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  • Trying to parse OpenCV YAML ouput with yaml-cpp

    - by Kenn Sebesta
    I've got a series of OpenCv generated YAML files and would like to parse them with yaml-cpp I'm doing okay on simple stuff, but the matrix representation is proving difficult. # Center of table tableCenter: !!opencv-matrix rows: 1 cols: 2 dt: f data: [ 240, 240] This should map into the vector 240 240 with type float. My code looks like: #include "yaml.h" #include <fstream> #include <string> struct Matrix { int x; }; void operator >> (const YAML::Node& node, Matrix& matrix) { unsigned rows; node["rows"] >> rows; } int main() { std::ifstream fin("monsters.yaml"); YAML::Parser parser(fin); YAML::Node doc; Matrix m; doc["tableCenter"] >> m; return 0; } But I get terminate called after throwing an instance of 'YAML::BadDereference' what(): yaml-cpp: error at line 0, column 0: bad dereference Abort trap I searched around for some documentation for yaml-cpp, but there doesn't seem to be any, aside from a short introductory example on parsing and emitting. Unfortunately, neither of these two help in this particular circumstance. As I understand, the !! indicate that this is a user-defined type, but I don't see with yaml-cpp how to parse that.

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  • iPhone JSON object releasing itself?

    - by MidnightLightning
    I'm using the JSON Framework addon for iPhone's Objective-C to catch a JSON object that's an array of Dictionary-style objects via HTTP. Here's my connectionDidFinishLoading function: - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [loadingIndicator stopAnimating]; NSArray *responseArray = [responseString JSONValue]; // Grab the JSON array of dictionaries NSLog(@"Response Array: %@", responseArray); if ([responseArray respondsToSelector:@selector(count)]) { NSLog(@"Returned %@ items", [responseArray count]); } [responseArray release]; [responseString release]; } The issue is that the code is throwing a EXC_BAD_ACCESS error on the second NSLog line. The EXC_BAD_ACCESS error I think indicates that the variable got released from memory, but the first NSLog command works just fine (and shows that the data is all there); it seems that only when calling the count message is causing the error, but the respondsToSelector call at least thinks that the responseArray should be able to respond to that message. When running with the debugger, it crashes on that second line, but the stack shows that the responseArray object is still defined, and has 12 objects in it (so the debugger at least is able to get an accurate count of the contents of that variable). Is this a problem with the JSON framework's creation of that NSArray, or is there something wrong with my code?

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  • Prism - loading modules causes activation error

    - by Noich
    I've created a small Prism application (using MEF) with the following parts: - Infrastructure project, that contains a global file of region names. - Main project, that has 2 buttons to load other modules. - ModulesInterfaces project, where I've defined an IDataAccess interface for my DataAccess module. - DataAccess project, where there are several files but one main DataAccess class that implements both IDataAccess and IModule. When the user click a button, I want to show him a list of employees, so I need the DataAccess module. My code is as follows: var namesView = new EmployeesListView(); var namesViewModel = new EmployeesListViewModel(employeeRepository); namesView.DataContext = namesViewModel; namesViewModel.EmployeeSelected += EmployeeSelected; LocateManager(); manager.Regions["ContentRegion"].Add(new NoEmployeeView(), "noEmployee"); manager.Regions["NavigationRegion"].Add(namesView); I get an exception in my code when I'm trying to get DataAccess as a service (via ServiceLocator). I'm not sure if that's the right way to go, but trying to get it from the ModuleCatalog (as a type IDataAccess returns an empty enumeration). I'd appreciate some directions. Thanks. The problematic code line: object instance = ServiceLocator.Current.GetInstance(typeof(DataAccess.DataAccess)); The exact exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type DataAccess, key "" The inner exception is null, the stack trace: at Microsoft.Practices.Prism.MefExtensions.MefServiceLocatorAdapter.DoGetInstance(Type serviceType, String key) in c:\release\WorkingDir\PrismLibraryBuild\PrismLibrary\Desktop\Prism.MefExtensions\MefServiceLocatorAdapter.cs:line 76 at Microsoft.Practices.ServiceLocation.ServiceLocatorImplBase.GetInstance(Type serviceType, String key) Edit The same exception is thrown for: container = (CompositionContainer)ServiceLocator.Current.GetInstance(typeof(CompositionContainer));

