Search Results

Search found 8286 results on 332 pages for 'defined'.

Page 236/332 | < Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >

• what is the exact way to use Endorsed directory in jdk1.6

  - by raticulin

  I want to upgrade my jaxws to 2.2 (jdk1.6 comes bundled with jaxws 2.1). My jdk is (I did not install public jre): java version "1.6.0_20" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_20-b02) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 16.3-b01, mixed mode) In jaxws' own doc they explain how to do it: One way to fix this is to copy jaxws-api.jar and jaxb-api.jar into JRE endorsed directory, which is $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed (or $JDK_HOME/jre/lib/endorsed) But I am not sure this is having any effect in my installation. For starters I have only defined %JAVA_HOME%. And folder $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed is inexistant, so I created and copied the two jars. But if I do (wsgen is a tool from jaxws) wsgen -version I still get: JAX-WS RI 2.1.6 in JDK 6 I also tried creating folder JAVA_HOME\jre\lib\endorsed (notice that in the doc they say JDK_HOME, but as I only have JAVA_HOME I used this path). Still same wsgen output. My questions are: What is the difference between JAVA_HOME and JDK_HOME in the doc page? anything significant or just two ways to refer to JAVA_HOME ? Is 'wsgen -version' a valid way to check jaxws version that is used or this always calls the exe in the original jdk, but it does not mean endorsed jars will be used? Anyone knows very detailed steps to install jaxws2.2 in a jdk.16?

  Read the article

• Probably an easy one - PHP/CodeIgniter 'Undefined Variable'

  - by Jack W-H

  Morning y'all This is probably an easy one but I barely got any sleep last night and am struggling to comprehend anything. I've got a CodeIgniter library I've made called Points.php. Here's the contents of Points: <?php if (!defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class Points { function __construct() { $this->ci =& get_instance(); $this->ci->load->database(); } function getpoints($params) { echo $userid; } } /* End of file Points.php */ /* Location: ./application/libraries/Points.php */ ?> As you can see, I'm building it up slowly and it's being kept simple. In one of my views, I want it to display the number of 'points' (which for the time being is simply the third segment of the URI). I call it like this: <p>Points: <?php $params['user_id']=$this->uri->segment(3,1); echo $this->points->getpoints($params); ?></p> The warning I get back in the view is this: A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Notice Message: Undefined variable: userid Filename: libraries/Points.php Yes I know it's such a simple problem but I've tried lots of things. Some variations include echoing in Points.php $params['userid']; etc. But I don't see what I'm doing wrong? This is my first CodeIgniter class and I've fallen at the first step, haha...

  Read the article

• EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

  - by justastefan

  Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

  Read the article

• how to fix: ctags null expansion of name pattern "\1"

  - by bua

  Hi, As the title points I have problem with ctags when trying to parse user-defined language. Basically I've followed those instructions. The quickest and easiest way to do this is by defining a new language using the program options. In order to have Swine support available every time I start ctags, I will place the following lines into the file $HOME/.ctags, which is read in every time ctags starts: --langdef=swine --langmap=swine:.swn --regex-swine=/^def[ \t]*([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)/\1/d,definition/ The first line defines the new language, the second maps a file extension to it, and the third defines a regular expression to identify a language definition and generate a tag file entry for it. I've tried different flags: b,e for regex. My definition of tag is: --regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/\l/f,function/b When I replace \1 with anything else (ascii caracter set ), It works. the output is: (--regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/my function name/f,function/b) !_TAG_FILE_FORMAT 2 /extended format; --format=1 will not append ;" to lines/ !_TAG_FILE_SORTED 1 /0=unsorted, 1=sorted, 2=foldcase/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_AUTHOR Darren Hiebert /[email protected]/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_NAME Exuberant Ctags // !_TAG_PROGRAM_URL http://ctags.sourceforge.net /official site/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_VERSION 5.8 // my function name file.q /^.ras.getLocation:{[u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.getResource:{[u; pass]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.init:{$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.kill:{[u; force]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.asdf.status:{[what; u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.pc:{$/;" f Why \1 doesn't work? (I've tried all 1-9)

  Read the article

• Aliasing Resources (WPF)

