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  • Where should 'CreateMap' statements go?

    - by jonathanconway
    I frequently use AutoMapper to map Model (Domain) objects to ViewModel objects, which are then consumed by my Views, in a Model/View/View-Model pattern. This involves many 'Mapper.CreateMap' statements, which all must be executed, but must only be executed once in the lifecycle of the application. Technically, then, I should keep them all in a static method somewhere, which gets called from my Application_Start() method (this is an ASP.NET MVC application). However, it seems wrong to group a lot of different mapping concerns together in one central location. Especially when mapping code gets complex and involves formatting and other logic. Is there a better way to organize the mapping code so that it's kept close to the ViewModel that it concerns? (I came up with one idea - having a 'CreateMappings' method on each ViewModel, and in the BaseViewModel, calling this method on instantiation. However, since the method should only be called once in the application lifecycle, it needs some additional logic to cache a list of ViewModel types for which the CreateMappings method has been called, and then only call it when necessary, for ViewModels that aren't in that list.)

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  • php refresh on 2nd page refresh

    - by cnotethegr8
    i have this function that gives me an output of a number. (the number is my total amount of downloads from my iphone themes.) because the code has to make so many requests, it loads the page very slowly. what would be the best way for me to go about the code loading into a variable and than calling it on the second page refresh. so it dosnt take so long to load? or any other method will do. i just want it to not take so long to load! also this isnt on my server so i cant use $.ajax <?php function all_downloads() { $allThemes = array( 'com.modmyi.batterytheme', 'com.modmyi.connectiontheme', 'com.modmyi.icontheme', 'com.modmyi.percenttheme', 'com.modmyi.statusnotifiertheme', 'com.modmyi.cnote', 'com.modmyi.iaccescnotekb', 'com.modmyi.cnotelite', 'com.modmyi.multibrowsericon', 'com.modmyi.changeappstoreiconwithinstallous' ); $total = 0; foreach($allThemes as $com_modmyi){ $theme = file_get_contents( "http://modmyi.com/cstats/index.php?package=".$com_modmyi.'&output=number'); $theme = str_replace(",","", $theme); $almost_done += $theme; $rock_your_phone = 301; //From c-note and Multi Lock Screen Theme on Rock Your Phone $total = ($almost_done + $rock_your_phone); } echo number_format($total); } ?>

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  • Google Chrome, IE problem with adjusting style before AJAX

    - by orokusaki
    When I'm using AJAX, I typically do something before each request to let the user know that they'll be waiting for a second. This is usually done by just adding an animated loading gif. When I do this, Firefox does what you'd expect and adds the gif before moving control to the next line (where the AJAX is called). In Chrome, it locks the browser and doesn't make any DOM changes at all (let alone load an image), including even changing the color of something, until the AJAX is done. This isn't just AJAX though. It's anything that holds control, and it never makes DOM changes until the control is given back to the window. Example (using jQuery): function submit_order() { $('#my_element').css('color', '#FF0000'); // Make text red before calling AJAX $.getJSON('/api/', my_callback) // Note, in IE and Chrome #my_element isn't turned red until the AJAX finishes and my_callback is run } Why does this happen, and how can I solve it? I can't use ASYNC because of the nature of the data (it would be a big mess). I experimented with using window.setTimeout(myajaxfunc, 150) after setting the style, to see if it would set the style, then do the timeout, but it appears it isn't an issue with just AJAX, but rather the control of the script in general (I think, hence the title making mention to AJAX because this is the only time I ever run into this problem). This doesn't have anything to do with it being in a function BTW.

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  • managed beans as managed properties

    - by Sean
    I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. I am building search functionality within an application and am having some issues. I've stripped out the extras, and have left myself with the following: 4 managed beans: SearchController - Controller bean, session scope SearchResults - session scope (store the results) ProductSearch - session scope (store the search conditions) ResultsBacking - Backing bean for DataTable, used to determine which row was clicked, request scope The SearchController bean has, as managed properties, the other 3. All except ResultsBacking are session scoped. If there is only 1 item in the search results, I want to bring up that record directly. I call setFirst(0) for the data table in the ResultsBacking method (I want to use the existing method that handle which item was clicked, so this is called right after the setFirst). When I go to do another search, I get an IllegalArgumentException when calling getRowData in the data table. According to the api, this is thrown 'if now(sic) row data is available at the currently specified row index'. I'm confused as to why this happens. It works the first time but not the second. Do I need to remove the ResultsBacking on a new search to get rid of the old state?

