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  • Can FluentNHibernate be used with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • .NET - A way to add my own clipboard format to existing formats

    - by A9S6
    I have a Excel addin that displays some structures on the worksheet. Users can copy the structures and paste them in another worksheet or another application which is handled by the Clipboard formats. When a user copies the structure, I convert the structure into a specific format and put it on the clipboard using the DataObject::SetData(). Please note that when a copy is initiated in Excel, it puts a number of formats on the clipboard (see image). The problem is that there is a third party application that depends on the data on the clipboard(Copy from Excel and paste into this 3rd party app) but the funny thing is that I am not sure which format it depends on. I need to preserve the existing formats that Excel has put up there and also add my own format to it. Currently when I use the Clipboard class in .NET (taking the DataObject and calling SetData inside it), all the other formats are replaced by new ones. I then tried to create a new DataObject, copy the existing format data to this data object and then set this data object in the Clipboard. This works fine but it takes time to copy the data. // Copying existing data in clipboard to our new DataObject IDataObject existingDataObject = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); DataObject dataObject = new DataObject(); string[] existingFormats = existingDataObject.GetFormats(); foreach (string existingFormat in existingFormats) dataObject.SetData(existingFormat, existingDataObject.GetData(existingFormat)); I am looking for a solution to just access the existing DataObject and quietly add my own data to it without affecting other formats. Excel Clipboard Formats - (Ignore the Native Format)

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  • JavaScript keeps returning ambigious error

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    this is my function (with other lines ive tried/abandoned)... function DoClicked(eNumber) { //obj.style = 'bgcolor: maroon'; var eid = 'cat' + eNumber; //$get(obj).style.backgroundColor = 'maroon'; //var nObj = $get(obj); var nObj = document.getElementById(eid) //alert(nObj.getAttribute("style")); nObj.style.backgroundColor = 'Maroon'; alert(nObj.style.backgroundColor); //nObj.setAttribute("style", "backgroundcolor: Maroon"); }; This error keeps getting returned even after the last line in the function runs: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.ArgumentUndefinedException: Value cannot be undefined. Parameter name: method this function is called with an "OnSuccess" set in my Ajax.ActionLink call (ASP.NET MVC)... anyone any ideas on this? i have these referenced... even when i remove the 'debug' versions for normal versions, i still get an error but the error just has much less information and says 'b' is undefined (probably a ms js library internal variable)... <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> also, this is how i am calling the actionlink method: Ajax.ActionLink(item.CategoryName, "SubCategoryList", "Home", New With {.CategoryID = item.CategoryID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "SubCat", .HttpMethod = "Post", .OnSuccess = "DoClicked(" & item.CategoryID.ToString & ")"}, New With {.id = "cat" & item.CategoryID.ToString})

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  • setcontext and makecontext to call a generic function pointer

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    In another question i had the problem to port the code unsigned long stack[] = { 1, 23, 33, 43 }; /* save all the registers and the stack pointer */ unsigned long esp; asm __volatile__ ( "pusha" ); asm __volatile__ ( "mov %%esp, %0" :"=m" (esp)); for( i = 0; i < sizeof(stack); i++ ){ unsigned long val = stack[i]; asm __volatile__ ( "push %0" :: "m"(val) ); } unsigned long ret = function_pointer(); /* restore registers and stack pointer */ asm __volatile__ ( "mov %0, %%esp" :: "m" (esp) ); asm __volatile__ ( "popa" ); To a 64bit platform and many guys told me i should use the setcontext and makecontext functions set instead due to the calling conversion differences between 32 and 64 bits and portability issues. Well, i really can't find any useful documentation online, or at least not the kind i need to implement this, so, how can i use those functions to push arguments onto the stack, call a generic function pointer, obtain the return value and then restore the registers?