  - by Noldorin

  I am trying to alias a resource in XAML, as follows: <UserControl.Resources> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="newName" ResourceKey="oldName"/> </UserControl.Resources> oldName simply refers to a resource of type Image, defined in App.xaml. As far as I understand, this is the correct way to do this, and should work fine. However, the XAML code gives me the superbly unhelpful error: "The application XAML file failed to load. Fix errors in the application XAML before opening other XAML files." This appears when I hover over the StaticResourceExtension line in the code (which has a squiggly underline). Several other errors are generated in the actual Error List, but seem to be fairly irrelevant and nonsenical (such messages as "The name 'InitializeComponent' does not exist in the current context"), as they all disappear when the line is removed. I'm completely stumped here. Why is WPF complaining about this code? Any ideas as to a resolution please? Note: I'm using WPF in .NET 3.5 SP1. Update 1: I should clairfy that I do receive compiler errors (the aforementioned messages in the Error List), so it's not just a designer problem. Update 2: Here's the relevant code in full... In App.xaml (under Application.Resource): <Image x:Key="bulletArrowUp" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_up.png" Stretch="None"/> <Image x:Key="bulletArrowDown" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_down.png" Stretch="None"/> And in MyUserControl.xaml (under UserControl.Resources): <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortUpImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowUp"/> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortDownImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowDown"/> These are the lines that generate the errors, of course.

  Read the article

• Can't contravariance be solved with interfaces?

  - by Sir Psycho

  Hi, I'm at the point where I'm starting to grasp contravariance, although I'm trying to work out what the advantage is when an interface can be used instead. Obviously I'm missing something. Here is the c#4 example class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } Action<Animal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<Dog> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); Same example which works in earlier versions on c# class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal : IAnimal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } interface IAnimal { void Walk(); } Action<IAnimal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<IAnimal> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); These may not be the best examples, but I still can't seem to 'get it'. Is the in keywork defined on the action delegate simply a short hand syntax way like lamda is to delegates?

  Read the article

• d:DesignData issue, Visual Studio 2010 cant build after adding sample design data with Expression Bl

  - by Valko

  Hi, VS 2010 solution and Silverlight project builds fine, then: I open MyView.xaml view in Expression Blend 4 Add sample data from class (I use my class defined in the same project) after I add new sample design data with Expression blend 4, everything looks fine, you see the added sample data in the EB 4 fine, you also see the data in VS 2010 designer too. Close the EB 4, and next VS 2010 build is giving me this errors: Error 7 XAML Namespace http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008 is not resolved. C:\Code\source\...myview.xaml and: Error 12 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. ... TestSampleData.xaml when I open the TestSampleData.xaml I see that namespace for my class used to define sample data is not recognized. However this namespace and the class itself exist in the same project! If I remove the design data from the MyView.xaml: d:DataContext="{d:DesignData /SampleData/TestSampleData.xaml}" it builds fine and the namespace in TestSampleData.xaml is recognized this time?? and then if add: d:DataContext="{d:DesignData /SampleData/TestSampleData.xaml}" I again see in the VS 2010 designer sample data, but the next build fails and again I see studio cant find the namespace in my TestSampleData.xaml containing sample data. That cycle is driving me crazy. Am I missing something here, is it not possible to have your class defining sample design data in the same project you have the MyView.xaml view?? cheers Valko

  Read the article

• Prevent Ninject from calling Initialize multiple times when binding to several interfaces

  - by Ahe

  Hi We have a concrete singleton service which implements Ninject.IInitializable and 2 interfaces. Problem is that services Initialize-methdod is called 2 times, when only one is desired. We are using .NET 3.5 and Ninject 2.0.0.0. Is there a pattern in Ninject prevent this from happening. Neither of the interfaces implement Ninject.IInitializable. the service class is: public class ConcreteService : IService1, IService2, Ninject.IInitializable { public void Initialize() { // This is called twice! } } And module looks like this: public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { this.Singleton<Iservice1, Iservice2, ConcreteService>(); } } where Singleton is an extension method defined like this: public static void Singleton<K, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K { module.Bind<K>().To<T>().InSingletonScope(); } public static void Singleton<K, L, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K, L { Singleton<K, T>(module); module.Bind<L>().ToMethod(n => n.Kernel.Get<T>()); } Of course we could add bool initialized-member to ConcreteService and initialize only when it is false, but it seems quite a bit of a hack. And it would require repeating the same logic in every service that implements two or more interfaces. Thanks for all the answers! I learned something from all of them! (I am having a hard time to decide which one mark correct). We ended up creating IActivable interface and extending ninject kernel (it also removed nicely code level dependencies to ninject, allthough attributes still remain).