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  • PHP/JQuery/AJAX, few teething problems...

    - by thebluefox
    Morning/Afternoon guys. Writing some JQuery AJAX shizz and getting a bit stuck. I've got the actual proccess of calling the php file done perfectly, its just trying to get the html on the page to change in a way I want it to. I want to get rid of the a with the id of the one used in the ajax call etc, and replace it with the html passed from the PHP file. Code is as follows... $(".save_places").click(function() { $.ajax({ url: "{/literal}{$sRootPath}{literal}system/ajax/fan_bus.php", type: "POST", data: ({id : this.getAttribute('id')}), dataType: "html", success: function(msg){ $(this).before(msg); $(this).empty(); alert(msg); } }); return false; }); And the HTML is pretty simple; <p class="links"> <a href="#" class="save_places" id="bus_{$businesses.results[bus].id}_{$sMemberDetails.id}"><img src="{$sThemePath}images/save_places.png" alt="Save to My Places" /></a> <a href="#"><img src="{$sThemePath}images/send_friend.png" alt="Send to a Friend" /></a> </p> All the stuff in the success function is experimental mashing of code, any help please? Thanks as always.

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  • Core data and @unionOfSets

    - by KevinD
    Im having trouble using the @unionOfSets on my core-data objects. NSLog(@"%@", [NSApp valueForKeyPath:@"delegate.mainWindowController.sidebarViewController.arrayController.selection.list.listElement"]); Prints the set of listElements as expected 2010-03-24 18:11:15.844 Pirouette[7459:80f] Relationship objects for {( (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10a71b0 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10ac7d0 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10acf60 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10a6850 ; data: ) However when I try to get the set of file objects for each of the list elements. NSLog(@"%@", [NSApp valueForKeyPath:@"delegate.mainWindowController.sidebarViewController.arrayController.selection.list.listElement.@unionOfArrays.file"]); I get the following error 2010-03-24 18:16:45.843 Pirouette[7505:80f] An uncaught exception was raised 2010-03-24 18:16:45.844 Pirouette[7505:80f] [<NSCFSet 0x10415e0> valueForKeyPath:]: this class does not implement the unionOfArrays operation. 2010-03-24 18:16:45.847 Pirouette[7505:80f] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '[<NSCFSet 0x10415e0> valueForKeyPath:]: this class does not implement the unionOfArrays operation.' Confused because I thought calling to-many relationships in core-data were NSSets.

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  • Subview Doesnt AutoSize When Added to Root View Controller

    - by Per
    Hello, I have a root view controller that will have up to 10 or so subviews. I am implementing autorotation/autosize accross the entire app. My problem is this: - When I allocate all the view controllers and add each as a subview to the root controller during startup, everything works as it should. The only problem is that each view controller needs time to initialize. This causes my application to load very slowly. Instead I am trying to allocate the view controllers as they are required. Now I find that if the application goes into Landscape, and I allocate a view controller that is designed in portrait, it will autorotate but the autosize doesnt happen. In other words as soon as the subview is added to the root controller in portrait mode it rotates and sizes correctly (and stays that way). If the subview is added when the root controller is in landscape it rotates but doesnt autosize (and view sizes remain messed up rotating back to portrait) I have tried to force an autosize by calling SetNeedsLayout, SetNeedsDisplay, and LayoutIfNeeded but nothing works. I know i could probably do this manually by determining the root controllers orientation and resizing the subviews appropriately, but this is a lot of work for something that should work automatically. Am I missing something? Any help would be appreciated. My project is an iPad port from an iPhone app, the iPhone app doesnt rotate so Im not sure if this may be something wrong with the 3.2 beta.

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  • How do I use an SWT Control to render the content of an SWT/JFace table?

