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  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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  • How to display a subview loaded from a separate NIB file

    - by Marcus Netter
    I'm developing a Cocoa desktop application that uses a source list in the style of iTunes: different elements in the source list cause the main content area to display different views. The content area is entirely filled with a (vertical) NSSplitView; on the left is an NSOutlineView source list. When the user selects an item on the left, the relevant view appears on the right side of the splitter. I can make it work well enough by putting everything in one NIB file and putting a borderless NSTabView to the right of the splitter; to switch views, I just have to change the selected tab. But putting all the views in one NIB is bad practice, so I'm trying to move each of the subviews into their own NIB files. I have a pretty good idea of most of this process — I've created an NSViewController subclass for each of these views (EntityDetailViewController, GroupDetailViewController, and so on), set the File's Owner of each new NIB to the relevant controller class, set the view connection in each NIB, and reworked the bindings. What I don't know is how to actually change which subview is being shown on screen. I've tried using the default generic NSView on the right side and sending it addSubview: messages; I've tried connecting to it as the first subview and calling NSView *newSubview = /* get subview from the new subview controller */ [[subview superview] replaceSubview:subview with:newSubview]; [self setSubview:newSubview]; But everything just leaves the space blank. How do I display a subview loaded from a separate NIB?

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  • Taking the data mapper approach in Zend Framework

    - by Seeker
    Let's assume the following tables setup for a Zend Framework app. user (id) groups (id) groups_users (id, user_id, group_id, join_date) I took the Data Mapper approach to models which basically gives me: Model_User, Model_UsersMapper, Model_DbTable_Users Model_Group, Model_GroupsMapper, Model_DbTable_Groups Model_GroupUser, Model_GroupsUsersMapper, Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers (for holding the relationships which can be seen as aentities; notice the "join_date" property) I'm defining the _referenceMap in Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers: protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'User' => array ( 'columns' => array('user_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Users', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), 'App' => array ( 'columns' => array('group_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'refColumns' => array('id') ) ); I'm having these design problems in mind: 1) The Model_Group only mirrors the fields in the groups table. How can I return a collection of groups a user is a member of and also the date the user joined that group for every group? If I just added the property to the domain object, then I'd have to let the group mapper know about it, wouldn't I? 2) Let's say I need to fetch the groups a user belongs to. Where should I put this logic? Model_UsersMapper or Model_GroupsUsersMapper? I also want to make use of the referencing map (dependent tables) mechanism and probably use findManyToManyRowset or findDependentRowset, something like: $result = $this->getDbTable()->find($userId); $row = $result->current(); $groups = $row->findManyToManyRowset( 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers' ); This would produce two queries when I could have just written it in a single query. I will place this in the Model_GroupsUsersMapper class. An enhancement would be to add a getGroups method to the Model_User domain object which lazily loads the groups when needed by calling the appropriate method in the data mapper, which begs for the second question. Should I allow the domain object know about the data mapper?

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  • How Random is System.Guid.NewGuid()? (Take two)

    - by Vilx-
    Before you start marking this as a duplicate, read me out. The other question has a (most likely) incorrect accepted answer. I do not know how .NET generates its GUIDs, probably only Microsoft does, but there's a high chance it simply calls CoCreateGuid(). That function however is documented to be calling UuidCreate(). And the algorithms for creating an UUID are pretty well documented. Long story short, be as it may, it seems that System.Guid.NewGuid() indeed uses version 4 UUID generation algorithm, because all the GUIDs it generates matches the criteria (see for yourself, I tried a couple million GUIDs, they all matched). In other words, these GUIDs are almost random, except for a few known bits. This then again raises the question - how random IS this random? As every good little programmer knows, a pseudo-random number algorithm is only as random as its seed (aka entropy). So what is the seed for UuidCreate()? How ofter is the PRNG re-seeded? Is it cryptographically strong, or can I expect the same GUIDs to start pouring out if two computers accidentally call System.Guid.NewGuid() at the same time? And can the state of the PRNG be guessed if sufficiently many sequentially generated GUIDs are gathered?