  Read the article

• Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

  - by Craig Stuntz

  I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

  Read the article

• ImageViews in a ListView not aligned vertically [Mono for Android]

  - by shalmon

  I'm very new to developing apps to android, so bear with me. Having said that, I'm trying to make a list with a image to the left and a title and description to the right of the image. The image is downloaded from the web in the background and then set in the UI as they complete. This all works. However, the images are not aligned properly and I simply cannot understand why. I'm thinking it has something to do with the layout defined in the xml file? I tried using android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" and android:layout_gravity="left" but that got me nowhere. Then I didn't know how to proceed, even after googling every way I could think of. I'm sorry if this is very basic, but I would really appreciate some help here. Here's a pic of the situation: And here's my layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/widget28" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="80px" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/imageItem" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" > </ImageView> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/linearText" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_marginLeft="10px" android:layout_marginTop="10px" > <TextView android:id="@+id/textTop" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="TextView" > </TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/textBottom" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="TextView" > </TextView> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> I appreciate any help you can offer.

  Read the article

• Android App Build system differences between Eclipse and Ant?

  - by Amy Winarske

  The Eclipse build for my 1.6 application project is succeeding and the Ant build is failing. I'm looking for help on why they aren't behaving the same way. We are developing on Mac OSX 10.5.8 with Eclipse 3.5 against SDK 1.6 + Google APIs. There are no setting changes in Eclipse, either at workspace or project level. Similarly, our ant is also a vanilla- flavored unmodified installation of 1.7.1. JDK is 1.5.0_22. The CLASSPATH environment variable is not set. JAVA_HOME is /Library/Java/ Home The application was initially created by a team member using the Eclipse plugins. The application references two jar files, one of which has a dependency on javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlSeeAlso, which is not defined anywhere in our code or in android.jar. The other jar file has an explicit dependency on android.jar. I generated the Ant build file using android update. The Eclipse project builds an apk and runs the application in the emulator. I think this is incorrect behavior. The Android ant project fails to build. I think this is correct behavior. MyClass.java:98: cannot access javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlSeeAlso [javac] file javax/xml/bind/annotation/XmlSeeAlso.class not found Any ideas as to why the two build methods are behaving differently? I would expect them both to fail. Thanks! -Amy

  Read the article

• Configure WebLogic MDB to listen to Foreing AMQ Server

  - by eliel.lobo

  I'm trying to create an MDB(EJB 3.0) on WebLogic 10.3.5. to listen to a Queue in an external AMQ server. but after much work and combination of tutorials i get the followin error when deployin on WwebLogic. [EJB:015027]The Message-Driven EJB is transactional but JMS connection factory referenced by the JNDI name: ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory is not a JMS XA connection factory. Here is a brief of the work i have done: I have added the corresponding libraries to my WLS classpath (following thos tuturial http://amadei.com.br/blog/index.php/connecting-weblogic-and-activemq) and I have created the corresponding JMS Modules as indicated in the tutorial. As connection factory I have used ActiveMQConnectionFactory initially and ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory later, I also ignome the jms. notation an just put plain names as testQueue. Then create a simple MDB whit the following structure. I explicitly defined "connectionFactoryJndiName" property because otherwise it assumes a WebLogic connection factory which is not found an then raises an error. @MessageDriven( activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destination", propertyValue = "testQueue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "connectionFactoryJndiName", propertyValue = "ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory") }, mappedName = "testQueue") public class ROMELReceiver implements MessageListener { /** * Default constructor. */ public ROMELReceiver() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } /** * @see MessageListener#onMessage(Message) */ public void onMessage(Message message) { System.out.println("Message received"); } } At this point I'm stuck with the error mentioned above. Even though I use ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory instead of simply ActiveMQConnectionFactory, JNDI resources tree in web logic server shows org.apache.activemq.ActiveMQConnectionFactory as class for my configured connection factory. am i missing something? or is this just a completely wrong way to connect WebLogic whith AMQ? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• how to insert multiple rows using cakephp