    - by jastram
    I have a JFace TableViewer with an SWT Table, and I would like to custom render the content of some cells. I would like to use an SWT Control to render the cell content. I would prefer to have only one instance of the Control doing the rendering, but if I have to instantiate one for each row, that would be acceptable. Next, the solution MUST be compatible with the ContentProvider/LabelProvider approach (I am using EMF). This means that I cannot use the solution described in Sniplet 126 (http://dev.eclipse.org/viewcvs/index.cgi/org.eclipse.swt.snippets). Next, I though about using custom drawing. But here the catch is, that I have to send individual drawing operations to the graphics context. I was trying to have the Control render the content for me by calling redraw() or print(GC) upon SWT.PaintItem, but that just lead to uncontrollable flickering. At this point, my best guess is to use SWT.PaintItem to do the drawing. This will result in duplicate code, as I already have a Control that can render the content the way I'd like it. I'd like to prevent this redundancy. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Entity Framework lazy loading doesn't work from other thread

    - by Thomas Levesque
    Hi, I just found out that lazy loading in Entity Framework only works from the thread that created the ObjectContext. To illustrate the problem, I did a simple test, with a simple model containing just 2 entities : Person and Address. Here's the code : private static void TestSingleThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p.Name, p.Address.City); } } } private static void TestMultiThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Person p2 = p; // to avoid capturing the loop variable ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem( arg => { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p2.Name, p2.Address.City); }); } } } The TestSingleThread method works fine, the Address property is lazily loaded. But in TestMultiThread, I get a NullReferenceException on p2.Address.City, because p2.Address is null. It that a bug ? Is this the way it's supposed to work ? If so, is there any documentation mentioning it ? I couldn't find anything on the subject on MSDN or Google... And more importantly, is there a workaround ? (other than explicitly calling LoadProperty from the worker thread...) Any help would be very appreciated PS: I'm using VS2010, so it's EF 4.0. I don't know if it was the same in the previous version of EF...

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  • How to convert an InputStream to a DataHandler?

    - by pcorey
    I'm working on a java web application in which files will be stored in a database. Originally we retrieved files already in the DB by simply calling getBytes on our result set: byte[] bytes = resultSet.getBytes(1); ... This byte array was then converted into a DataHandler using the obvious constructor: dataHandler=new DataHandler(bytes,"application/octet-stream"); This worked great until we started trying to store and retrieve larger files. Dumping the entire file contents into a byte array and then building a DataHandler out of that simply requires too much memory. My immediate idea is to retrieve a stream of the data in the database with getBinaryStream and somehow convert that InputStream into a DataHandler in a memory-efficient way. Unfortunately it doesn't seem like there's a direct way to convert an InputStream into a DataHandler. Another idea I've been playing with is reading chunks of data from the InputStream and writing them to the OutputStream of the DataHandler. But... I can't find a way to create an "empty" DataHandler that returns a non-null OutputStream when I call getOutputStream... Has anyone done this? I'd appreciate any help you can give me or leads in the right direction.

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  • Binary file email attachment problem

    - by Alan Harris-Reid
    Hi there, Using Python 3.1.2 I am having a problem sending binary attachment files (jpeg, pdf, etc.) - MIMEText attachments work fine. The code in question is as follows... for file in self.attachments: part = MIMEBase('application', "octet-stream") part.set_payload(open(file,"rb").read()) encoders.encode_base64(part) part.add_header('Content-Disposition', 'attachment; filename="%s"' % file) msg.attach(part) # msg is an instance of MIMEMultipart() server = smtplib.SMTP(host, port) server.login(username, password) server.sendmail(from_addr, all_recipients, msg.as_string()) However, way down in the calling-stack (see traceback below), it looks as though msg.as_string() has received an attachment which creates a payload of 'bytes' type instead of string. Has anyone any idea what might be causing the problem? Any help would be appreciated. Alan builtins.TypeError: string payload expected: File "c:\Dev\CommonPY\Scripts\email_send.py", line 147, in send server.sendmail(self.from_addr, all_recipients, msg.as_string()) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\message.py", line 136, in as_string g.flatten(self, unixfrom=unixfrom) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 76, in flatten self._write(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 101, in _write self._dispatch(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 127, in _dispatch meth(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 181, in _handle_multipart g.flatten(part, unixfrom=False) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 76, in flatten self._write(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 101, in _write self._dispatch(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 127, in _dispatch meth(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 155, in _handle_text raise TypeError('string payload expected: %s' % type(payload))

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  • WinForms data binding with a Save button?