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  • How can I terminate a system command with alarm in Perl?

    - by rockyurock
    I am running the below code snippet on Windows. The server starts listening continuously after reading from client. I want to terminate this command after a time period. If I use alarm() function call within main.pl, then it terminates the whole Perl program (here main.pl), so I called this system command by placing it in a separate Perl file and calling this Perl file (alarm.pl) in the original Perl File using the system command. But in this way I was unable to take the output of this system() call neither in the original Perl File nor in called one Perl File. Could anybody please let me know the way to terminate a system() call or take the output in that way I used above? main.pl my @output = system("alarm.pl"); print"one iperf completed\n"; open FILE, ">display.txt" or die $!; print FILE @output_1; close FILE; alarm.pl alarm 30; my @output_1 = readpipe("adb shell cd /data/app; ./iperf -u -s -p 5001"); open FILE, ">display.txt" or die $!; print FILE @output_1; close FILE; In both ways display.txt is always empty.

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  • Forking in PHP on Windows

    - by Doug Kavendek
    We are running PHP on a Windows server (a source of many problems indeed, but migrating is not an option currently). There are a few points where a user-initiated action will need to kick off a few things that take a while and about which the user doesn't need to know if they succeed or fail, such as sending off an email or making sure some third-party accounts are updated. If I could just fork with pcntl_fork(), this would be very simple, but the PCNTL functions are not available in Windows. It seems the closest I can get is to do something of this nature: exec( 'php-cgi.exe somescript.php' ); However, this would be far more complicated. The actions I need to kick off rely on a lot of context that already will exist in the running process; to use the above example, I'd need to figure out the essential data and supply it to the new script in some way. If I could fork, it'd just be a matter of letting the parent process return early, leaving the child to work on a few more things. I've found a few people talking about their own work in getting various PCNTL functions compiled on Windows, but none seemed to have anything available (broken links, etc). Despite this question having practically the same name as mine, it seems the problem was more execution timeout than needing to fork. So, is my best option to just refactor a bit to deal with calling php-cgi, or are there other options? Edit: It seems exec() won't work for this, at least not without me figuring some other aspect of it, as it waits until the call returns. I figured I could use START, sort of like exec( 'start php-cgi.exe somescript.php' );, but it still waits until the other script finishes.

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  • Embedding two slideshows

    - by Jennifer Heidelberg
    Hello, I am trying to embedd two slideshows into my flash file. I already managed to integrate one, but I can't integrate another since my knowledge of actionscript is very limited. For people that know Flash well it is a really easy question. What do I have to rename in this script so that I can create a second slideshow, without always calling on the first one. Here is the script for the first slideshow: (I got it from the website where I bought the template for the slideshow from) var loader:Loader = new Loader(); var monoslideshow:Object; loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.CO MPLETE, onLoadComplete); addChild(loader); loader.load(new URLRequest("monoslideshow.swf")); function onLoadComplete(event:Event):void { monoslideshow = event.target.content; monoslideshow.showLogo = false; monoslideshow.setViewport(new Rectangle(730, 20, 700, 660)); var xml:XML = monoslideshow.loadXML(xml); } Thank you very much in advance!! Aylin

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  • Should programmers do Pro Bono work? where are the code public defenders?

    - by Tj Kellie
    How many projects are people doing based on the Bro Bono publico ideals versus working for the highest wage or potential for a cash-in-buy-out payday? For years lawyers have been called out for excessive gathering of wealth from high bill rates and huge settlement deals, hiring out their knowledge and skills to the highest bidders. People call for them to do more for free, use the laws and their time to defend or further some cause thats in the public's best interest. Is professional software development that different? So many bright people and so much knowledge of complex systems. Do you think that there is enough of a "Pro Bono" movement to solve the social and public problems in the industry right now? If so what are the examples to point to? OLPC? NOTE: Saying that open source software is the same as pro bono misses the point completely. I was looking for specific projects with a social context, not just group-sourcing for free software. Just because your not making anyone pay for your software does not mean its doing anyone any good. I'm not calling out manual enforcement of pro bono work for programmers, really just want some objective opinions and concrete examples of social-minded software/tech development projects like the One Laptop Per Child project. I'm sure open source would be a natural tie-in for some.