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  • Getting a gestureoverlayview

    - by Codejoy
    I have been using some nice tutorials on drawing graphics on my android. I wanted to also add in the cool gesture demo found here: http://developer.android.com/resources/articles/gestures.html That takes these lines of code: GestureOverlayView gestures = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures); gestures.addOnGesturePerformedListener(this); This is fine and dandy yet I realize in my demo i'm trying to build using code from "Playing with Graphics in Android". The demos make sense, everything makes sense but I found out by using: setContentView(new Panel(this)); as is required by the Playing With Graphics tutorials, then the findViewById seems to no longer be valid and returns null. At first I was about to post a stupider question as to why this is happening, a quick test of playing with the setContentView made me realize the cause of findViewById returning null, I just do not know how to remedy this issue. Whats the key I am missing here? I realize that the new Panel is doinking some reference up but I am not sure how to make the connection here. THe: R.id.gestures is defined right int he main.xml as: (just like the tutorial) Thanks, Shane p.s. im new here be gentle.

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  • No long-running conversations - IllegalArgumentException: Stack must not be null

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi all, I have a very simple application with just 2 pages on WebLogic 10.3.2 (11g), Seam 2.2.0.GA. I have a command button in each, which makes a redirect-after-post to the other. This works well, as I see the URL of the current page I am seeing in the address bar. BUT, even though I have no long-running conversations defined, after a random number of clicks, and - I think - after a random number of seconds (~10s - 60s) I get the lovely exception at the end of this post. Now, if I have understood how temporary conversations work when redirecting this happens: When I first see my application, the url is http://localhost:7001/myapp When I click the button in pageA.xhtml, I end up in "pageB.xhtml?cid=26". This is normal because Seam extends the temporary conversation of the first request to last until the renderResponse phase of the redirect. So, it uses the cid (Conversation Id) of the extended temporary conversation to find any propagated parameters. When I click the button in pageB.xhtml, I end up in pageA.xhtml?cid=26 The same cid was given to the new extended temporary conversation. This is normal because the conversation ended at the end of the previous redirect-after-post, and not the number 26 is free to use as a cid. Is this all correct? If yes, why does this happen: If I re-type the applications home address (showing pageA) and re-click, I end up in pageB.xhtml?cid=29, which is a different number than 26. But 26 has ended after the previous RenderResponse phase, befire I re-types the url. Why is it not used instead of 29? So, to sup up, 2 questions: Why do I get the exception, even though I have not started any long-running conversations? What happens exactly with the cid? On what basis does it change? Cheers,

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  • Rails - difference between config.cache_store and config.action_controller.cache_store?

    - by gsmendoza
    If I set this in my environment config.action_controller.cache_store = :mem_cache_store ActionController::Base.cache_store will use a memcached store but Rails.cache will use a memory store instead: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb6eb4bbc @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemoryStore:0xb78b5e54 @data={}> In my app, I use Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } to cache objects inside my helpers. All this time, I assumed that Rails.cache uses the memcached store so I'm surprised that it uses memory store. If I change the cache_store setting in my environment to config.cache_store = :mem_cache_store both ActionController::Base.cache_store and Rails.cache will now use the same memory store, which is what I expect: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> However, when I run the app, I get a "marshal dump" error in the line where I call Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } no marshal_dump is defined for class Proc Extracted source (around line #1): 1: Rails.cache.fetch(fragment_cache_key(...), :expires_in => 15.minutes) { ... } vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'dump' vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'set_without_newrelic_trace' What gives? Is Rails.cache meant to be a memory store? Should I call controller.cache_store.fetch in the places where I call Rails.cache.fetch?

