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  • Adivce on Method overloads.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

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  • Policy file error while loading images form facebook

    - by Fahim Akhter
    Hi, I making a game leaderboard on facebook. I'm not using connect but working inside the canvas. When I try to load the images from facebook it gives me the following error. SecurityError: Error #2122: Security sandbox violation: Loader.content: http://test cannot access http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg A policy file is required, but the checkPolicyFile flag was not set when this media was loaded. Here is my loader code public var preLoader:Loader; preLoader=new Loader(); **update** Security.loadPolicyFile('http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml'); Security.allowDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); Security.allowInsecureDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); **update-end** public function imageContainer(Imagewidth:Number,Imageheight:Number,url:String,path:String) { preLoader=new Loader(); Security.loadPolicyFile("http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml"); var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(); context.checkPolicyFile = true; context.applicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; preLoader.load(new URLRequest(path),context); Any Ideas? I am importing the right class though. UPDATE: I am loading the images from a different domain say , calling func http://fahim.com images are from http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg something ( I have made sure the pictures are static do not require a facebook login or anything , they are just user public profile pictures)

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  • Custom UITableViewCell changing indexPath While Scrolling ?

    - by Chris
    I have a custom UITableViewCell which I created in Interface Builder. I am successfully Dequeuing cells, but as I scroll, the cells appear to begin calling different indexPaths. In this example, I am feeding the current indexPath.section and indexPath.row into the customCellLabel. As I scroll the table up and down, some of the cells will change. The numbers can be all over the place, but the cells are not skipping around visually. If I comment out the if(cell==nil), then the problem goes away. If I use a standard cell, the problem goes away. Ideas why this might be happening? // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = (UITableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"CalendarEventCell"]; if (cell == nil) { NSLog(@"Creating New Cell !!!!!"); NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CalendarEventCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = (UITableViewCell *)[nib objectAtIndex:0]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } // Set up the cell... [customCellLabel setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d - %d",indexPath.section, indexPath.row]]; return cell; }

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  • PageMethod with Custom Handler

    - by Mister Cook
    I have a page based web method which works fine, using [WebMethod], i.e [WebMethod] public static void DoSomethingOnTheServer() { } I also have a custom page handler to make SEO friendly URLs possible, e.g http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext = http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 I am using Server.Transfer in my ProcessRequest handler to achieve this. This all works fine. Also, my page method works fine when the user requests the URL such as: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 However, when the user requests the custom handled URL, i.e. http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext The client reports that the PageMethod has been successfully completed, but it has not been called at all. I'm guessing it has something to do with my custom handler, so I have modified it to include PathInfo: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { // ... (code to determine id) ... // Transfer to the required page string actualPath = "~/page.aspx" + context.Request.PathInfo + "?id=" + determinedId; context.Server.Transfer(actualPath); } So now if a PageMethod is called, it will result in: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer?id=1 I'm wondering if this is the correct syntax for calling a PageMethod. When I try Server.Transfer reports: Error executing child request for /MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer I've experimented with HttpContext.RewritePath but not sure how to actually make it perform the request. This does not seem to work, any ideas?

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  • Apache multiple URL to one domain redirect

    - by Christian Moser
    For the last two day, I've been spending a lot of time to solve my problem, maybe someone can help me. Problem: I need to redirect different url's to one tomcat webbase-dir used for artifactory. following urls should point to the tomcat/artifactory webapp: maven-repo.example.local ; maven-repo.example.local/artifactory ; srv-example/artifactory Where maven-repo.example.local is the dns for the server-hostname: "srv-example" I'm accessing the tomcat app through the JK_mod module. The webapp is in the ROOT directory This is what I've got so far: <VirtualHost *:80> #If URL contains "artifactory" strip down and redirect RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^\artifactory\$ [NC] # (how can I remove 'artifactory' from the redirected parameters? ) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://maven-repo.example.local/$1 [R=301,L] ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/redirect-error_log" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven-repo.example.local ErrorLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-error.log" CustomLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-access.log" common #calling tomcat webapp in ROOT JkMount /* ajp13w </VirtualHost> The webapp is working with "maven-repo.example.local", but with "maven-repo.example.local/artifactory" tomcat gives a 404 - "The requested resource () is not available." It seems that the mod_rewrite doesn't have taken any effect, even if I redirect to another page, e.g google.com I'm testing on windows 7 with maven-repo.example.local added in the "system32/drivers/hosts" file Thanks in advance!