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  • Flex - Increase timeout on a PHP service function call

    - by Travesty3
    I'm using Flash Builder 4 Beta 2. I have it connecting to a PHP service. The way I set this up was using the wizard, so I didn't actually write the code to connect to it. The service looks like this: package services.flash { import mx.rpc.AsyncToken; import com.adobe.fiber.core.model_internal; import mx.rpc.AbstractOperation; import valueObjects.CustomDatatype8; import valueObjects.NewUsageData; import mx.collections.ItemResponder; import mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject; import mx.rpc.remoting.Operation; import com.adobe.fiber.services.wrapper.RemoteObjectServiceWrapper; import com.adobe.fiber.valueobjects.AvailablePropertyIterator; import com.adobe.serializers.utility.TypeUtility; [ExcludeClass] internal class _Super_FLASH extends RemoteObjectServiceWrapper { // Constructor public function _Super_FLASH() { // initialize service control _serviceControl = new RemoteObject(); var operations:Object = new Object(); var operation:Operation; operation = new Operation(null, "sendCommand"); operation.resultType = Object; operations["sendCommand"] = operation; ... } } One of the functions that I'm calling fetches users from a MySQL database. There are about 30,000 users right now. The service seems to timeout when fetching more than around 22,000 rows, I get the "Channel Disconnected before an acknowledgement was received" error. If I call the PHP script from a browser, it fetches them all with no problems at all, however. I have tried increasing the timeout in the PHP script (which didn't work), but obviously this isn't the problem since the browser is able to pull them up with no problems. Is there a way to increase the timeout of the PHP service in Flash Builder? I'm a bit of a noob when it comes to Flash, so please be descriptive. Thanks in advance!

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  • Unexpected Event Behavior When Using VB6 with COM Interop (C#)

    - by Randal
    We are using a COM Interop (C#) to allow for a VB6 application to send data to a server. Once the server receives the data, the managed code will raise a DataSent event. This event is only fired after a correlation ID is returned to the original caller. About 1% of the time, we've encountered VB6 executing the raised event before finishing the function that originally sent the data. Using the following code: ' InteropTester.COMEvents is the C# object ' Dim WithEvents m_ManagedData as InteropTester.COMEvents Private Sub send_data() Set m_ManagedData = new COMEvents Dim id as Integer ' send 5 to using the managed interop object ' id = m_ManagedData.SendData(5) LogData "ID " & id & " was returned" m_correlationIds.Add id End Sub Private Sub m_ManagedData_DataSent(ByVal sender as Variant, ByVal id as Integer) LogData "Data was successfully sent to C#" ' check if the returned ID is in the m_correlationIds collection goes here' End Sub We can verify that the id is returned with a value when we call m_ManagedData.SendData(5), but the logs then show that the m_ManagedData_DataSent is occasionally called before send_data ends. How is possible for VB6 to access the Message Loop to know that the DataSent event was raised before exiting send_data()? We are not calling DoEvents and everything within VB6 is synchronous. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Sql Server Maintenance Plan Tasks & Completion

    - by Ben
    Hi All, I have a maintenance plan that looks like this... Client 1 Import Data (Success) -> Process Data (Success) -> Post Process (Completion) -> Next Client Client 2 Import Data (Success) -> Process Data (Success) -> Post Process (Completion) -> Next Client Client N ... Import Data and Process Data are calling jobs and Post Process is an Execute Sql task. If Import Data or Process Data Fail, it goes to the next client Import Data... Both Import Data and Process Data are jobs that contain SSIS packages that are using the built-in SQL logging provider. My expectation with the configuration as it stands is: Client 1 Import Data Runs: Failure - Client 2 Import Data | Success Process Data Process Data Runs: Failure - Client 2 Import Data | Success Post Process Post Process Runs: Completion - Success or Failure - Next Client Import Data This isn't what I'm seeing in my logs though... I see several Client Import Data SSIS log entries, then several Post Process log entries, then back to Client Import Data! Arg!! What am I doing wrong? I didn't think the "success" piece of Client 1 Import Data would kick off until it... well... succeeded aka finished! The logs seem to indicate otherwise though... I really need these tasks to be consecutive not concurrent. Is this possible? Thanks!