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  • Binary stream 'NN' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or obje

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    I am passing user defined classes over sockets. The SendObject code is below. It works on my local machine, but when I publish to the WebServer which is then communicating with the App Server on my own machine it fails. public bool SendObject(Object obj, ref string sErrMsg) { try { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); bf1.Serialize(ms, obj); byte[] byArr = ms.ToArray(); int len = byArr.Length; m_socClient.Send(byArr); return true; } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "SendObject Error: " + e.Message; return false; } } I can do this fine if it is one class in my tools project and the other class about UserData just doesn't want to know. Frustrating! Ohh. I think its because the UserData class has a DataSet inside it. Funnily enough I have seen this work, but then after 1 request it goes loopy and I can't get it to work again. Anyone know why this might be? I have looked at comparing the dlls to make sure they are the same on the WebServer and on my local machine and they look to be so as I have turned on versioning in the AssemblyInfo.cs to double check. Edit: Ok it seems that the problem is with size. If I keep it under 1024 byes ( I am guessing here) it works on the web server and doesnt if it has a DataSet inside it.k In fact this is so puzzling I converted the DataSet to a string using ds.GetXml() and this also causes it to blow up. :( So it seems that across the network something with my sockets is wrong and doesn't want to read in the data. JonSkeet where are you. ha ha. I would offer Rep but I don't have any. Grr

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  • Setting an NSMutableArray in AppDelegate to be an NSMutableArray in

    - by aahrens
    What i'm trying to accomplish is to have an NSMutableArray defined in the AppDelegate. I then have two UIViewControllers. One view is responsible for displaying the array from the AppDelegate. The other view is used to add items to the array. So the array starts out to be empty. View1 doesn't display anything because the array is empty. The User goes to View2 and adds an item to the array in AppDelegate. Then when the user goes back to View1 it now displays one item. Here is how I'm trying to accomplish this @interface CalcAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; UITabBarController *tabBarController; NSMutableArray *globalClasses; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSMutableArray *globalClasses; My other view In the viewDidload I set the array in my View to be the one in the AppDelegate. In an effort to retain values. allCourses = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; CalcAppDelegate *appDelegate = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; allCourses = appDelegate.globalClasses; Then I would update my allCourses array by adding a new item. Then try to set the array in the AppDelegate to be equal to the modified one. CalcAppDelegate *appDel = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSLog(@"Size before reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); appDel.globalClasses = allCourses; NSLog(@"Size after reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); What I'm seeing that's returned is 2 in the before, and 2 after. So it doesn't appear to be getting updated properly. Any suggestions?

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  • Spring HandlerInterceptor or Spring Security to protect resource

    - by richever
    I've got a basic Spring Security 3 set up using my own login page. My configuration is below. I have the login and sign up page accessible to all as well as most everything else. I'm new to Spring Security and understand that if a user is trying to access a protected resource they will be taken to the defined login page. And upon successful login they are taken to some other page, home in my case. I want to keep the latter behavior; however, I'd like specify that if a user tries to access certain resources they are taken to the sign up page, not the login page. Currently, in my annotated controllers I check the security context to see if the user is logged in and if not I redirect them to the sign up page. I only do this currently with two urls and no others. This seemed redundant so I tried creating a HandlerInterceptor to redirect for these requests but realized that with annotations, you can't specify specific requests to be handled - they all are. So I'm wondering if there is some way to implement this type of specific url handling in Spring Security, or is going the HandlerInterceptor route my only option? Thanks! <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <intercept-url pattern="/login*" access="permitAll"/> <intercept-url pattern="/signup*" access="permitAll"/> <intercept-url pattern="/static/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/" access="permitAll"/> <form-login login-page="/login" default-target-url="/home"/> <logout logout-success-url="/home"/> <anonymous/> <remember-me/> </http>

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  • Problem compiling gnustep-gui-0.16.0 undefined reference to png_sizeof