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  • JScrollPane Scrolls Down with Long Text in JEditorPane

    - by Jim
    Hello, I want to have a JEditorPane inside a JScrollPane. When the user clicks a button, the click listener will create a textEditor, call jscrollpane.setViewPort(textEditor), call textEditor.setText(String) to fill it with editable text, and call jscrollpane.getVerticalScrollBar().setValue(0). In case you're wondering, yes, the setText() must come after the setViewPort() for reasons that aren't on topic. Here is the problem: After the user clicks the button, the JScrollPane's view scrolls all the way to the bottom. I want the scrollbar to be at the top, as per the last line in my click listener. I popped open a debugger, and to my horror, discovered that the jscrollpane's viewport is being forced down to the bottom after the conclusion of the click listener (when pumping filters). It appears that Swing is delaying the population of the editor/jscrollpane until after the conclusion of the clicklistener, but is calling the scrollbar command first. Thus, the undesired behavior. Anyway, I'm wondering if there is a clean solution. It seems that wanting a scrollpane to be scrolled to the top after modification would be a reasonably common requirement, so I'm assuming this is a well-solved problem. Thanks!

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  • jQuery ajax call doesn't seem to do anything at all

    - by icemanind
    I am having a problem with making an ajax call in jQuery. Having done this a million times, I know I am missing something really silly here. Here is my javascript code for making the ajax call: function editEmployee(id) { $('#<%= imgNewEmployeeWait.ClientID %>').hide(); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog input[type=text]').val(''); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog select option:first-child').attr("selected", "selected"); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog').dialog('open'); $('#createEditEmployeeId').text(id); var inputEmp = {}; inputEmp.id = id; var jsonInputEmp = JSON.stringify(inputEmp); debugger; alert('Before Ajax Call!'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Configuration.aspx/GetEmployee", data: jsonInputEmp, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { alert('success'); }, error: function (msg) { alert('failure'); } }); } Here is my CS code that is trying to be called: [WebMethod] public static string GetEmployee(int id) { var employee = new Employee(id); return Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(employee, Newtonsoft.Json.Formatting.Indented); } When I try to run this, I do get the alert that says Before Ajax Call!. However, I never get an alert back that says success or an alert that says failure. I did go into my CS code and put a breakpoint on the GetEmployee method. The breakpoint did hit, so I know jQuery is successfully calling the method. I stepped through the method and it executed just fine with no errors. I can only assume the error is happening when the jQuery ajax call is returning from the call. Also, I looked in my event logs just to make sure there wasn't an ASPX error occurring. There is no error in the logs. I also looked at the console. There are no script errors. Anyone have any ideas what I am missing here? `

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  • How to perform kCATransitionPush animation without any transparency / fade effects

    - by Anthony
    I'm trying to duplicate the "slide up from the bottom" animation that [UIViewController presentModalViewController:animated:] performs but without calling it because I don't want a modal view. The below core animation code comes very close but appears to be changing transparency values of the views during it. At the start of the animation you can partially see through the view sliding up. By the middle/end of the animation the view we are sliding over is fully transparent so we can see behind it. I'd like both to remain fully opaque during this animation. Any ideas on how to stop transparency changes in this code or to otherwise get the "slide up animation" I am looking for without requiring a modal view? UIViewController *nextViewController = [[UIViewController alloc] autorelease]; nextViewController.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; CATransition *animation = [CATransition animation]; animation.duration = 3.5; animation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]; animation.type = kCATransitionPush; animation.subtype = kCATransitionFromTop; [self.navigationController pushViewController:nextViewController animated:NO]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:animation forKey:nil];

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  • HttpHandler and XML files

    - by Frank
    Hello, I would like to intercept any request made to the server for XML files. I thought that it might be possible with an HttpHandler. It's coded and it works... on localhost only (?!?!). So, why is it working on localhost only? Here is my web.config <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.xml" type="FooBar.XmlHandler, FooBar" /> </httpHandlers> </system.web> </configuration> Here is my C# : namespace FooBar { public class XmlHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { HttpResponse Response = context.Response; Response.Write(xmlString); } } } As you might have seen, I'm writing the xmlString directly in the response, it's only temporary because I'm still wondering how I could give the filename instead (that's the second question ;) ) What is supposed to be written in the response is only the xml filename that will be retrieved by a flash app. Thanks Edit : When calling the page from another computer it looks like it's not getting to the HttpHandler. However, the mapping for IIS have been done correctly.

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  • Java Error beeping

    - by user1281385
    Im working on a Chat client that i didnt write the bulk of the code for. It works fine however when someone sends a message it beeps (system error beep) when using Java 7. Java 6 and below doesn't have this beep. I cant seem to find whats causing the beep is there any way to find it ? I dont think its calling beep as i have public class nobeep extends sun.awt.windows.WToolkit { @Override public void beep() { System.out.println("tried to beep"); new Exception().printStackTrace(); } } and then called System.setProperty("awt.toolkit", "nobeep"); in the main method. Using the method to send a beep doesnt make it beep. Its only when sent normally. Is there a quick way to track down the cause of the beep ? Edit: After looking in the bugs database - its confirmed. http://bugs.sun.com/bugdatabase/view_bug.do?bug_id=7194469 I know it says no work around but is there one (java not c++) or just wait until update 8 ?

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  • Iterating through folders and files in batch file?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    Here's my situation. A project has as objective to migrate some attachments to another system. These attachments will be located to a parent folder, let's say "Folder 0" (see this question's diagram for better understanding), and they will be zipped/compressed. I want my batch script to be called like so: BatchScript.bat "c:\temp\usd\Folder 0" I'm using 7za.exe as the command line extraction tool. What I want my batch script to do is to iterate through the "Folder 0"'s subfolders, and extract all of the containing ZIP files into their respective folder. It is obligatory that the files extracted are in the same folder as their respective ZIP files. So, files contained in "File 1.zip" are needed in "Folder 1" and so forth. I have read about the FOR...DO command on Windows XP Professional Product Documentation - Using Batch Files. Here's my script: @ECHO OFF FOR /D %folder IN (%%rootFolderCmdLnParam) DO FOR %zippedFile IN (*.zip) DO 7za.exe e %zippedFile I guess that I would also need to change the actual directory before calling 7za.exe e %zippedFile for file extraction, but I can't figure out how in this batch file (through I know how in command line, and even if I know it is the same instruction "cd"). Anyone's help is gratefully appreciated.

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  • Best practice when using WebMethods and session

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I want to reduce postback in one of my application page and use ajax instead. I used the WebMethod to do so.. I have a static WebMethod that needs to access the session variables and modify. and on the client side, i am calling this method using jQuery. I tried accessing the session as follows: [WebMethod] public static void TestWebMethod() { if (HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"] != null) { log.Debug("Using the existing list"); Product prod = (Product)HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"]; List<Configs> confs = cart.GetConfigs(); foreach (Configs citem in confis) { log.Info(citem.Description); } } log.Info("Inside the method!"); } The values are displayed correctly and seems to work.. but i would like to know if this practice is allowed as the method is a static methods and would like to know how it will behave if multiple people access the application. I would also like to know how developers do these kind of tasks in ASP if this is not the right method. Thanks in advance for your suggestions and ideas, Abdel Olakara

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  • WordPress Conditional: Only show if current page title is equal to post meta

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hey, I am calling a bunch of posts under a certain post type in WordPress which works but I am trying to add a conditional that will check first if those post's custom meta field (labeled "disc") is equal to the current post's title. Here is what I have but this conditional does not seem to work: <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=9999&post_type=song&post_status=publish&order=ASC&orderby=date'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> <?php if(get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-disc", true)=="the_title()") { ?> <tbody class="vevent"> <?php if ($i%2===0) { ?><tr class="gigpress-row gigpress-alt"> <?php } else { ?><tr class="gigpress-row"><?php } ?> <td><?php echo $page->post_title ?></td> <td><?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-length", true); ?></td> <td><a href="http://itunes.com/<?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-itunes-song", true); ?>">BUY</a></td> </tr> <tr class="gigpress-info"> <td colspan="3"><?php echo $page->post_content ?></td> </tr> </tbody> <?php $i++; } } ?> When I simply echo "get_post_meta($page-ID, "p30-disc", true)" or "the_title()" it spits out their proper values, which are equal, so obviously something is just wrong with that conditional. Thanks, Wade

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  • Which Django 1.2.x multilingual application to use?

    - by mawimawi
    There are a couple of different applications for internationalized content in Django. As of now I only have used http://code.google.com/p/django-multilingual/ in my production environments, but I wonder if there are "better" solutions for my wishes. What my staff users need is the following: An object is being created by a staff user in any language (e.g. "de") This object should be displayed in the german version of the website. When a staff user translates the object into a different language (e.g. "fr"), then the page must be visible in the french version as well. If an object is not translated in the visitor's currently selected language (e.g. "en"), then calling the objects url shall raise a 404 Error (or even better a notice that the object is only available in the languages "de" and "fr", and the visitor might be able to select one of the languages) My staff users are working in the admin interface, so the multilingual application must support this as well. I don't really care whether the multilingual app uses a single table with many fields (like title_en, title_de, title_fr) or a foreign key to a related table (as it is implemented in django-multlingual). I only want it to have a good admin interface and no "default" language, because some content might be available just in "de", and some other just in "fr" and "en". And the most important issue of course is compatibility with Django 1.2.x. What are your experiences and preferred apps, and why?

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  • Is there an easier way with jQuery accordions?

    - by Josh
    I've been struggling with a feature I've been trying to create for sometime. The idea here is that the user sees the little thumbnail + headline, as well as the Posted By information. They can then click on the headline to expand to the article or click on the "Comments" link to expand directly to the comments made on the article. Or, if they want they can view comments by clicking on the headline(to expand to the article), then click on View Comments (to expand to the comments). In the end, a modular yet flexible and functional open/close system to view latest news. Here is what I've been working on: (I put all my code in one place so its easier on whomever may look at this to view) http://notedls.com/pointtest.html This is what I'm shooting for, but it's far from what I want ;( It's using the jQuery 1.6 plugin, which 1.8 is out but I'm far from being a master or expert at this and I don't think I could build from the ground up. I've already edited this plugin to get it to work like this, but as you can see, the AUTHOR and Comments start making shit hit the fan ;; It's because the code is calling the "A TAG" for the header; which is the headline. Does anyone know any easier way to achieve what I'm envisioning or possible a way to fix this current code? I'm pretty desperate at this point ;;

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  • How Do I make a simple .htaccess internal redirect Catch All script while forwarding POST data?

    - by RB
    I just want to catch all requests and forward them internally to my catchall page with all POST data intact Catch all page: http://www.mydomain.com/addons/redirect/catch-all.php I've tried so many combinations, but my server doesn't want to redirect internally if I specify more than catch-all.php # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule (.*) /addons/redirect/catch-all.php [L] Also, do I need [L] or is it useless for internal redirects? Then, what php code would I use to grab the POST data, use it, and finally PHP redirect the page to the originally requested page Would it be done just as normal by using $_POST['variable_name']; or something different? Then, how would I go about calling the originally requested page, so I can tell PHP to header location direct them to that page? Thanks! UPDATE: Ha sick, nevermind. The condition DOES work. Here's my code: # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/robots.txt$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(gif¦jpe?g¦png¦css¦js¦pdf¦doc¦xml)$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/addons/redirect/catch-all\.php$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /addons/redirect/catch-all.php?q=$1 [L] Thanks guys for the inspiration! Now time to get that PHP to work...

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  • iPhone: addAnnotation not working when called from another view

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have two views, the first view has an MKMapView on it named ridesMap. The second view is just a view with a UITableView in it. When you click the save button in the second view, it calls a method from the first view: // Get my first views class MyRidesMapViewController *rideMapView = [[MyRidesMapViewController alloc] init]; // Call the method from my first views class that removes an annotation [rideMapView addAnno:newRidePlacemark.coordinate withTitle:rideTitle.text withSubTitle:address]; This correctly calls the addAnno method, which looks like: - (void)addAnno:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)anno withTitle:(NSString *)annoTitle withSubTitle:(NSString *)subTitle { Annotation *ano = [[[Annotation alloc] init] autorelease]; ano.coordinate = anno; ano.title = annoTitle; ano.subtitle = subTitle; if ([ano conformsToProtocol:@protocol(MKAnnotation)]) { NSLog(@"YES IT DOES!!!"); } [ridesMap addAnnotation:ano]; }//end addAnno This method creates an annotation which does conform to MKAnnotation, and it suppose to add that annotation to the map using the addAnnotation method. But, the annotation never gets added. I NEVER get any errors when the annotation does not get added. But it never appears when the method is called. Why would this be? It seems that I have done everything correctly, and that I am passing a correct MKAnnotation to the addAnnotation method. So, I don't get why it never drops a pin? Could it be because I am calling this method from another view? Why would that matter?

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  • Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

    - by aioobe
    I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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  • perl dynamic path given to 'use lib'

    - by Ed Hyer
    So, my code (Perl scripts and Perl modules) sits in a tree like this: trunk/ util/ process/ scripts/ The 'util' directory has, well, utilities, that things in the 'process/' dir need. They get access like this: use FindBin; use lib "$FindBin::Bin/../util"; use UtilityModule qw(all); That construct doesn't care where you start, as long as you're at the same level in the tree as "util/". But I decided that 'scripts/' was getting too crowded, so I created scripts/scripts1 scripts/scripts2 Now I see that this doesn't work. If I run a script 'trunk/scripts/scripts1/call_script.pl', and it calls '/trunk/process/process_script.pl', then 'process_script.pl' will fail trying to get the routines from UtilityModule(), because the path that FindBin returns is the path of the top-level calling script. The first ten ways I thought of to solve this all involved something like: use lib $path_that_came_from_elsewhere; but that seems to be something Perl doesn't like to do, except via that FindBin trick. I tried some things involving BEGIN{} blocks, but i don't really know what I'm doing there, and will likely just end up refactoring. But if someone has some clever insight into this type of problem, this would be a good chance to earn some points!

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  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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  • Django access data passed to form

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I have got a choiceField in my form, where I display filtered data. To filter the data I need two arguments. The first one is not a problem, because I can take it directly from an object, but the second one is dynamically generated. Here is some code: class GroupAdd(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): self.pid = kwargs.pop('parent_id', None) super(GroupAdd, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) parent_id = forms.IntegerField(widget=forms.HiddenInput) choices = forms.ChoiceField( choices = [ [group.node_id, group.name] for group in Objtree.objects.filter( type_id = ObjtreeTypes.objects.values_list('type_id').filter(name = 'group'), parent_id = 50 ).distinct()] + [[0, 'Add a new one'] ], widget = forms.Select( attrs = { 'id': 'group_select' } ) ) I would like to change the parent_id that is passed into the Objtree.objects.filter. As you can see I tried in the init function, as well with kwargs['initial']['parent_id'] and then calling it with self, but that doesnt work, since its out of scope... it was pretty much my last effort. I need to acccess it either trough the initial parameter or directly trough parent_id field, since it already holds its value (passed trough initial). Any help is appreciated, as I am running out of ideas.

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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