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  • Issue using GAE appcfg.py

    - by JustSmith
    I get nothing out of appcfg.py besides the default output. I'm trying to upload some data to my development project with no luck at at all. From the instructions on the Google App Engine page the steps are as follows: Edit app.yaml update with appcfg.py make upload script upload with appcfg.py After step one I try to run the update and it never shows any success. The following commands product the same output: appcfg.py appcfg.py update appDir appcfg.py update appDir/ appcfg.py update /appDir If i try to follow the instructions from the appcfg.py output and type help upload and get: "help <action>" I get a response from the system, This command is not supported by the help utility. Try "update /?". cause I'm calling the system help command. If I use the command appcfg.py help upload I get the same result as just typing appcfg.py Can someone show me examples of the syntax to update the dev site, upload data to it and get appcfg.py to actually give help on its commands? Also I'm just assuming that the upload script and the .csv file that are being uploaded are in they myApp directory. Appreciate any help,

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  • Json HTTP Module stream issue

    - by Justin
    Hey, I have an HTTP Module that I use to clean up the JSON returned by my web service (see http://www.codeproject.com/KB/webservices/ASPNET_JSONP.aspx?msg=3400287#xx3400287xx for an example of this.) Basically it relates to calling cross-domain JSON web services from javascript. There is this JsonHttpModule which uses a JsonResponseFilter Stream class to write out the JSON and the overloaded Write method is supposed to wrap the name of the callback function around the JSON, otherwise the JSON errors out as needing a label. However, if the JSON is really long, the Write method in the Stream class is called multiple times, causing the callback function to incorrectly get inserted midway through the JSON. Is there a way in the Stream class to wrap the callback function around the stream at the end or to specify that it write all of the JSON in 1 Write method instead of in chunks?? Here's where it calls the JsonResponseFilter in the JsonHttpModule: public void OnReleaseRequestState(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = (HttpApplication)sender; if (!_Apply(app.Context.Request)) return; // apply response filter to conform to JSONP app.Context.Response.Filter = new JsonResponseFilter(app.Context.Response.Filter, app.Context); } Here's the Write method in the JsonResponseFilter Stream class that gets called multiple times: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { var b1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(_context.Request.Params["callback"] + "("); _responseStream.Write(b1, 0, b1.Length); _responseStream.Write(buffer, offset, count); var b2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(");"); _responseStream.Write(b2, 0, b2.Length); } Thanks for any help! Justin

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  • Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

    - by Visage
    So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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  • Using FluentNHibernate with .Net4

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

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  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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  • Rijndael managed: plaintext length detction

    - by sheepsimulator
    I am spending some time learning how to use the RijndaelManaged library in .NET, and developed the following function to test encrypting text with slight modifications from the MSDN library: Function encryptBytesToBytes_AES(ByVal plainText As Byte(), ByVal Key() As Byte, ByVal IV() As Byte) As Byte() ' Check arguments. If plainText Is Nothing OrElse plainText.Length <= 0 Then Throw New ArgumentNullException("plainText") End If If Key Is Nothing OrElse Key.Length <= 0 Then Throw New ArgumentNullException("Key") End If If IV Is Nothing OrElse IV.Length <= 0 Then Throw New ArgumentNullException("IV") End If ' Declare the RijndaelManaged object ' used to encrypt the data. Dim aesAlg As RijndaelManaged = Nothing ' Declare the stream used to encrypt to an in memory ' array of bytes. Dim msEncrypt As MemoryStream = Nothing Try ' Create a RijndaelManaged object ' with the specified key and IV. aesAlg = New RijndaelManaged() aesAlg.BlockSize = 128 aesAlg.KeySize = 128 aesAlg.Mode = CipherMode.ECB aesAlg.Padding = PaddingMode.None aesAlg.Key = Key aesAlg.IV = IV ' Create a decrytor to perform the stream transform. Dim encryptor As ICryptoTransform = aesAlg.CreateEncryptor(aesAlg.Key, aesAlg.IV) ' Create the streams used for encryption. msEncrypt = New MemoryStream() Using csEncrypt As New CryptoStream(msEncrypt, encryptor, CryptoStreamMode.Write) Using swEncrypt As New StreamWriter(csEncrypt) 'Write all data to the stream. swEncrypt.Write(plainText) End Using End Using Finally ' Clear the RijndaelManaged object. If Not (aesAlg Is Nothing) Then aesAlg.Clear() End If End Try ' Return the encrypted bytes from the memory stream. Return msEncrypt.ToArray() End Function Here's the actual code I am calling encryptBytesToBytes_AES() with: Private Sub btnEncrypt_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEncrypt.Click Dim bZeroKey As Byte() = {&H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0, &H0} PrintBytesToRTF(encryptBytesToBytes_AES(bZeroKey, bZeroKey, bZeroKey)) End Sub However, I get an exception thrown on swEncrypt.Write(plainText) stating that the 'Length of the data to encrypt is invalid.' However, I know that the size of my key, iv, and plaintext are 16 bytes == 128 bits == aesAlg.BlockSize. Why is it throwing this exception? Is it because the StreamWriter is trying to make a String (ostensibly with some encoding) and it doesn't like &H0 as a value?