    - by stefanB
    I'm trying to compile GNUstep on a linux box but gnustep-gui-0.16.0 package is failing. I downloaded GNUstep Startup stable 0.20.1 (http://wwwmain.gnustep.org/resources/downloads.php)and follow instructions about how to compile (./configure && make). I'm getting this error: libgnustep-gui.so: undefined reference to 'png_sizeof' I have compiled latest libpng (1.2.34) and I can see that png_sizeof is defined as macro. However, I'm not quite sure how to fix the gnustep-gui-0.16.0 build. I tried to pass the include/lib directory where libpng is installed to configure build but nothing seems to help. I have quite up to date linux box but using gcc 3.3 (upgrade is not an option - but this should not be a problem). Full error: Making all for tool set_show_service... Compiling file set_show_service.m ... Linking tool set_show_service ... ../Source/./obj/libgnustep-gui.so: undefined reference to `png_sizeof' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status gmake[3]: *** [obj/set_show_service] Error 1 gmake[2]: *** [set_show_service.all.tool.variables] Error 2 gmake[1]: *** [internal-all] Error 2 gmake[1]: Leaving directory `/home/bla/local/src/gnustep-startup-0.22.0/build/gnustep-gui-0.16.0' gmake[3]: *** [obj/set_show_service] Error 1 gmake[2]: *** [set_show_service.all.tool.variables] Error 2 gmake[1]: *** [internal-all] Error 2 Any suggestions? Thanks

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  • WPF 3D extrude "a bitmap"

    - by Bgnt44
    Hi, I'm looking for a way to simulate a projector in wpf 3D : i've these "in" parameters : beam shape : a black and white bitmap file beam size ( ex : 30 °) beam color beam intensity ( dimmer ) projector position (x,y,z) beam position (pan(x),tilt(y) relative to projector) First i was thinking of using light object but it seem that wpf can't do that So, now i think that i can make for each projector a polygon from my bitmap... First i need to convert the black and white bitmap to vector. Only Simple shape ( bubble, line,dot,cross ...) Is there any WPF way to do that ? Or maybe a external program file (freeware); then i need to build the polygon, with the shape of the converted bitmap , color , size , orientation in parameter. i don't know how can i defined the lenght of the beam , and if it can be infiny ... To show the beam result, i think of making a room ( floor , wall ...) and beam will end to these wall... i don't care of real light render ( dispersion ...) but the scene render has to be real time and at least 15 times / second (with probably from one to 100 projectors at the same time), information about position, angle,shape,color will be sent for each render... Well so, i need sample for that, i guess that all of these things could be useful for other people If you have sample code : Convert Bitmap to vector Extrude vectors from one point with a angle parameter until collision of a wall Set x,y position of the beam depend of the projector position Set Alpha intensity of the beam, color Maybe i'm totally wrong and WPF is not ready for that , so advise me about other way ( xna,d3D ) with sample of course ;-) Thanks you

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  • Is this a bug? : I get " The type ... is not a complex type or an entity type" in my WCF data servic

    - by veertien
    When invoking a query on the data service I get this error message inside the XML feed: <m:error> <m:code></m:code> <m:message xml:lang="nl-NL">Internal Server Error. The type 'MyType' is not a complex type or an entity type.</m:message> </m:error> When I use the example described here in the article "How to: Create a Data Service Using the Reflection Provider (WCF Data Services)" http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd728281(v=VS.100).aspx it works as expected. I have created the service in a .NET 4.0 web project. My data context class returns a query object that is derived from the LINQExtender (http://linqextender.codeplex.com/). When I execute the query object in a unit test, it works as expected. My entity type is defined as: [DataServiceKey("Id")] public class Accommodation { [UniqueIdentifier] [OriginalFieldName("EntityId")] public string Id { get; set; } [OriginalFieldName("AccoName")] public string Name { get; set; } } (the UniqueIdentifier and OriginalFieldName attributes are used by LINQExtender) Does anybody know if this is a bug in WCF data services or am I doing something wrong?