    - by Mat
    How is data binding in C# WinForms supposed to work when you have a Save button? I don't want the data updated until I press Save! I have two forms (list and detail) backed by a BindingList<T> collection and my custom object from that collection, respectively. I can bind each form to the list or object appropriately. However, any changes made in the detail form are immediately reflected in the list form - I don't want to save the changes and update the details shown in the list until the Save button is pressed. Is data binding designed to support this? Is there a common pattern for doing so? Whichever way I look at it, binding doesn't seem to be able to support this scenario. I've considered the following: Pass a clone of the object to the detail form, but then I have to reconcile the changes on Save - changes may have been made to the copy in the list in the meantime. Implementing IEditableObject and calling EndEdit on save almost works as I can prevent the list being notified of the changes made until Save is pressed, but if something else causes a refresh the list is updated with the interim data. I'm currently left with dispensing with data binding in my detail view, and doing it all manually. Which is rather annoying.

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  • IPhone custom UITableViewCell Reloading

    - by Steblo
    Hi, currently I'm struggling with this problem: I got a UITableViewController that displays a tableView with different custom cells. One custom cell displays a number (by a label). If you click on this cell, the navigationController moves to a UIPicker where the user can select the number to be displayes. If the user moves back, the cell should display the updated value. Problem: I managed to reload the cells by calling - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } in the UITableViewController. This works only, if I don't use dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier for the cell (tables won't show updates otherwise). But in this case, memory usage grows and grows... In addition, the program crashes after about 15 movements to pickerView and back - I think because the cell that should be reloaded is already released. How can I update a reusable custom cell every time the view appears ? What is the best solution ? I think retaining cells should not be used ?

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  • External API function calls AS3 control timeline

    - by giles
    I have function problem using this code (below), the embedded flash movieclip disappears or completely prevents the scrollto.js query to function in DW cs3. Communication between Flash and JavaScript is without problems, it is the call back I can't find to work and more frustratingly, should be simple, as no values are not required. So far, this has been hours of scouring the net without a workable end in sight...ahrr. What is a function for this to work? JavaScript – to call Flash event from HTML button link, placed between head tags function callExternalInterface() var flashMovie = window.document.menu; flashMovie.menu_up(value); menu_up is the string. Does anyone know of workable function for callback?? HTML <div id="btn_up"><a href="#top" name="charDev" id="charDev" onclick="">top</a></div> Pane navigation div that uses Scrollto.js query, and it's this link I need calling back to the embedded "menubtns.swf" (nested in "AS3Menu_javascript.swf") to play 5 frames of this movieclip, via a JS function. Embedded .swf code, using swfobject.js with allowScriptAccess=always <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" name="menu"<br/> width="251" height="251" id="menu"> <param name="movie" value="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="ExternalInterfaceScript.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" width="250" height="250"> <p>Alternative content</p> </object> </object> AS3 / Flash import flash.external.ExternalInterface;flash.system.Security.allowDomain(/sourceDomain/); ExternalInterface.addCallBack("menu_up", this, resetmenu); function resetmenu(){ gotoAndPlay:("frame label" / "number") }

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  • Why does Java's invokevirtual need to resolve the called method's compile-time class?

    - by Chris
    Consider this simple Java class: class MyClass { public void bar(MyClass c) { c.foo(); } } I want to discuss what happens on the line c.foo(). At the bytecode level, the meat of c.foo() will be the invokevirtual opcode, and, according to the documentation for invokevirtual, more or less the following will happen: Look up the foo method defined in compile-time class MyClass. (This involves first resolving MyClass.) Do some checks, including: Verify that c is not an initialization method, and verify that calling MyClass.foo wouldn't violate any protected modifiers. Figure out which method to actually call. In particular, look up c's runtime type. If that type has foo(), call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. Etc.. If no suitable method can be found, then error. Step #3 alone seems adequate for figuring out which method to call and verifying that said method has the correct argument/return types. So my question is why step #1 gets performed in the first place. Possible answers seem to be: You don't have enough information to perform step #3 until step #1 is complete. (This seems implausible at first glance, so please explain.) The linking or access modifier checks done in #1 and #2 are essential to prevent certain bad things from happening, and those checks must be performed based on the compile-time type, rather than the run-time type hierarchy. (Please explain.)

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  • Android: How to get a custom view to redraw partially?