  - by Paul

  In the cakePHP project I'm building, I want to insert a defined number of identical records. These will serve as placeholders records that will have additional data added later. Each record will insert the IDs taken from two belongs_to relationships as well as two other string values. What I want to do is be able to enter a value for the number of records I want created, which would equate to how many times the data is looped during save. What I don't know is: 1) how to setup a loop to handle a set number of inserts 2) how to define a form field in cakePHP that only sets the number of records to create. What I've tried is the following: function massAdd() { $inserts_required = 1; while ($inserts_required <= 10) { $this->Match->create(); $this->Match->save($this->data); echo $inserts_required++; } $brackets = $this->Match->Bracket->find('list'); $this->set(compact('brackets')); } What happens is: 1) at the top of the screen, above the doc type, the string 12345678910 is displayed, this is displayed on screen 2) a total of 11 records are created, and only the last record has the values passed in the form. I don't know why 11 records as opposed to 10 are created, and why only the last records has the entered form data? As always, your help and direction is appreciated. -Paul

  Read the article

• dlopen / dlsym with as little linking as possible

  - by johannes

  I have an application which can make use of plugins which are loaded at runtime using dlopen. Each of the plugins defines a function toretrieve the plugin information which is defined using a common structure. Something like that: struct plugin { char *name; char *app_version; int app_verion_id; char *plugin_version; int plugin_version_id; /* ... */ }; struct plugin p = { "sample plugin",APP_VERION,APP_VERSION_ID,"1.2.3",10203 }; struct plugin *get_plugin() { return &p; } This works well and plugins can be loaded. Now i want to build a small tool to read these properties without linking the whole application. For doing that I have some code like this: void *handle; struct plugin *plugin; struct plugin *(get_plugin*)(); handle = dlopen(filename, RTLD_LAZY); if (!handle) { /*...return; ...*/ } get_plugin = dlym(handle, "get_plugin"); if (!get_plugin) { /*...return; ...*/ } plugin = get_plugin(); printf("Plugin: %s\n", plugin->name); This works nice for simple plugins. The issue is that many plugins reference further symbols from the application, which are resolved even though RTLD_LAZY was set. (like global variables from the application which are used to initialize plugin-global things) So the dlopen() call fails with an error like fatal: relocation error: file sample_plugin.so: symbol application_some_symbol: referenced symbol not found. As I just want to have access to the single simple structure I was wondering how I can prevent the linker from doing that much of his work.

  Read the article

• Multiple dynamic timers

  - by Rickard

  I am working on a project where I need to let the user create one (or more) timers to fire off an event. The user is supposed to define variables such as if the timer should be active and how often the timer will fire along with some other variables of what will happen when the timer is fiering. All these variables are stored in a dictionary (Disctionary) where the object holds all the variables the user has set and the string is the name that the user has chosen for this timer. I then want my program to loop through this dictionary and search for all objects which has the variable t_Active set to true (this I have already achieved). What I need help with figuring out is the follwoing: When it detects the variable, and if it's set to true, I need the program to see if there is already a timer created for this. If it isn't, it should create one and set the relevant parameters for the timer. The two variables t_num and t_period should decide the interval of the timer. t_num is an int and t_period is a string which will be set to either minutes, hours or days. Combining t_num with 60000 (minutes), 3600000 (hours) or 86400000 should give the corrct interval. But how would I go on about programatically create a timer for each user-defined active object? And how do I get the program to detect wether or not a timer has already been created? I have been searching both here and on google, but so far I haven't come across something that makes sense to me. I am still learning C#, so what make sense to you guys may not neccessarilly make sense to me yet. :) I hope I have explaned what I need good enough, please do ask me to clarify if you don't get me. Edit: Maybe I should also mention that the mentioned dictionary will also be saved to an XML file to that the user can pick up all the settings they made at any time.

  Read the article

• How do I store complex objects in javascript?