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  • Multiple forms on a single page

    - by normalocity
    I've got an app that's in invite-only beta right now. Problem is, I can't get the invite system to work. :( On my root page there's a login form (which works just fine), and I'm trying to add a "request invite" form on the same page. I started doing it by putting the form for InviteRequest (ActiveRecord) inside a partial, in the "views" folder for "InviteRequest". The app is definitely calling this partial, but I'm getting the following error: NoMethodError in User_sessions#new Showing app/views/invite_request/_new.html.erb where line #2 raised: undefined method `invite_requests_path' for #<ActionView::Base:0x25b3248> Extracted source (around line #2): 1: <% @invite_request = InviteRequest.new() %> 2: <% form_for @invite_request do |ir| %> 3: <%= ir.label :email %> 4: <%= ir.text_field :email %> 5: <% end %> I also read through the "Multiple Models in a Form" section of my trusty copy of "Agile Web Development with Rails", about maybe doing this with a "fieldset" tag, but not sure if this is the right approach. Thx.

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  • Using PHP SoapClient with Java JAX-WS RI (Webservice)

    - by Kau-Boy
    For a new project, we want to build a web service in JAVA using JAX-WS RI and for the web service client, we want to use PHP. In a small tutorial about JAX-WS RI I found this example web service: package webservice; import javax.jws.WebService; import javax.jws.soap.SOAPBinding; import javax.jws.soap.SOAPBinding.Style; @WebService @SOAPBinding(style = Style.RPC) public class Calculator { public long addValues(int val1, int val2) { return val1 + val2; } } and for the web server: package webservice; import javax.xml.ws.Endpoint; import webservice.Calculator; public class CalculatorServer { public static void main(String args[]) { Calculator server = new Calculator(); Endpoint endpoint = Endpoint.publish("http://localhost:8080/calculator", server); } } Starting the Server and browsing the WDSL with the URL "http://localhost:8080/calculator?wsdl" works perfectly. But calling the web service from PHP fails My very simple PHP call looks like this: $client = new SoapClient('http://localhost:8080/calculator?wsdl', array('trace' => 1)); echo 'Sum: '.$client->addValues(4, 5); But than I either get a "Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded..." or a "Uncaught SoapFault exception: [WSDL] SOAP-ERROR: Parsing WSDL: Couldn't load from 'http://localhost:8080/calculator?wsdl' ..." exception. I have tested the PHP SoapClient() with other web services and they work without any issues. Is there a known issue with JAX-WS RI in comibation with PHP, or is there an error in my web service I didn't see? I have found this bug report, but even updating to PHP 5.3.2 doesn't solved the problem. Can anyone tell me what to do? And by the way, my java version running on Windows 7 x64 is the following: java version "1.6.0_17" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01, mixed mode)

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  • Dependency injection with web services?