    - by Peterdk
    I have a custom view that fills my entire screen. (A piano keyboard) When a user touches the key, it would cause a invalidate() to be called and the whole keyboard gets redrawn to show the new state with a touched key. Currently the view is very simple, but I plan to add a bit more nice graphics. Since the whole keyboard is dynamically rendered this would make redrawing the entire keyboard more expensive. So I thought, let's look into partial redrawing. Now I call invalidate(Rect dirty) with the correct dirty region. I set my onDraw(Canvas canvas) method to only draw the keys in the dirty region if I do indeed want a partial redraw. This results in those keys being drawn, but the rest of the keyboard is totally black/not drawn at all. Am I wrong in expecting that calling invalidate(Rect dirty) would "cache" the current canvas, and only "allows" drawing in the dirty region? Is there any way I can achieve what I want? (A way to "cache" the canvas and only redraw the dirty area?"

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  • Vlad the deployer on Dreamhost - initial script

    - by xmariachi
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy an app with SVN and Vlad the deployer. Vlad and its dependencies are installed and seem OK. I'm trying the following: rake prod vlad:update Being my config/deploy.rb file: task :prod do set :application, "xxx" set :deploy_timestamped, "false" set :user, "username" set :scm_user, "scmusername" set :repository, "http://domain.com/svn/app" set :domain, "domain.com" set :deploy_to, "/home/username/deployments/app" puts "Production deployment to #{deploy_to}" end I have done "rake prod vlad:setup" already, that's fine. But when calling "rake prod vlad:update", I get the following A ...file Exported revision 14. ln: creating symbolic link `/home/username/deployments/drupalgestalt/releases/20100503164225/public/system' to `/home/username/deployments/drupalgestalt/shared/system': No such file or directory rake aborted! execution failed with status 1: ssh domain.com ln -s /home/username/deployments/app/shared/log /home/username/deployments/app/releases/20100503164225/log && ln -s /home/username/deployments/app/shared/system /home/username/deployments/app/releases/20100503164225/public/system && ln -s /home/username/deployments/app/shared/pids /home/username/deployments/app/releases/20100503164225/tmp/pids Apparently it complains when creating the ln, but permissions are all set up fine. Am I doing anything wrong? I'm just starting with Vlad on the assumption it was super-easy to set up. Had played a bit with cap in the past, and I do like Vlad idea.

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  • How to display a subview loaded from a separate NIB file

    - by Marcus Netter
    I'm developing a Cocoa desktop application that uses a source list in the style of iTunes: different elements in the source list cause the main content area to display different views. The content area is entirely filled with a (vertical) NSSplitView; on the left is an NSOutlineView source list. When the user selects an item on the left, the relevant view appears on the right side of the splitter. I can make it work well enough by putting everything in one NIB file and putting a borderless NSTabView to the right of the splitter; to switch views, I just have to change the selected tab. But putting all the views in one NIB is bad practice, so I'm trying to move each of the subviews into their own NIB files. I have a pretty good idea of most of this process — I've created an NSViewController subclass for each of these views (EntityDetailViewController, GroupDetailViewController, and so on), set the File's Owner of each new NIB to the relevant controller class, set the view connection in each NIB, and reworked the bindings. What I don't know is how to actually change which subview is being shown on screen. I've tried using the default generic NSView on the right side and sending it addSubview: messages; I've tried connecting to it as the first subview and calling NSView *newSubview = /* get subview from the new subview controller */ [[subview superview] replaceSubview:subview with:newSubview]; [self setSubview:newSubview]; But everything just leaves the space blank. How do I display a subview loaded from a separate NIB?

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  • Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

    - by zengr
    I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

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  • Custom view in iPhone SDK gets placed incorrectly in realation to statusbar

    - by markqvist
    (ragh, i'm apparently not allowed to post images, so i have included links to the images in this post instead of embedding them) Im writing an iPhone application based on the navigation controller template, but I am not loading the actual navigation controller as the first view in the window. I create a new view controller from a xib, and then add that as a subview, and then only push the navigation view as a modal when i need it. Here's my application: didFinishLaunching ... method in the application deleate RootViewController *rootViewController = (RootViewController *)[navigationController topViewController]; rootViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; mainViewController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; mainViewController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [window addSubview:[mainViewController view]]; [[mainViewController view] setNeedsLayout]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; It works but the view is not properly aligned with the statusbar: http://img.exdev.dk/1.png When i click "my ambiances" and push the navigation controller view, and then dismiss it again, the layout is fine: same link as above, just replace the 1 with a 2. Sorry for the hassle, apparently I can also only post one link.... Here's the code I use for presenting/dismissing the navigationcontroller: -(void)pushMyAmbiences { [mainViewController presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:TRUE]; } -(void)returnToMainView { [mainViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:TRUE]; } Is there anything I'm missing here? Layout-wise? Something that needs to be set in the xib? In a vain attempt I tried calling setNeedsLayout on the view, no luck. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

    - by markerikson
    I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

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  • WordPress Conditional: Only show if current page title is equal to post meta

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hey, I am calling a bunch of posts under a certain post type in WordPress which works but I am trying to add a conditional that will check first if those post's custom meta field (labeled "disc") is equal to the current post's title. Here is what I have but this conditional does not seem to work: <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=9999&post_type=song&post_status=publish&order=ASC&orderby=date'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> <?php if(get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-disc", true)=="the_title()") { ?> <tbody class="vevent"> <?php if ($i%2===0) { ?><tr class="gigpress-row gigpress-alt"> <?php } else { ?><tr class="gigpress-row"><?php } ?> <td><?php echo $page->post_title ?></td> <td><?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-length", true); ?></td> <td><a href="http://itunes.com/<?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-itunes-song", true); ?>">BUY</a></td> </tr> <tr class="gigpress-info"> <td colspan="3"><?php echo $page->post_content ?></td> </tr> </tbody> <?php $i++; } } ?> When I simply echo "get_post_meta($page-ID, "p30-disc", true)" or "the_title()" it spits out their proper values, which are equal, so obviously something is just wrong with that conditional. Thanks, Wade

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  • How Do I make a simple .htaccess internal redirect Catch All script while forwarding POST data?

    - by RB
    I just want to catch all requests and forward them internally to my catchall page with all POST data intact Catch all page: http://www.mydomain.com/addons/redirect/catch-all.php I've tried so many combinations, but my server doesn't want to redirect internally if I specify more than catch-all.php # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule (.*) /addons/redirect/catch-all.php [L] Also, do I need [L] or is it useless for internal redirects? Then, what php code would I use to grab the POST data, use it, and finally PHP redirect the page to the originally requested page Would it be done just as normal by using $_POST['variable_name']; or something different? Then, how would I go about calling the originally requested page, so I can tell PHP to header location direct them to that page? Thanks! UPDATE: Ha sick, nevermind. The condition DOES work. Here's my code: # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/robots.txt$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(gif¦jpe?g¦png¦css¦js¦pdf¦doc¦xml)$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/addons/redirect/catch-all\.php$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /addons/redirect/catch-all.php?q=$1 [L] Thanks guys for the inspiration! Now time to get that PHP to work...

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  • HttpHandler and XML files

    - by Frank
    Hello, I would like to intercept any request made to the server for XML files. I thought that it might be possible with an HttpHandler. It's coded and it works... on localhost only (?!?!). So, why is it working on localhost only? Here is my web.config <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.xml" type="FooBar.XmlHandler, FooBar" /> </httpHandlers> </system.web> </configuration> Here is my C# : namespace FooBar { public class XmlHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { HttpResponse Response = context.Response; Response.Write(xmlString); } } } As you might have seen, I'm writing the xmlString directly in the response, it's only temporary because I'm still wondering how I could give the filename instead (that's the second question ;) ) What is supposed to be written in the response is only the xml filename that will be retrieved by a flash app. Thanks Edit : When calling the page from another computer it looks like it's not getting to the HttpHandler. However, the mapping for IIS have been done correctly.

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  • Can NSCollectionView autoresize the width of its subviews to display one column

    - by littlecharva
    Hi, I have an NSCollectionView that contains a collection of CustomViews. Initially it tiled the subviews into columns and rows like a grid. I then set the Columns property in IB to 1, so now it just displays them one after another in rows. However, even though my CustomView is 400px wide, it's set to autoresize, the NSCollectionView is 400px wide, and it's set to 1 column, the subviews are drawn about 80px wide. I know I can get around this by calling: CGFloat width = [collectionView bounds].size.width; NSSize size = NSMakeSize(width, 85); [collectionView setMinItemSize:size]; [collectionView setMaxItemSize:size]; But putting this code in the awakeFromNib method of my WindowController only sets the correct width when the program launches. When I resize the window (and the NSCollectionView autoresizes as I've specified), the CustomViews stay at their initially set width. I'm happy to take care of resizing the subviews myself if need be, but I'm quite new to Cocoa and can't seem to find any articles explaining how to do such a thing. Can someone point me in the right direction? Anthony

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