  - by Colen

  Hello, I need to be able to store objects in javascript, and access them very quickly. For example, I have a list of vehicles, defined like so: { "name": "Jim's Ford Focus", "color": "white", isDamaged: true, wheels: 4 } { "name": "Bob's Suzuki Swift", "color": "green", isDamaged: false, wheels: 4 } { "name": "Alex's Harley Davidson", "color": "black", isDamaged: false, wheels: 2 } There will potentially be hundreds of these vehicle entries, which might be accessed thousands of times. I need to be able to access them as fast as possible, ideally in some useful way. For example, I could store the objects in an array. Then I could simply say vehicles[0] to get the Ford Focus entry, vehicles[1] to get the Suzuki Swift entry, etc. However, how do I know which entry is the Ford Focus? I want to simply ask "find me Jim's Ford Focus" and have the object returned to me, as fast as possible. For example, in another language, I might use a hash table, indexed by name. How can I do this in javascript? Or, is there a better way? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Reference inherited class's <T>ype in a derived class

  - by DRapp

  I don't know if its possible or not, but here's what I need. I'm toying around with something and want to know if its possible since you can't create your own data type based on a sealed type such as int, Int32, Int64, etc. I want to create a top-level class that is defined of a given type with some common stuff. Then, derive this into two subclasses, but in this case, each class is based on either and int or Int64 type. From THAT instance, create an instance of either one and know its yped basis for parameter referenc / return settings. So when I need to create an instance of the "ThisClass", I don't have to know its type basis of either int or Int64, yet IT will know the type and be able to allow methods/functions to be called with the typed... This way, If I want to change my ThisClass definition from SubLevel1 to SubLevel2, I don't have to dance around all different data type definitions. Hope this makes sense.. public class TopLevel<T> { ... } pubic class SubLevel1 : TopLevel<int> { ... } public class SubLevel2 : TopLevel<Int64> { ... } public class ThisClass : SubLevel1 { ... public <based on the Int data type from SubLevel1> SomeFunc() { return <the Int value computed>; } }

  Read the article

• Flex - Issues retrieving an XMLList

  - by BS_C3

  Hello! I'm having a problem retrieving a XMLList and I don't understand why. I have an application that is running properly. It uses some data from two xml files called division.xml and store.xml. I noticed that I have some data in division.xml that should be in store.xml, so I did a copy/paste of the data from one file to the other. This is the data I copied: <stores> <store> <odeis>101</odeis> <name></name> <password></password> <currency></currency> <currSymbol></currSymbol> </store> <store> <odeis>102</odeis> <name></name> <password></password> <currency></currency> <currSymbol></currSymbol> </store> </stores> In the application, I list all odeis codes and I need to retrieve the block store corresponding to the selected odeis code. Before moving the data into store.xml, this is how I retrieved the block: var node:XMLList = divisionData.division.(@name==HomePageData.instance.divisionName).stores.store.(odeis == HomePageData.instance.storeCodeOdeis) This is how I retrieve it after copying the data into store.xml: var node:XMLList = storeData.stores.(@name==HomePageData.instance.divisionName).store.(odeis == HomePageData.instance.storeCodeOdeis) And I'm currently getting the following error: ReferenceError: Error #1065: The variable odeis is not defined. Could anyone enlighten me? Cause I really have no clue of why it is not working... Thanks for any tips you can give. Regards, BS_C3

  Read the article

• WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

  - by ignis

  I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

  Read the article

• How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

  - by Kyle

  I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

  Read the article

• What is the best way to process XML sent to WCF 3.5

  - by CRM Junkie

  I have to develop a WCF application in 3.5. The input will be sent in the form of XML and the response would be sent in the form of XML as well. A ASP.NET application will be consuming the WCF and sending/receiving data in XML format. Now, as per my understanding, when consuming WCF from an ASP.NET application, we just add a reference to the service, create an object of the service, pack all the necessary data(Data Members in WCF) into the input object (object of the Data Contract) and call the necessary function. It happens that the ASP.NET application is being developed by a separate party and they are hell bent on receiving and sending data in XML format. What I can perceive from this is that the WCF will take the XML string (a single Data Member string type) as input and send out a XML string (again a single Data Member string type) as output. I have created WCF applications earlier where requests and responses were sent out in XML/JSON format when it was consumed by jQuery ajax calls. In those cases, the XML tags were automatically mapped to the different Data Members defined. What approach should I take in this case? Should I just take a string as input (basically the XML string) or is there any way WCF/.NET 3.5 will automatically map the XML tags with the Data Members for requests and responses and I would not need to parse the XML string separately?

  Read the article

• How to deal with recursive dependencies between static libraries using the binutils linker?