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  • Questions regarding ordering of catch statements in catch block - compiler specific or language stan

    - by Andy
    I am currently using Visual Studio Express C++ 2008, and have some questions about catch block ordering. Unfortunately, I could not find the answer on the internet so I am posing these questions to the experts. I notice that unless catch (...) is placed at the end of a catch block, the compilation will fail with error C2311. For example, the following would compile: catch (MyException) { } catch (...) { } while the following would not: catch (...) { } catch (MyException) { } a. Could I ask if this is defined in the C++ language standard, or if this is just the Microsoft compiler being strict? b. Do C# and Java have the same rules as well? c. As an aside, I have also tried making a base class and a derived class, and putting the catch statement for the base class before the catch statement for the derived class. This compiled without problems. Are there no language standards guarding against such practice please?

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  • Python equivalent of IDL's stop and .reset

    - by Jamie
    Hi there, I'm relatively new to python but have a bit of experience using IDL. I was wondering if anyone knows if there are equivalent commands in python for IDL's stop and .reset commands. If I'm running some IDL script I wrote that I put a stop command in, essentially what it does is stop the script there and give me access to the command line in the middle of the script. So I have access to all the functions and variables that I defined before the stop command, which I find really useful for debugging. The .reset command I find extremely useful too. What it does is reset the the IDL environment (clears all variables, functions, etc.). It's as if I closed that session and opened a new one, but without having to exit and restart IDL. I find that if I'm trying to debug a script I wrote it's useful sometimes to start from scratch and not have to reset IDL (or python now). It would be useful also in python to be able to un-import any modules I had previously imported. Any help with these issues would be greatly appreciated. Cheers Related Python Drop into REPL Is it possible to go into ipython from code?

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  • WCF MessageHeaders in OperationContext.Current

    - by Nate Bross
    If I use code like this [just below] to add Message Headers to my OperationContext, will all future out-going messages contain that data on any new ClientProxy defined from the same "run" of my application? The objective, is to pass a parameter or two to each OpeartionContract w/out messing with the signature of the OperationContract, since the parameters being passed will be consistant for all requests for a given run of my client application. public void DoSomeStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); proxy.DoOperation(...); } public void DoSomeOTHERStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); proxy.DoOtherOperation(...); } In other words, is it safe to refactor the above code like this? bool isSetup = false; public void SetupMessageHeader() { if(isSetup) { return; } Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); isSetup = true; } public void DoSomeStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); SetupMessageHeader(); proxy.DoOperation(...); } public void DoSomeOTHERStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); SetupMessageHeader(); proxy.DoOtherOperation(...); } Since I don't really understand what's happening there, I don't want to cargo cult it and just change it and let it fly if it works, I'd like to hear your thoughts on if it is OK or not.

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  • PHP doesn't properly URL-decode POST values, or is the bug somewhere else?

    - by Vilx-
    I have a PHP website that integrates with PayPal. As part of it's normal operation it sends a POST request to a user defined URL about every transaction (and some other events). It's called IPN for those who know. All was/is working just fine, until we moved to a new hosting provider last week. This naturally resulted in downtime, changing DNS entries, PHP misconfigurations, etc. In short - PayPal was unable to send the notifications for a few days. Now, this is not that bad, because there is an option just for that - you can log into PayPal, go to the appropriate menu item, and have it resend the failed notifications. Which we did, and it resulted in over 400 error emails. The problem is that normally the email of the receiver ($_POST['business']) is received by PHP as [email protected], but when resending it comes out as my%40business.com. And the request validation goes crazy. Obviously either something somewhere is missing a call to urldecode() or something is doing one too many urlencode(). But who? Is this a bug in PHP? I've never had such a problem before, not with any POST data ever. Perhaps PayPal has a bug? Wouldn't be surprising, but then this should have been caught ages ago. Or perhaps I'm doing something wrong and I should really be calling the urldecode() myself?

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  • How do I reference Django Model from another model

    - by user313943
    Im looking to create a view in the admin panel for a test program which logs Books, publishers and authors (as on djangoproject.com) I have the following two models defined. class Author(models.Model): first_name = models.CharField(max_length=30) last_name = models.CharField(max_length=30) email = models.EmailField() def __unicode__(self): return u'%s %s' % (self.first_name, self.last_name) class Book(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) authors = models.ManyToManyField(Author) publisher = models.ForeignKey(Publisher) publication_date = models.DateField() def __unicode__(self): return self.title What I want to do, is change the Book model to reference the first_name of any authors and show this using admin.AdminModels. #Here is the admin model I've created. class BookAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): list_display = ('title', 'publisher', 'publication_date') # Author would in here list_filter = ('publication_date',) date_hierarchy = 'publication_date' ordering = ('-publication_date',) fields = ('title', 'authors', 'publisher', 'publication_date') filter_horizontal = ('authors',) raw_id_fields = ('publisher',) As I understand it, you cannot have two ForeignKeys in the same model. Can anyone give me an example of how to do this? I've tried loads of different things and its been driving me mad all day. Im pretty new to Python/Django. Just to be clear - I'd simply like the Author(s) First/Last name to appear alongside the book title and publisher name. Thanks

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  • Error: Only LDAP Connection Strings are Supported against Active Directory

    - by Brent Pabst
    I have the following ASP.NET Membership section defined in the Web.config file: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add connectionStringName="ADService" connectionUsername="umanage" connectionPassword="letmein" enablePasswordReset="true" enableSearchMethods="true" applicationName="uManage" clientSearchTimeout="30" serverSearchTimeout="30" name="AspNetActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider" type="System.Web.Security.ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </providers> </membership> The Connection string looks like this: <add name="ADService" connectionString="ldap://familynet.local" /> Whenever I call the following code: Membership.GetAllUsers(); I get the following error: Configuration Error Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Only LDAP connection strings are supported against Active Directory and ADAM. I don't understand why the system is claiming the LDAP connection string is bad because it is in fact a valid LDAP string as specified by the MSDN documentation. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.activedirectorymembershipprovider.aspx Any ideas?

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  • JPA merge fails due to duplicate key

    - by wobblycogs
    I have a simple entity, Code, that I need to persist to a MySQL database. public class Code implements Serializable { @Id private String key; private String description; ...getters and setters... } The user supplies a file full of key, description pairs which I read, convert to Code objects and then insert in a single transaction using em.merge(code). The file will generally have duplicate entries which I deal with by first adding them to a map keyed on the key field as I read them in. A problem arises though when keys differ only by case (for example: XYZ and XyZ). My map will, of course, contain both entries but during the merge process MySQL sees the two keys as being the same and the call to merge fails with a MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException. I could easily fix this by uppercasing the keys as I read them in but I'd like to understand exactly what is going wrong. The conclusion I have come to is that JPA considers XYZ and XyZ to be different keys but MySQL considers them to be the same. As such when JPA checks its list of known keys (or does whatever it does to determine whether it needs to perform an insert or update) it fails to find the previous insert and issuing another which then fails. Is this corrent? Is there anyway round this other than better filtering the client data? I haven't defined .equals or .hashCode on the Code class so perhaps this is the problem.

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  • New To StructureMap - Getting No Default Instance Error 202

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am very new to StructureMap and am getting the following error: StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily Company.ProjectCore.Core.IUserSession, Company.ProjectCore, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null It seems to be hitting the first interface instance on compile and then throws the above error: private readonly IUserSession _userSession; public SiteMaster() { _userSession = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IUserSession>(); // ERROR THROWN HERE ... } For what it is worth, I have the PluginFamily reference above all of interfaces: [PluginFamily("Default")] public interface IUserSession Below is my entire StructureMap.config <StructureMap> <Assembly Name="Company.ProjectWeb" /> <Assembly Name="Company.ProjectCore" /> <!-- Use DefaultKey="Default" for standard cache or DefaultKey="MemCached" for memcached cache. --> <PluginFamily Assembly="Company.ProjectCore" Type="Company.ProjectCore.Core.ICache" DefaultKey="MemCached" /> <!-- Use DefaultKey="Default" for sending the email in real time through the configured mail server or use DefaultKey="MailQueue" to send the mail in batches through another process --> <PluginFamily Assembly="Company.ProjectCore" Type="Company.ProjectCore.Core.IEmailService" DefaultKey="MailQueue" /> <!-- Use DefaultKey="Default" for standard cache or DefaultKey="UserSession" for memcached cache. --> <PluginFamily Assembly="Company.ProjectCore" Type="Company.ProjectCore.Core.IUserSession" DefaultKey="UserSession" /> <!-- Use DefaultKey="Default" for standard cache or DefaultKey="Redirector" for memcached cache. --> <PluginFamily Assembly="Company.ProjectCore" Type="Company.ProjectCore.Core.IRedirector" DefaultKey="Redirector" /> <!-- Use DefaultKey="Default" for standard cache or DefaultKey="Navigation" for memcached cache. --> <PluginFamily Assembly="Company.ProjectCore" Type="Company.ProjectCore.Core.INavigation" DefaultKey="Navigation" /> Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Problem in IE8 with GET Parameters in opening a new windows with javascript.

    - by amfa95
    Hi, I have a problem with IE8 and the opening of a new window with javascript and submitting parameters with special characters. <a href="javascript:oWin('/html/de/4664286/printregistrationcontent.html?12-security question&#61;Wie hei&#223;t Ihr Lieblingsrestaurant','PRINT',800,600);" class="print">Seite drucken</a> The Problem is the letter 'ß' (sharp S). As you can see the string above is encodes due to anti XSS. This link works in FF and IE6 but IE8 is transmitting the URL Parameter as character with code 65*** (don't know the exaxt value). In the opening window you will only see a square (because character with 65000+ is not printable). I also tried to use URL Encoding instead of HTML encoding <a href="javascript:oWin('/html/de/4664286/printregistrationcontent.html?12-security question%3DWie hei%C3%9Ft Ihr Lieblingsrestaurant','PRINT',800,600);" class="print">Seite drucken</a> If i click on this Link in FF or IE6 it works as expected, but IE8 will fail to transmit the "ß" to the server and therefor will also get it back in the wrong way. If i paste this url to the IE8 it will work too, but not if the window is opened by javascript. The Javascript function oWin is defined as follows function oWin(url,title,sizeH,sizeV) { winHandle = top.open(url,title,'toolbar=no,directories=no,status=yes,scrollbars=yes,menubar=no,resizable=no,width='+sizeH+',height='+sizeV); if(navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 3",0)==-1) id = setTimeout('winHandle.focus()',1000); } If someone has an idea where to look for the reason please answer to this. Thank you amfa

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  • rails foreman does not load all my services on start

    - by Rubytastic
    Rails foreman does not load all my services defined in Procfile. Procfile.rb: redis: redis-server resque: bundle exec rake resque:start &&> log/resque_worker_queue.log privpub: bundle exec rackup private_pub.ru -s thin -E production & &> log/private_pub.log sunspot: bundle exec rake sunspot:solr:run I always have to manually start all of them by copy paste the commands in terminal foreman start does not work, what am i missing? This is foreman output: 12:35:40 privpub.1 | process terminated 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to all processes 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to pid 4375 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 # Received SIGTERM, scheduling shutdown... 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 # User requested shutdown... 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 * Saving the final RDB snapshot before exiting. 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 * DB saved on disk 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 # Redis is now ready to exit, bye bye... 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to pid 4376 12:35:40 resque.1 | rake aborted! 12:35:40 resque.1 | SIGTERM 12:35:40 resque.1 | 12:35:40 resque.1 | (See full trace by running task with --trace) 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to pid 4378 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | rake aborted! 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | SIGTERM 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | (See full trace by running task with --trace) 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | process terminated 12:35:40 resque.1 | process terminated 12:35:40 redis.1 | process terminated

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  • Google App Engine: JDO does the job, JPA does not

    - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan
    I have setup a project using both Jdo and Jpa. I used Jpa Annotation to Declare my Entity. Then I setup my testCases based on LocalTestHelper (from Google App Engine Documentation). When I run the test, a call to makePersistent of Jdo:PersistenceManager is perfectly OK; a call to persist of Jpa:EntityManager raised an error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Type ("org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel") is not that of an entity but needs to be for this operation at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:888) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:385) Caused by: org.datanucleus.exceptions.NoPersistenceInformationException: The class "org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel" is required to be persistable yet no Meta-Data/Annotations can be found for this class. Please check that the Meta-Data/annotations is defined in a valid file location. at org.datanucleus.ObjectManagerImpl.assertClassPersistable(ObjectManagerImpl.java:3894) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:884) ... 27 more How can it be the case? Below is the link to the source code of the maven projects that reproduce that problem: http://seamoo.com/jpa-bug-reproduce.tar.gz Execute the maven test goal over the parent pom you will notice that 3/4 tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jdo.JdoGenericDAOImplTest passed, while all tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.JpaGenericDAOImplTest failed.

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  • What is the difference between AF_INET and PF_INET constants?

    - by Denilson Sá
    Looking at examples about socket programming, we can see that some people use AF_INET while others use PF_INET. In addition, sometimes both of them are used at the same example. The question is: Is there any difference between them? Which one should we use? If you can answer that, another question would be... Why there are these two similar (but equal) constants? What I've discovered, so far: The socket manpage In (Unix) socket programming, we have the socket() function that receives the following parameters: int socket(int domain, int type, int protocol); The manpage says: The domain argument specifies a communication domain; this selects the protocol family which will be used for communication. These families are defined in <sys/socket.h>. And the manpage cites AF_INET as well as some other AF_ constants for the domain parameter. Also, at the NOTES section of the same manpage, we can read: The manifest constants used under 4.x BSD for protocol families are PF_UNIX, PF_INET, etc., while AF_UNIX etc. are used for address families. However, already the BSD man page promises: "The protocol family generally is the same as the address family", and subsequent standards use AF_* everywhere. The C headers The sys/socket.h does not actually define those constants, but instead includes bits/socket.h. This file defines around 38 AF_ constants and 38 PF_ constants like this: #define PF_INET 2 /* IP protocol family. */ #define AF_INET PF_INET Python The Python socket module is very similar to the C API. However, there are many AF_ constants but only one PF_ constant (PF_PACKET). Thus, in Python we have no choice but use AF_INET. I think this decision to include only the AF_ constants follows one of the guiding principles: "There should be one-- and preferably only one --obvious way to do it." (The Zen of Python)

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  • Programmatically controlling a Dojo Accordion

    - by prule
    I have a dijit.layout.AccordionContainer on my page which is defined in the html and created when dojo parses the page on load. Then, as the user interacts with the page I use Ajax to retrieve data and programmatically populate the container (removing existing items first). To illustrate my issue simply, here is some code that doesn't work: function doit() { var accordion = dijit.byId("accordionShell"); accordion.getChildren().each(function(item) { accordion.removeChild(item); }); for (i = 1; i < 5; i++) { var d = new dijit.layout.AccordionPane({title:'hello', content:'world'}); accordion.addChild(d); } } This fails, because only the first item in the accordian is visible. I think the others actually exist, but they are not visible so you can't do anything. I've managed to get around it by: Always ensuring there is 1 item in the accordian (so I never remove the first child) Call accordian.layout() after changing the contents So, this code "works" as long as you always want to see the first item, and don't actually expand any but the first one: function doit() { var accordion = dijit.byId("accordionShell"); var i = 0; accordion.getChildren().each(function(item) { if (i > 0) accordion.removeChild(item); i++; }); for (i = 1; i < 5; i++) { var d = new dijit.layout.AccordionPane({title:'hello', content:'world'}); accordion.addChild(d); } accordion.layout(); } I am using Dojo 1.2.0 - Anyone know what I am doing wrong?

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