    - by John K.
    I've recently discovered a possible candidate for dependency injection in a .Net application I've designed. Due to a recent organizational policy, it is no longer possible to call smtp mail services from client machines on our network. So I'm going to have to refactor all the code in my application where it was previously calling the smtp object to send out mail. I created a new WCF web service on an authorized web server that does allow for smtp mail messaging. This seems to be a great candidate for dependency injection. I will create a new INotification interface that will have a method like 'void SendNotification(MailMessage msg)' and create a new property in my application where you can set this property to any class that implements this interface. My question tho, is whether it's possible, through dependency injection, to encapsulate the instantiation of a .NET WCF web service? I am fairly new at IoC and Dependency injection frameworks, so I am not quite sure if it can handle web service dependencies? I'm hoping someone else out there has come across this situation or has knowledge regarding this subject? cheers, John

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  • Apache multiple URL to one domain redirect

    - by Christian Moser
    For the last two day, I've been spending a lot of time to solve my problem, maybe someone can help me. Problem: I need to redirect different url's to one tomcat webbase-dir used for artifactory. following urls should point to the tomcat/artifactory webapp: maven-repo.example.local ; maven-repo.example.local/artifactory ; srv-example/artifactory Where maven-repo.example.local is the dns for the server-hostname: "srv-example" I'm accessing the tomcat app through the JK_mod module. The webapp is in the ROOT directory This is what I've got so far: <VirtualHost *:80> #If URL contains "artifactory" strip down and redirect RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^\artifactory\$ [NC] # (how can I remove 'artifactory' from the redirected parameters? ) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://maven-repo.example.local/$1 [R=301,L] ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/redirect-error_log" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven-repo.example.local ErrorLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-error.log" CustomLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-access.log" common #calling tomcat webapp in ROOT JkMount /* ajp13w </VirtualHost> The webapp is working with "maven-repo.example.local", but with "maven-repo.example.local/artifactory" tomcat gives a 404 - "The requested resource () is not available." It seems that the mod_rewrite doesn't have taken any effect, even if I redirect to another page, e.g google.com I'm testing on windows 7 with maven-repo.example.local added in the "system32/drivers/hosts" file Thanks in advance!

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  • How to implement "business rules" in Rails?

    - by Zabba
    What is the way to implement "business rules" in Rails? Let us say I have a car and want to sell it: car = Cars.find(24) car.sell car.sell method will check a few things: does current_user own the car? check: car.user_id == current_user.id is the car listed for sale in the sales catalog? check: car.catalogs.ids.include? car.id if all o.k. then car is marked as sold. I was thinking of creating a class called Rules: class Rules def initialize(user,car) @user = user @car = car end def can_sell_car? @car.user_id == @user.id && @car.catalogs.ids.include? @car.id end end And using it like this: def Car def sell if Rules.new(current_user,self).can_sell_car ..sell the car... else @error_message = "Cannot sell this car" nil end end end As for getting the current_user, I was thinking of storing it in a global variable? I think that whenever a controller action is called, it's always a "fresh" call right? If so then storing the current user as a global variable should not introduce any risks..(like some other user being able to access another user's details) Any insights are appreciated! UPDATE So, the global variable route is out! Thanks to PeterWong for pointing out that global variables persist! I've now thinking of using this way: class Rules def self.can_sell_car?(current_user, car) ......checks.... end end And then calling Rules.can_sell_car?(current_user,@car) from the controller action. Any thoughts on this new way?

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  • NSOutlineView/NSTreeController - calculate sum of column

    - by matei
    I have a NSOutlineView bound to a NSTreeController. My data items are a custom class , let's call them "Row", and suppose a Row contains a "name" and a numeric field called "number" . All these "Rows" are found in let's say a "RowContainer" which has a "rows" mutable array holding the parent (level 0) rows. Each row also has a "children" NSMutableArray member which holds it's children. I have this working, and I want to display under the outlineview a textfield with the sum of all the "number" values of the rows. I bound this textfield to a "total" property of the "RowContainer". Now the problem is how or from where to trigger the recalculation of the "total" property, since this involves a recursive walk on the tree of rows, and I always get a "Collection was mutated while being enumerated" error. I've tried making a method "recalculateTotal", and calling it from the "setNumber" method of the "Row" class , but same error occurs. If I put the recalculation logic in the "total" getter, I can't trigger it to do the math. I'm sure the solution is simple but I can't see it

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  • FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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  • Accessing items separated by -componentsSeparatedByString

    - by Graeme
    Hi, I have an array gathered by componentsSeparatedByString: that looks like the following when I use po in the GDB after the array has gone through componentsSeparatedByString: "\n\t\t <b>Suburb, </b> BAIRNSDALE", "\n\t\t <b>Address, </b> 15K NW BAIRNSDALE", "\n\t\t <b>Reference, </b> MELWOOD/SCHOOL ROAD", "\n\t\t <b>Last Changed, </b> 09/04/10 05, 29, 00 PM", "\n\t\t <b>Type, </b> HOME", "\n\t\t <b>Status, </b> BUILT", "\n\t\t <b>Property Size, </b> 2.00 HA.", "\n\t\t <b>Residents, </b> 2", "\n\t\t <b>First Added Date/Time, </b> 09/04/10 03, 15, 00 PM", "\n\t\t\t" Only problem is, I now can't figure out where to go from here. I need to be able to access each of these items (i.e. type, status, property size) separately rather than just calling the entire array (i.e. currentProperty.status). How do I do this? Also what's with all the n\t\t\t things - how do I get rid of them? Thanks.

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • How do I import and call unmanaged C dll with ansi string "char *" pointer string from VB.net?

    - by Warren P
    I have written my own function, which in C would be declared like this, using standard Win32 calling conventions: int Thing( char * command, char * buffer, int * BufSize); I have the following amount of VB figured out, which should import the dll and call this function, wrapping it up to make it easy to call Thing("CommandHere",GetDataBackHere): Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic Imports System.Runtime.InteropServices Imports System Imports System.Text Namespace dllInvocationSpace Public Class dllInvoker ' tried attributes but could not make it build: ' <DllImport("Thing1.dll", False, CallingConvention.Cdecl, CharSet.Ansi, "Baton", True, True, False, True)> Declare Ansi Function Thing Lib "Thing1.dll" (ByVal Command As String, ByRef Buffer As String, ByRef BufferLength As Integer) Shared Function dllCall(ByVal Command As String, ByRef Results As String) As Integer Dim Buffer As StringBuilder = New StringBuilder(65536) Dim retCode As Integer Dim bufsz As Integer bufsz = 65536 retCode = Thing(Command, Buffer, bufsz) Results = Buffer Return retCode End Function End Class End Namespace The current code doesn't build, because although I think I should be able to create a "buffer" that the C Dll can write data back into using a string builder, I haven't got it quite right. (Value of type System.Text.STringBuilder cannot be converted to 'String'). I have looked all over the newsgroups and forums and can not find an example where the C dll needs to pass between 1 and 64kbytes of data back (char *buffer, int bufferlen) to visual basic.net.

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  • Converting an int64 value to a Number object in JavaScript

    - by Matt
    I have a COM object which has a method that returns an unsigned int64 (VT_UI8) value. We have an HTML page which contains some JavaScript which can load the COM object and make the call to that method, to retrieve the value as such: var foo = MyCOMObject.GetInt64Value(); This value can easily be displayed to the user in a message dialog using: alert(foo); or displayed on the page by: document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML = foo; However, we cannot use this value as a Number (e.g. if we try to multiply it by 2) without the page throwing "Number expected" errors. If we check "typeof(foo)" it returns "unknown". I've found a workaround for this by doing the following: document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML = foo; var bar = parseInt(document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML); alert(bar*2); What I need to know is how to make that process more efficient. Specifically, is there a way to cast foo to a String explicitly, rather than having to set some document element's innerHTML to foo and then retrieve it from that. I wouldn't mind calling something like: alert(parseInt((string)foo) * 2); Even better would be if there is a way to directly convert the int64 to a Number, without going through the String conversion, but I hold out less hope for that.

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