  - by Jack Lloyd

  I'm porting an existing system from Windows to Linux. The build is structured with multiple static libraries. I ran into a linking error where a symbol (defined in libA) could not be found in an object from libB. The linker line looked like g++ test_obj.o -lA -lB -o test The problem of course being that by the time the linker finds it needs the symbol from libA, it has already passed it by, and does not rescan, so it simply errors out even though the symbol is there for the taking. My initial idea was of course to simply swap the link (to -lB -lA) so that libA is scanned afterwards, and any symbols missing from libB that are in libA are picked up. But then I find there is actually a recursive dependency between libA and libB! I'm assuming the Visual C++ linker handles this in some way (does it rescan by default?). Ways of dealing with this I've considered: Use shared objects. Unfortunately this is undesirable from the perspective of requiring PIC compliation (this is performance sensitive code and losing %ebx to hold the GOT would really hurt), and shared objects aren't needed. Build one mega ar of all of the objects, avoiding the problem. Restructure the code to avoid the recursive dependency (which is obviously the Right Thing to do, but I'm trying to do this port with minimal changes). Do you have other ideas to deal with this? Is there some way I can convince the binutils linker to perform rescans of libraries it has already looked at when it is missing a symbol?

  Read the article

• Change specificity by child

  - by jim red

  hi I'd like to integrate a theme tag to my elements so they appear in diffrent colours. But since the css selectors have the same css specificity the latest overrides the earlier defined rule. this is an example that shows my problem: .... <div class="red"> <div class="box">This should be red</div> <div class="yellow"> ... <div class="box">This should be yellow (nested in x levels under the div.yellow)</div> ... </div> .... and here my css .box { width: 100px; height: 100px; } .yellow { background-color: yellow; } .red { background-color: red; } the box should be listed somewhere, but as soon as it is a sub child of another color definition it should been overwritten. thanks for any help! //jim

  Read the article

• Generics with constraints hierarchy

  - by devoured elysium

  I am currently facing a very disturbing problem: interface IStateSpace<Position, Value> where Position : IPosition // <-- Problem starts here where Value : IValue // <-- and here as I don't { // know how to get away this // circular dependency! // Notice how I should be // defining generics parameters // here but I can't! Value GetStateAt(Position position); void SetStateAt(Position position, State state); } As you'll down here, both IPosition, IValue and IState depend on each other. How am I supposed to get away with this? I can't think of any other design that will circumvent this circular dependency and still describes exactly what I want to do! interface IState<StateSpace, Value> where StateSpace : IStateSpace where Value : IValue { StateSpace StateSpace { get; }; Value Value { get; set; } } interface IPosition { } interface IValue<State> where State : IState { State State { get; } } Basically I have a state space IStateSpace that has states IState inside. Their position in the state space is given by an IPosition. Each state then has one (or more) values IValue. I am simplifying the hierarchy, as it's a bit more complex than described. The idea of having this hierarchy defined with generics is to allow for different implementations of the same concepts (an IStateSpace will be implemented both as a matrix as an graph, etc). Would can I get away with this? How do you generally solve this kind of problems? Which kind of designs are used in these cases? Thanks

  Read the article

• How to use CodeDomSerializer to serialize an object in .Net?

  - by user341127

  I have a class, which is defined as the following: [ToolboxItem(false)] [DesignTimeVisible(false)] [DesignerSerializer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design", "System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializer, System.Design")] [Designer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.BaseRepositoryItemDesigner, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design")] [LicenseProvider(typeof(DXEditorLicenseProvider))] public class RepositoryItem : Component, ISupportInitialize, ICustomTypeDescriptor, IImageCollectionHelper {......} I tried the following code to serialize the object of this class. DesignerSerializationManager m = new System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.DesignerSerializationManager(); m.CreateSession(); DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer s = m.GetSerializer(typeof(RepositoryItem), typeof(DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer)) as DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer; RepositoryItem i = persistentRepository1.Items[0]; //m.Container.Add(i); s.Serialize(m,i );// An error "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." happended here. For I am not familiar with CodeDom, I have spent one day to get the way out. I guess the above code has some stupid mistakes. Please give me a hand to show how to serialize AND DeSelialize such objects of the class of Repository. BTW, the reason I don't use any other serializer is that I am supposed not to have rights to know the source code of RepositoryItem and others could inherit RepositoryItem at the same time. And actually I have to deal with RepositoryItem and its descendants. Thank you in advance. Ying

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >