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  • Optimizing MySQL update query

    - by Jernej Jerin
    This is currently my MySQL UPDATE query, which is called from program written in Java: String query = "UPDATE maxday SET DatePressureREL = (SELECT Date FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX" + "(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), " + "PressureREL = (SELECT PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 " + "WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), ..."; try { s.execute(query); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("SQL error"); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Let me explain first, what does it do. I have two tables, first is ws3600, which holds columns (Date, PressureREL, TemperatureOUT, Dewpoint, ...). Then I have second table, called maxday, which holds columns like DatePressureREL, PressureREL, DateTemperatureOUT, TemperatureOUT,... Now as you can see from an example, I update each column, the question is, is there a faster way? I am asking this, because I am calling MAX twice, first to find the Date for that value and secondly to find the actual value. Now I know that I could write like that: SELECT Date, PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1 That way I get the Date of the max and the max value at the same time and then update with those values the data in maxday table. But the problem of this solution is, that I have to execute many queries, which as I understand takes alot more time compared to executing one long mysql query because of overhead in sending each query to the server. If there is no better way, which solution beetwen this two should I choose. The first, which only takes one query but is very unoptimized or the second which is beter in terms of optimization, but needs alot more queries which probably means that the preformance gain is lost because of overhead in sending each query to the server?

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  • Mocking inter-method dependencies

    - by Zecrates
    I've recently started using mock objects in my tests, but I'm still very inexperienced with them and unsure of how to use them in some cases. At the moment I'm struggling with how to mock inter-method dependencies (calling method A has an effect on the results of method B), and whether it should even be mocked (in the sense of using a mocking framework) at all? Take for example a Java Iterator? It is easy enough to mock the next() call to return the correct values, but how do I mock hasNext(), which depends on how many times next() has been called? Currently I'm using a List.Iterator as I could find no way to properly mock one. Does Martin Fowler's distinction between mocks and stubs come into play here? Should I rather write my own IteratorMock? Also consider the following example. The method to be tested calls mockObject.setX() and later on mockObject.getX(). Is there any way that I can create such a mock (without writing my own) which will allow the returned value of getX to depend on what was passed to setX?

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  • PageMethod with Custom Handler

    - by Mister Cook
    I have a page based web method which works fine, using [WebMethod], i.e [WebMethod] public static void DoSomethingOnTheServer() { } I also have a custom page handler to make SEO friendly URLs possible, e.g http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext = http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 I am using Server.Transfer in my ProcessRequest handler to achieve this. This all works fine. Also, my page method works fine when the user requests the URL such as: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 However, when the user requests the custom handled URL, i.e. http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext The client reports that the PageMethod has been successfully completed, but it has not been called at all. I'm guessing it has something to do with my custom handler, so I have modified it to include PathInfo: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { // ... (code to determine id) ... // Transfer to the required page string actualPath = "~/page.aspx" + context.Request.PathInfo + "?id=" + determinedId; context.Server.Transfer(actualPath); } So now if a PageMethod is called, it will result in: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer?id=1 I'm wondering if this is the correct syntax for calling a PageMethod. When I try Server.Transfer reports: Error executing child request for /MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer I've experimented with HttpContext.RewritePath but not sure how to actually make it perform the request. This does not seem to work, any ideas?

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  • On IE cursor is comming always at start in textarea

    - by pravin
    I am dealing with textarea, and on click of this I am calling one replace function which will remove some specified string in textarea, this is the basic operation. Expected behavior after clicking on textarea 1) At first click : It should remove specified string from textarea Cursor should come at end of string 2) more than one click : - Cursor should come at where ever user clicks in text area Below is my replace function.... function replace(id,transFromDb) { newStr = $("#"+id).val(); var len = null; if(transFromDb == '') { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); } else { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); } /* change font weight as bold. */ $("#"+id).css({"fontWeight":"bold"}); $("#"+id).val(newStr); } Assume that Lang.Message is specified string. It's working above behavior with FF. Facing issue on IE, it always keep cursor position at first. Please provide any solution.... Thanks in Adavance Pravin

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  • Using multiple sockets, is non-blocking or blocking with select better?

    - by JPhi1618
    Lets say I have a server program that can accept connections from 10 (or more) different clients. The clients send data at random which is received by the server, but it is certain that at least one client will be sending data every update. The server cannot wait for information to arrive because it has other processing to do. Aside from using asynchronous sockets, I see two options: Make all sockets non-blocking. In a loop, call recv on each socket and allow it to fail with WSAEWOULDBLOCK if there is no data available and if I happen to get some data, then keep it. Leave the sockets as blocking. Add all sockets to a fd_set and call select(). If the return value is non-zero (which it will be most of the time), loop through all the sockets to find the appropriate number of readable sockets with FD_ISSET() and only call recv on the readable sockets. The first option will create a lot more calls to the recv function. The second method is a bigger pain from a programming perspective because of all the FD_SET and FD_ISSET looping. Which method (or another method) is preferred? Is avoiding the overhead on letting recv fail on a non-blocking socket worth the hassle of calling select()? I think I understand both methods and I have tried both with success, but I don't know if one way is considered better or optimal. Only knowledgeable replies please!

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  • How to pull UIImages from NSData from a socket.

    - by Jus' Wondrin'
    Hey all! I'm using ASyncSocket to move some UIImages from one device over to another. Essentially, on one device I have: NSMutableData *data = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(image, 0.1); if(isRunning){ [sock writeData:data withTimeout:-1 tag:0]; } So a new image will be added to the socket every so often (like a webcam). Then, on the other device, I am calling: [listenSocket readDataWithTimeout:1 tag:0]; which will respond with: - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didReadData:(NSData *)data withTag:(long)tag { [responseData appendData:data]; [listenSocket readDataWithTimeout:1 tag:0]; } Essentially, what I want to be able to do is have an NSTimer going which will call @selector(PullImages): -(void) PullImages { In here, I want to be able to pull images out of ResponseData. How do I do that? There might not be a complete image yet, there might be multiple images, there might be one and a half images! I want to parse the NSData into each existing image! } Any assistance? Thanks in advance!

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  • how to access a type defined in one .ml file in another .ml file

    - by user339261
    Hi, I m very new to ocaml and i m facing the problem below, In a.ml a record type t is defined and is also defined transparently in a.mli, i.e. in d interface so that the type definition is available to all other files. a.ml also has a function, func, which returns a list of t. Now in another file, b.ml i m calling func, now obviously ocaml compiler wud nt be able to infer d type of objects stored in d list, for compiler its just a list. so in b.ml, i hav something like dis, let tlist = A.func in let vart = List.hd tlist in printf "%s\n" vart.name (name is a field in record t) Now here i get a compiler error sayin "Unbound record field label name" which makes sense as compiler can't infer d type of vart. my first question: how do I explicitly provide d type of vart as t here? i tried doing "let vart:A.t = " but got the same error. I also tried creating another function to fetch the first element of d list and mentioning return type as A.t, but then i got the "Unbound value A.t". I did this: let firstt = function [] - 0 | x :: _ - A.t x ;; The problem is compiler is unable to recognize A.t (a type) in b.ml but is able to recognize function A.func. If I remove A.t from the b.ml, i don'get any compiler errors. Please help, its urgent work. Thanks in advance! ~Tarun

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  • CAS authentication and redirects with jQuery Ajax

    - by Steve Nay
    I've got an HTML page that needs to make requests to a CAS-protected (Central Authentication Service) web service using the jQuery AJAX functions. I've got the following code: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: request, dataType: "json", complete: function(xmlHttp) { console.log(xmlHttp); alert(xmlHttp.status); }, success: handleRedirects }); The request variable can be either to the CAS server (https://cas.mydomain.com/login?service=myServiceURL) or directly to the service (which should then redirect back to CAS to get a service ticket). Firebug shows that the request is being made and that it comes back as a 302 redirect. However, the $.ajax() function isn't handling the redirect. I wrote this function to work around this: var handleRedirects = function(data, textStatus) { console.log(data, textStatus); if (data.redirect) { console.log("Calling a redirect: " + data.redirect); $.get(data.redirect, handleRedirects); } else { //function that handles the actual data processing gotResponse(data); } }; However, even with this, the handleRedirects function never gets called, and the xmlHttp.status always returns 0. It also doesn't look like the cookies are getting sent with the cas.mydomain.com call. (See this question for a similar problem.) Is this a problem with the AJAX calls not handling redirects, or is there more going on here than meets the eye?

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  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

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  • JSF Managed Property question

    - by kidvid
    I have a search page that I'll called "Parent." The search page references a country lookup page that I'll call "Child." When the user selects a country on Child's page and clicks on OK, I set the country back into the parent page. I do this by calling a method on the Parent page called "UpdateCountryCodeWithLookupValue(Child child)" When the user clicks on OK on the Child page, that method gets called in the parent, wherein it'll get the selected country code out of the Child page and set it into a text entry field. My question has to do with the proper way to set up this relationship in the faces config file. The way I have it now is that the child has a managed property for the parent. I.e., in my Child page I defined a method called "SetParent(Parent parent)". Is there any drawback to doing it this way? Would it be preferable to set the managed property so that the Child page class is a property of the parent instead of vice-versa? Let's say that I could have two Parent (search) pages open at the same time, and each of these was able to open the Child page (country code lookup). What would be the ramification for that circumstance in terms of the managed property in the faces config file? Thanks, Adrian

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  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

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  • How to avoid game rendering component circular references?

    - by CodexArcanum
    I'm working on a simple game design, and I wanted to break up my game objects into more reusable components. But I'm getting stuck on how exactly to implement the design I have in mind. Here's an example: I have a Logger object, whose job is simply to store a list of messages and render them to screen. You know, logging. Originally the Logger just held the list, and the game loop rendered it's contents. Then I moved the rendering logic into the Logger.Draw() method, and now I want to move it further into a LoggerRenderer object. In effect, I want to have the game loop call RenderAll, which will then call Logger.Render, which will in turn call the LoggerRenderer.Render and finally output the text. So the Logger needs to contain a Renderer object, but the Renderer needs access to the Logger's state (the message queue) in order to render. How do I resolve that? Should I be passing in the message queue and other state information explicitly to the Render method? Or should the game loop be calling the Renderer directly and it links back to the logger, but the RenderAll method never actually sees the logger object itself? This feels kind of like Command pattern, but I'm botching it up terribly.

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  • Question about WeakReferences

    - by Impz0r
    Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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  • Response.Redirect in a COM+ Object Called from Classic ASP Page

    - by ajdams
    Basically we moved from IIS 5 to IIS 7 and I am trying to update some of our old COM objects to .NET by rewriting them in C#. What I am have so far is a Classic ASP page calling the COM+ object and then I am trying to do a simple redirect within the COM+ object (this is just for testing purposes, it's not what the object will do eventually). My problem/question is, why does the redirect call not work properly? Am I doing something wrong or can you not redirect within a COM+ object? All that happens is a blank white page comes up and if I check the IIS logs, I see no errors. Here is my code so far: In Classic ASP (the call to COM+) Set oBankReg = CreateObject("BVSRegistration.SignIn") oBankReg.GetBankId(bankid) Code in C# COM object: using System; using System.Web; using System.Text; using System.EnterpriseServices; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; [assembly: ApplicationName("BVSRegistration")] [assembly: Description("COM+ upgrade of the BVSRegistration VB6 SignIn.cls.")] [assembly: ApplicationActivation(ActivationOption.Server)] [assembly: ApplicationAccessControl(false, AccessChecksLevel = AccessChecksLevelOption.ApplicationComponent)] namespace BVSRegistration { public class SignIn : ServicedComponent { public void GetBankId(string bankid) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("http://www.google.com"); } } } Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How to get HTTP status code in HTTPService fault handler

    - by Ankur
    I am calling a server method through HTTPService from client side. The server is a RestFul web service and it might respond with one of many HTTP error codes (say, 400 for one error, 404 for another and 409 for yet another). I have been trying to find out the way to determine what was the exact error code sent by the server. I have walked teh entire object tree for the FaultEvent populated in my fault handler, but no where does it tell me the error code. Is this missing functionality in Flex? My code looks like this: The HTTP Service declaration: <mx:HTTPService id="myServerCall" url="myService" method="GET" resultFormat="e4x" result="myServerCallCallBack(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> <mx:request> <action>myServerCall</action> <docId>{m_sDocId}</docId> </mx:request> </mx:HTTPService> My fault handler code is like so: private function faultHandler(event : FaultEvent):void { Alert.show(event.statusCode.toString() + " / " + event.fault.message.toString()); }

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  • Is an "infinite" iterator bad design?

    - by Adamski
    Is it generally considered bad practice to provide Iterator implementations that are "infinite"; i.e. where calls to hasNext() always(*) return true? Typically I'd say "yes" because the calling code could behave erratically, but in the below implementation hasNext() will return true unless the caller removes all elements from the List that the iterator was initialised with; i.e. there is a termination condition. Do you think this is a legitimate use of Iterator? It doesn't seem to violate the contract although I suppose one could argue it's unintuitive. public class CyclicIterator<T> implements Iterator<T> { private final List<T> l; private Iterator it; public CyclicIterator<T>(List<T> l) { this.l = l; this.it = l.iterator(); } public boolean hasNext() { return !l.isEmpty(); } public T next() { T ret; if (!hasNext()) { throw new NoSuchElementException(); } else if (it.hasNext()) { ret = it.next(); } else { it = l.iterator(); ret = it.next(); } return ret; } public void remove() { it.remove(); } }

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  • Threading is slow and unpredictable?

    - by Jake
    I've created the basis of a ray tracer, here's my testing function for drawing the scene: public void Trace(int start, int jump, Sphere testSphere) { for (int x = start; x < scene.SceneWidth; x += jump) { for (int y = 0; y < scene.SceneHeight; y++) { Ray fired = Ray.FireThroughPixel(scene, x, y); if (testSphere.Intersects(fired)) sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Red); else sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Black); } } } SetPixel simply sets a value in a single dimensional array of colours. If I call the function normally by just directly calling it it runs at a constant 55fps. If I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 1, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); It runs at a constant 50fps which is fine and understandable, but when I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 2, testSphere)); Thread t2 = new Thread(() => Trace(1, 2, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); It runs all over the place, rapidly moving between 30-40 fps and sometimes going out of that range up to 50 or down to 20, it's not constant at all. Why is it running slower than it would if I ran the whole thing on a single thread? I'm running on a quad core i5 2500k.

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  • Rails Polymorphic Association with multiple associations on the same model

    - by Matt Rogish
    My question is essentially the same as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168047/polymorphic-association-with-multiple-associations-on-the-same-model However, the proposed/accepted solution does not work, as illustrated by a commenter later. I have a Photo class that is used all over my app. A post can have a single photo. However, I want to re-use the polymorphic relationship to add a secondary photo. Before: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end Desired: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end However, this fails as it cannot find the class "SecondaryPhoto". Based on what I could tell from that other thread, I'd want to do: has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :class_name => "Photo", :dependent => :destroy Except calling Post#secondary_photo simply returns the same photo that is attached via the Photo association, e.g. Post#photo === Post#secondary_photo. Looking at the SQL, it does WHERE type = "Photo" instead of, say, "SecondaryPhoto" as I'd like... Thoughts? Thanks!

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  • Name Values in Excel Object model

    - by mcoolbeth
    I am using VSTO to create an Excel add-in. My plan is to persist objects inside of excel workbooks by serializing them to strings and assigning those strings to be the values of names in the workbook. However, when I call the API function to add the new name, I get a mysterious exception from the COM library. More precisely, I am calling _app.ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add(name, value, true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); where name = "an_object" and value = "TestTemplate|'Sheet1'!$A$1| 1Cube=(0,1):(1,2)| 2EntryNumber=(1,1):(2,2)| 3Description=(2,1):(3,2)| 4Group=(4,1):(5,2)| 5Repost=(3,1):(4,2)| 6Debit=(13,3):(16,4)| 7Credit=(13,2):(16,3)|Company=(6,1):(7,2)|Company Partner=(7,1):(8,2)|Time Monthly=(8,1):(9,2)|Currency=(9,1):(10,2)|Version=(10,1):(11,2)|Department=(13,0):(16,1)|Account=(13,1):(16,2)|" A hypothesis is that the value string does not qualify as a string that can be stored in a name (illegal characters, too long, etc) but I cannot find any documentation about what the restrictions are. Does anyone know what is going wrong here? The error message, in case anyone wants it, is Exception from HRESULT: 0x800A03EC Thanks alot.

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  • A simple WCF Service (POX) without complex serialization

    - by jammer59
    I'm a complete WCF novice. I'm trying to build a deploy a very, very simple IIS 7.0 hosted web service. For reasons outside of my control it must be WCF and not ASMX. It's a wrapper service for a pre-existing web application that simply does the following: 1) Receives a POST request with the request body XML-encapsulated form elements. Something like valuevalue. This is untyped XML and the XML is atomic (a form) and not a list of records/objects. 2) Add a couple of tags to the request XML and the invoke another HTTP-based service with a simple POST + bare XML -- this will actually be added by some internal SQL ops but that isn't the issue. 3) Receive the XML response from the 3rd party service and relay it as the response to the original calling client in Step 1. The clients (step 1) will be some sort of web-based scripting but could be anything .aspx, python, php, etc. I can't have SOAP and the usual WCF-based REST examples with their contracts and serialization have me confused. This seems like a very common and very simple problem conceptually. It would be easy to implement in code but IIS-hosted WCF is a requirement. Any pointers?

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  • How to run an external SWF inside a Flex Application?

    - by lk
    I want to run an Action Script 3.0 Application into a Flex Application. To do this I've done the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication windowComplete="loadSwfApplication()" xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function loadSwfApplication() { var urlRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("path/to/the/application.swf"); swfLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, loadComplete); swfLoader.load(urlRequest); } private function loadComplete(completeEvent:Event) { var swfApplication:* = completeEvent.target.content; swfApplication.init(); // this is a Function that I made it in the Root class of swfApplication } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:SWFLoader id="sfwLoader"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> The problem is that in the calling of swfApplication.init(); the AIR Player throws me an exception: Security sandbox violation: caller file:///path/to/the/application.swf cannot access Stage owned by app:/SWFApplicationLoader.swf. This is because somewhere in application.swf I use the stage like this: if (root.stage != null) root.stage.addEventListener(Event.REMOVED, someFunction); root.stage.stageFocusRect = false; How can I load this swf application and USE the stage without any problems?

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  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

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  • Natural language grammar and user-entered names

    - by Owen Blacker
    Some languages, particularly Slavic languages, change the endings of people's names according to the grammatical context. (For those of you who know grammar or studied languages that do this to words, such as German or Russian, and to help with search keywords, I'm talking about noun declension.) This is probably easiest with a set of examples (in Polish, to save the whole different-alphabet problem): Dorothy saw the cat — Dorota zobaczyla kota The cat saw Dorothy — Kot zobaczyl Dorote It is Dorothy’s cat — To jest kot Doroty I gave the cat to Dorothy — Dalam kota Dorotie I went for a walk with Dorothy — Poszlam na spacer z Dorota “Hello, Dorothy!” — “Witam, Doroto!” Now, if, in these examples, the name here were to be user-entered, that introduces a world of grammar nightmares. Importantly, if I went for Katie (Kasia), the examples are not directly comparable — 3 and 4 are both Kasi, rather than *Kasy and *Kasie — and male names will be wholly different again. I'm guessing someone has dealt with this situation before, but my Google-fu appears to be weak today. I can find a lot of links about natural-language processing, but I don'think that's quite what I want. To be clear: I'm only ever gonna have one user-entered name per user and I'm gonna need to decline them into known configurations — I'll have a localised text that will have placeholders something like {name nominative} and {name dative}, for the sake of argument. I really don't want to have to do lexical analysis of text to work stuff out, I'll only ever need to decline that one user-entered name. Anyone have any recommendations on how to do this, or do I need to start calling round localisation agencies ;o) Further reading (all on Wikipedia) for the interested: Declension Grammatical case Declension in Polish Declension in Russian Declension in Czech nouns and pronouns Disclaimer: I know this happens in many other languages; highlighting Slavic languages is merely because I have a project that is going to be localised into some Slavic languages.

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  • C# Inheritence: Choosing what repository based on type of inherited class

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been making a program that downloads information about movies from the internet. I have a base class Title, which represents all titles. Movie, Serie and Episode are inherited from that class. To save them to the database I have 2 services, MovieService and SerieService. They in turn call repositories, but that is not important here. I have a method Save(Title title) which I am not very happy with. I check for what type the title is and then call the correct service. I would like to perhaps write like this: ITitleService service = title.GetService(); title.GetSavedBy(service); So I have an abstract method on Title that returns an ITitleSaver, which will return the correct service for the instance. My question is how should I implement ITitleSaver? If I make it accept Title I will have to cast it to the correct type before calling the correct overload. Which will lead to having to deal with casting once again. What is the best approach to dealing with this? I would like to have the saving logic in the corresponding class.

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  • Number of args for stored procedure PLS-00306

    - by Peter Kaleta
    Hi I have problem with calling for my procedure. Oracle scrams PLS-00306 Error: Wrong number of types of arguments in call to procedure. With my type declaration procedure has exact the same declaration like in header below. If I run it as separate procedure it works, when i work in ODCI interface for extensible index creation, it throws PLS-00306. MEMBER PROCEDURE FILL_TREE_LVL (target_column VARCHAR2, cur_lvl NUMBER, max_lvl NUMBER, parent_rect NUMBER,start_x NUMBER, start_y NUMBER, end_x NUMBER, end_y NUMBER) IS stmt VARCHAR2(2000); rect_id NUMBER; diff_x NUMBER; diff_y NUMBER; new_start_x NUMBER; new_end_x NUMBER; i NUMBER; j NUMBER; BEGIN {...} END FILL_TREE_LVL; STATIC FUNCTION ODCIINDEXCREATE (ia SYS.ODCIINDEXINFO, parms VARCHAR2, env SYS.ODCIEnv) RETURN NUMBER IS stmt VARCHAR2(2000); stmt2 VARCHAR2(2000); min_x NUMBER; max_x NUMBER; min_y NUMBER; max_y NUMBER; lvl NUMBER; rect_id NUMBER; pt_tab VARCHAR2(50); rect_tab VARCHAR2(50); cnum NUMBER; TYPE point_rect is RECORD( point_id NUMBER, rect_id NUMBER ); TYPE point_rect_tab IS TABLE OF point_rect; pr_table point_rect_tab; BEGIN {...} FILL_TREE_LVL('any string', 0, lvl,0, min_x, min_y, max_x, max_y); {...} END;

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