the following code <a href="1.jsp"><img src="/image/back.gif" border="0"></a> The problem is when i use the back button and go back to 1.jsp and select another href like the one i have described above i get the data related to the previous href selected. I guess the problem is when i request the page is loaded from cache rather than from the server. Please advice

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  • embedded php in html to include header (top part of page) into the page

    - by Andy
    Hi there, I'm trying to put the top of my page (which is all html) in a seperate file so I only need to change things once like the menu bar etc. So I googled some and found a solution on this website as well, but it doesn't work and I don't know why. So I have a page like article.html and on the top I have this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <?php include("/pages/header.php"); ?> <!-- rest of the html code --> In the header.php I have the html that should be on the top of each page and it starts with: <?php /** * @author name * website header */ ?> <!-- html code --> So what's wrong with this. When I open the page article.html and right click on it to view the source, I can see the php from above calling the header.php file. Thanks!

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  • PageMethod with Custom Handler

    - by Mister Cook
    I have a page based web method which works fine, using [WebMethod], i.e [WebMethod] public static void DoSomethingOnTheServer() { } I also have a custom page handler to make SEO friendly URLs possible, e.g http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext = http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 I am using Server.Transfer in my ProcessRequest handler to achieve this. This all works fine. Also, my page method works fine when the user requests the URL such as: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 However, when the user requests the custom handled URL, i.e. http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext The client reports that the PageMethod has been successfully completed, but it has not been called at all. I'm guessing it has something to do with my custom handler, so I have modified it to include PathInfo: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { // ... (code to determine id) ... // Transfer to the required page string actualPath = "~/page.aspx" + context.Request.PathInfo + "?id=" + determinedId; context.Server.Transfer(actualPath); } So now if a PageMethod is called, it will result in: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer?id=1 I'm wondering if this is the correct syntax for calling a PageMethod. When I try Server.Transfer reports: Error executing child request for /MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer I've experimented with HttpContext.RewritePath but not sure how to actually make it perform the request. This does not seem to work, any ideas?

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  • Policy file error while loading images form facebook

    - by Fahim Akhter
    Hi, I making a game leaderboard on facebook. I'm not using connect but working inside the canvas. When I try to load the images from facebook it gives me the following error. SecurityError: Error #2122: Security sandbox violation: Loader.content: http://test cannot access http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg A policy file is required, but the checkPolicyFile flag was not set when this media was loaded. Here is my loader code public var preLoader:Loader; preLoader=new Loader(); **update** Security.loadPolicyFile('http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml'); Security.allowDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); Security.allowInsecureDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); **update-end** public function imageContainer(Imagewidth:Number,Imageheight:Number,url:String,path:String) { preLoader=new Loader(); Security.loadPolicyFile("http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml"); var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(); context.checkPolicyFile = true; context.applicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; preLoader.load(new URLRequest(path),context); Any Ideas? I am importing the right class though. UPDATE: I am loading the images from a different domain say , calling func http://fahim.com images are from http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg something ( I have made sure the pictures are static do not require a facebook login or anything , they are just user public profile pictures)

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  • ASP.NET MVC and NHibernate coupling

    - by Ben
    I have just started learning NHibernate. Over the past few months I have been using IoC / DI (structuremap) and the repository pattern and it has made my applications much more loosely coupled and easier to test. When switching my persistence layer to NHibernate I decided to stick with my repositories. Currently I am creating a new session on each method call but of course this means that I can not benefit from lazy loading. Therefore I wish to implement session-per-request but in doing so this will make my web project dependent on NHibernate (perhaps this is not such a bad thing?). I was planning to inject ISession into my repositories and create and dispose sessions on beginrequest/endrequest events (see http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2009/08/05/do-you-need-a-framework.aspx) Is this a good approach? Presumably I cannot use session-per-request without having a reference to NHibernate in my web project? Having the web project dependent on NHibernate prompts my next (few) questions - why even bother with the repository? Since my web app is calling services that talk to the repositories, why not ditch the repositories and just add my NHibernate persistance code inside the services? And finally, is there really any need to split out into so many projects. Is a web project and an infrastructure project sufficient? I realise that I have veered off a bit from my original question but it seems that everyone seems to have their own opinion on these topics. Some people use the repository pattern with NHibernate, some don't. Some people stick their mapping files with the related classes, others have a separate project for this. Many thanks, Ben

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  • Stretch video to full screen in a SurfaceView extension

    - by SS
    I have created a widget that is an extension of SurfaceView (very similar to [VideoView][1]) and I am working on a feature to stretch the video fully across the device screen when certain action is taken. I've looked at onMeasure function of VideoView and re-wrote it this way: @Override protected void onMeasure(int widthMeasureSpec, int heightMeasureSpec) { if (mStretchVideo) { super.onMeasure(widthMeasureSpec, heightMeasureSpec); } else { int width = getDefaultSize(mVideoWidth, widthMeasureSpec); int height = getDefaultSize(mVideoHeight, heightMeasureSpec); if (mVideoWidth > 0 && mVideoHeight > 0) { if (mVideoWidth * height > width * mVideoHeight) { height = width * mVideoHeight / mVideoWidth; } else if (mVideoWidth * height < width * mVideoHeight) { width = height * mVideoWidth / mVideoHeight; } } setMeasuredDimension(width, height); } } This seems to work fine if I completely stop the video and start playing again. Now I am trying to force the refresh of this SurfaceView after setting the stretch flag so that the video gets stretched while it is playing, but I couldn't figure out how to force a refresh on SurfaceView. I tried android.view.View.invalidate(), android.view.View.refreshDrawableState() and calling android.view.View.measure(int, int) directly with different combinations but did not get any success. Any ideas?

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  • Average performance of binary search algorithm?

    - by Passionate Learner
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binary_search_algorithm#Average_performance BinarySearch(int A[], int value, int low, int high) { int mid; if (high < low) return -1; mid = (low + high) / 2; if (A[mid] > value) return BinarySearch(A, value, low, mid-1); else if (A[mid] < value) return BinarySearch(A, value, mid+1, high); else return mid; } If the integer I'm trying to find is always in the array, can anyone help me write a program that can calculate the average performance of binary search algorithm? I know I can do this by actually running the program and counting the number of calls, but what I'm trying to do here is to do it without calling the function. I'm not asking for a time complexity, I'm trying to calculate the average number of calls. For example, the average number of calls to find a integer in A[2], it would be 1.67 (5/3).

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  • What can cause Windows to unhook a low level (global) keyboard hook?

    - by Davy8
    We have some global keyboard hooks installed via SetWindowsHookEx with WH_KEYBOARD_LL that appear to randomly get unhooked by Windows. We verified that they hook was no longer attached because calling UnhookWindowsHookEx on the handle returns false. (Also verified that it returns true when it was working properly) There doesn't seem to be a consistent repro, I've heard that they can get unhooked due to timeouts or exceptions getting thrown, but I've tried both just letting it sit on a breakpoint in the handling method for over a minute, as well as just throwing a random exception (C#) and it still appears to work. In our callback we quickly post to another thread, so that probably isn't the issue. I've read about solutions in Windows 7 for setting the timeout higher in the registry because Windows 7 is more aggressive about the timeouts apparently (we're all running Win7 here, so not sure if this occurs on other OS's) , but that doesn't seem like an ideal solution. I've considered just having a background thread running to refresh the hook every once in a while, which is hackish, but I don't know of any real negative consequences of doing that, and it seems better than changing a global Windows registry setting. Any other suggestions or solutions? The delegates are not being GC'd since they're static members, which is one cause that I've read about.

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  • Mocking inter-method dependencies

    - by Zecrates
    I've recently started using mock objects in my tests, but I'm still very inexperienced with them and unsure of how to use them in some cases. At the moment I'm struggling with how to mock inter-method dependencies (calling method A has an effect on the results of method B), and whether it should even be mocked (in the sense of using a mocking framework) at all? Take for example a Java Iterator? It is easy enough to mock the next() call to return the correct values, but how do I mock hasNext(), which depends on how many times next() has been called? Currently I'm using a List.Iterator as I could find no way to properly mock one. Does Martin Fowler's distinction between mocks and stubs come into play here? Should I rather write my own IteratorMock? Also consider the following example. The method to be tested calls mockObject.setX() and later on mockObject.getX(). Is there any way that I can create such a mock (without writing my own) which will allow the returned value of getX to depend on what was passed to setX?

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  • How to reliably replace a library-defined error handler with my own?

    - by sharptooth
    On certain error cases ATL invokes AtlThrow() which is implemented as ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which in turn throws CAtlException. The latter is not very good - CAtlException is not even derived from std::exception and also we use our own exceptions hierarchy and now we will have to catch CAtlException separately here and there which is lots of extra code and error-prone. Looks like it is possible to replace ATL::AtlThrowImpl() with my own handler - define _ATL_CUSTOM_THROW and define AtlThrow() to be the custom handler before including atlbase.h - and ATL will call the custom handler. Not so easy. Some of ATL code is not in sources - it comes compiled as a library - either static or dynamic. We use the static - atls.lib. And... it is compiled in such way that it has ATL::ThrowImpl() inside and some code calling it. I used a static analysis tool - it clearly shows that there're paths on which the old default handler is called. To ensure I even tried to "reimplement" ATL::AtlThrowImpl() in my code. Now the linker says it sees two declarations of ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which I suppose confirms that there's another implementation that can be called by some code. How can I handle this? How do I replace the default handler completely and ensure that the default handler is never called?

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  • Apache multiple URL to one domain redirect

    - by Christian Moser
    For the last two day, I've been spending a lot of time to solve my problem, maybe someone can help me. Problem: I need to redirect different url's to one tomcat webbase-dir used for artifactory. following urls should point to the tomcat/artifactory webapp: maven-repo.example.local ; maven-repo.example.local/artifactory ; srv-example/artifactory Where maven-repo.example.local is the dns for the server-hostname: "srv-example" I'm accessing the tomcat app through the JK_mod module. The webapp is in the ROOT directory This is what I've got so far: <VirtualHost *:80> #If URL contains "artifactory" strip down and redirect RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^\artifactory\$ [NC] # (how can I remove 'artifactory' from the redirected parameters? ) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://maven-repo.example.local/$1 [R=301,L] ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/redirect-error_log" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven-repo.example.local ErrorLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-error.log" CustomLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-access.log" common #calling tomcat webapp in ROOT JkMount /* ajp13w </VirtualHost> The webapp is working with "maven-repo.example.local", but with "maven-repo.example.local/artifactory" tomcat gives a 404 - "The requested resource () is not available." It seems that the mod_rewrite doesn't have taken any effect, even if I redirect to another page, e.g google.com I'm testing on windows 7 with maven-repo.example.local added in the "system32/drivers/hosts" file Thanks in advance!

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  • Rails Polymorphic Association with multiple associations on the same model

    - by Matt Rogish
    My question is essentially the same as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168047/polymorphic-association-with-multiple-associations-on-the-same-model However, the proposed/accepted solution does not work, as illustrated by a commenter later. I have a Photo class that is used all over my app. A post can have a single photo. However, I want to re-use the polymorphic relationship to add a secondary photo. Before: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end Desired: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end However, this fails as it cannot find the class "SecondaryPhoto". Based on what I could tell from that other thread, I'd want to do: has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :class_name => "Photo", :dependent => :destroy Except calling Post#secondary_photo simply returns the same photo that is attached via the Photo association, e.g. Post#photo === Post#secondary_photo. Looking at the SQL, it does WHERE type = "Photo" instead of, say, "SecondaryPhoto" as I'd like... Thoughts? Thanks!

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  • Optimizing MySQL update query

    - by Jernej Jerin
    This is currently my MySQL UPDATE query, which is called from program written in Java: String query = "UPDATE maxday SET DatePressureREL = (SELECT Date FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX" + "(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), " + "PressureREL = (SELECT PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 " + "WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), ..."; try { s.execute(query); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("SQL error"); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Let me explain first, what does it do. I have two tables, first is ws3600, which holds columns (Date, PressureREL, TemperatureOUT, Dewpoint, ...). Then I have second table, called maxday, which holds columns like DatePressureREL, PressureREL, DateTemperatureOUT, TemperatureOUT,... Now as you can see from an example, I update each column, the question is, is there a faster way? I am asking this, because I am calling MAX twice, first to find the Date for that value and secondly to find the actual value. Now I know that I could write like that: SELECT Date, PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1 That way I get the Date of the max and the max value at the same time and then update with those values the data in maxday table. But the problem of this solution is, that I have to execute many queries, which as I understand takes alot more time compared to executing one long mysql query because of overhead in sending each query to the server. If there is no better way, which solution beetwen this two should I choose. The first, which only takes one query but is very unoptimized or the second which is beter in terms of optimization, but needs alot more queries which probably means that the preformance gain is lost because of overhead in sending each query to the server?

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  • GAE - Getting TypeError requiring class instance be passed to class's own method...

    - by Spencer Leland
    I'm really new to programming... I set up a class to give supporting information for Google's User API user object. I store this info in the datastore using db.model. When I call the okstatus method of my user_info class using this code: elif user_info.okstatus(user): self.response.out.write("user allowed") I get this error: unbound method okstatus() must be called with user_info instance as first argument (got User instance instead) Here is my user_info class. class user_info: def auth_ctrlr(self, user): if self.status(user) == status_allowed: return ("<a href=\"%s\">Sign Out</a>)" % (users.create_login_url("/"))) else: return ("<a href=\"%s\">Sign In or Get an Account</a>)" % (users.create_logout_url("/"))) def status(self, user): match = sub_user.gql(qu_by_user_id, user.user_id) return match.string_status def group(self, user): match = sub_user.gql(qu_by_user_id, user.user_id) grp = group_names.gql(qu_by_user_id, match.groupID) return grp def okstatus(self, user): match = self.status(user) if match == status_allowed: return True My understanding is that the argument "self" inside the method's calling arguments describes it as a child to the class. I've tried everything I can think of and can't find any related info online. Can someone please tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks

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  • GDI+ double buffering in C++

    - by David Titarenco
    I haven't written anything with GDI for a while now (and never with GDI+), and I'm just working on a fun project, but for the life of me, I can't figure out how to double buffer GDI+ void DrawStuff(HWND hWnd) { HDC hdc; HDC hdcBuffer; PAINTSTRUCT ps; hdc = BeginPaint(hWnd, &ps); hdcBuffer = CreateCompatibleDC(hdc); Graphics graphics(hdc); graphics.Clear(Color::Black); // drawing stuff, i.e. bunnies: Image bunny(L"bunny.gif"); graphics.DrawImage(&bunny, 0, 0, bunny.GetWidth(), bunny.GetHeight()); BitBlt(hdc, 0,0, WIDTH , HEIGHT, hdcBuffer, 0,0, SRCCOPY); EndPaint(hWnd, &ps); } The above works (everything renders perfectly), but it flickers. If I change Graphics graphics(hdc); to Graphics graphics(hdcBuffer);, I see nothing (although I should be bitblt'ing the buffer-hWnd hdc at the bottom). My message pipeline is set up properly (WM_PAINT calls DrawStuff), and I'm forcing a WM_PAINT message every program loop by calling RedrawWindow(window, NULL, NULL, RDW_ERASE | RDW_INVALIDATE | RDW_UPDATENOW); I'm probably going about the wrong way to do this, any ideas? The MSDN documentation is cryptic at best.

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  • Flex - Increase timeout on a PHP service function call

    - by Travesty3
    I'm using Flash Builder 4 Beta 2. I have it connecting to a PHP service. The way I set this up was using the wizard, so I didn't actually write the code to connect to it. The service looks like this: package services.flash { import mx.rpc.AsyncToken; import com.adobe.fiber.core.model_internal; import mx.rpc.AbstractOperation; import valueObjects.CustomDatatype8; import valueObjects.NewUsageData; import mx.collections.ItemResponder; import mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject; import mx.rpc.remoting.Operation; import com.adobe.fiber.services.wrapper.RemoteObjectServiceWrapper; import com.adobe.fiber.valueobjects.AvailablePropertyIterator; import com.adobe.serializers.utility.TypeUtility; [ExcludeClass] internal class _Super_FLASH extends RemoteObjectServiceWrapper { // Constructor public function _Super_FLASH() { // initialize service control _serviceControl = new RemoteObject(); var operations:Object = new Object(); var operation:Operation; operation = new Operation(null, "sendCommand"); operation.resultType = Object; operations["sendCommand"] = operation; ... } } One of the functions that I'm calling fetches users from a MySQL database. There are about 30,000 users right now. The service seems to timeout when fetching more than around 22,000 rows, I get the "Channel Disconnected before an acknowledgement was received" error. If I call the PHP script from a browser, it fetches them all with no problems at all, however. I have tried increasing the timeout in the PHP script (which didn't work), but obviously this isn't the problem since the browser is able to pull them up with no problems. Is there a way to increase the timeout of the PHP service in Flash Builder? I'm a bit of a noob when it comes to Flash, so please be descriptive. Thanks in advance!

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  • How to get HTTP status code in HTTPService fault handler

    - by Ankur
    I am calling a server method through HTTPService from client side. The server is a RestFul web service and it might respond with one of many HTTP error codes (say, 400 for one error, 404 for another and 409 for yet another). I have been trying to find out the way to determine what was the exact error code sent by the server. I have walked teh entire object tree for the FaultEvent populated in my fault handler, but no where does it tell me the error code. Is this missing functionality in Flex? My code looks like this: The HTTP Service declaration: <mx:HTTPService id="myServerCall" url="myService" method="GET" resultFormat="e4x" result="myServerCallCallBack(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> <mx:request> <action>myServerCall</action> <docId>{m_sDocId}</docId> </mx:request> </mx:HTTPService> My fault handler code is like so: private function faultHandler(event : FaultEvent):void { Alert.show(event.statusCode.toString() + " / " + event.fault.message.toString()); }

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  • JSF Managed Property question

    - by kidvid
    I have a search page that I'll called "Parent." The search page references a country lookup page that I'll call "Child." When the user selects a country on Child's page and clicks on OK, I set the country back into the parent page. I do this by calling a method on the Parent page called "UpdateCountryCodeWithLookupValue(Child child)" When the user clicks on OK on the Child page, that method gets called in the parent, wherein it'll get the selected country code out of the Child page and set it into a text entry field. My question has to do with the proper way to set up this relationship in the faces config file. The way I have it now is that the child has a managed property for the parent. I.e., in my Child page I defined a method called "SetParent(Parent parent)". Is there any drawback to doing it this way? Would it be preferable to set the managed property so that the Child page class is a property of the parent instead of vice-versa? Let's say that I could have two Parent (search) pages open at the same time, and each of these was able to open the Child page (country code lookup). What would be the ramification for that circumstance in terms of the managed property in the faces config file? Thanks, Adrian

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