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  • Rails Polymorphic Association with multiple associations on the same model

    - by Matt Rogish
    My question is essentially the same as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168047/polymorphic-association-with-multiple-associations-on-the-same-model However, the proposed/accepted solution does not work, as illustrated by a commenter later. I have a Photo class that is used all over my app. A post can have a single photo. However, I want to re-use the polymorphic relationship to add a secondary photo. Before: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end Desired: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end However, this fails as it cannot find the class "SecondaryPhoto". Based on what I could tell from that other thread, I'd want to do: has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :class_name => "Photo", :dependent => :destroy Except calling Post#secondary_photo simply returns the same photo that is attached via the Photo association, e.g. Post#photo === Post#secondary_photo. Looking at the SQL, it does WHERE type = "Photo" instead of, say, "SecondaryPhoto" as I'd like... Thoughts? Thanks!

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  • Optimizing MySQL update query

    - by Jernej Jerin
    This is currently my MySQL UPDATE query, which is called from program written in Java: String query = "UPDATE maxday SET DatePressureREL = (SELECT Date FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX" + "(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), " + "PressureREL = (SELECT PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 " + "WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), ..."; try { s.execute(query); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("SQL error"); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Let me explain first, what does it do. I have two tables, first is ws3600, which holds columns (Date, PressureREL, TemperatureOUT, Dewpoint, ...). Then I have second table, called maxday, which holds columns like DatePressureREL, PressureREL, DateTemperatureOUT, TemperatureOUT,... Now as you can see from an example, I update each column, the question is, is there a faster way? I am asking this, because I am calling MAX twice, first to find the Date for that value and secondly to find the actual value. Now I know that I could write like that: SELECT Date, PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1 That way I get the Date of the max and the max value at the same time and then update with those values the data in maxday table. But the problem of this solution is, that I have to execute many queries, which as I understand takes alot more time compared to executing one long mysql query because of overhead in sending each query to the server. If there is no better way, which solution beetwen this two should I choose. The first, which only takes one query but is very unoptimized or the second which is beter in terms of optimization, but needs alot more queries which probably means that the preformance gain is lost because of overhead in sending each query to the server?

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  • Average performance of binary search algorithm?

    - by Passionate Learner
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binary_search_algorithm#Average_performance BinarySearch(int A[], int value, int low, int high) { int mid; if (high < low) return -1; mid = (low + high) / 2; if (A[mid] > value) return BinarySearch(A, value, low, mid-1); else if (A[mid] < value) return BinarySearch(A, value, mid+1, high); else return mid; } If the integer I'm trying to find is always in the array, can anyone help me write a program that can calculate the average performance of binary search algorithm? I know I can do this by actually running the program and counting the number of calls, but what I'm trying to do here is to do it without calling the function. I'm not asking for a time complexity, I'm trying to calculate the average number of calls. For example, the average number of calls to find a integer in A[2], it would be 1.67 (5/3).

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  • Mocking inter-method dependencies

    - by Zecrates
    I've recently started using mock objects in my tests, but I'm still very inexperienced with them and unsure of how to use them in some cases. At the moment I'm struggling with how to mock inter-method dependencies (calling method A has an effect on the results of method B), and whether it should even be mocked (in the sense of using a mocking framework) at all? Take for example a Java Iterator? It is easy enough to mock the next() call to return the correct values, but how do I mock hasNext(), which depends on how many times next() has been called? Currently I'm using a List.Iterator as I could find no way to properly mock one. Does Martin Fowler's distinction between mocks and stubs come into play here? Should I rather write my own IteratorMock? Also consider the following example. The method to be tested calls mockObject.setX() and later on mockObject.getX(). Is there any way that I can create such a mock (without writing my own) which will allow the returned value of getX to depend on what was passed to setX?

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  • GAE - Getting TypeError requiring class instance be passed to class's own method...

    - by Spencer Leland
    I'm really new to programming... I set up a class to give supporting information for Google's User API user object. I store this info in the datastore using db.model. When I call the okstatus method of my user_info class using this code: elif user_info.okstatus(user): self.response.out.write("user allowed") I get this error: unbound method okstatus() must be called with user_info instance as first argument (got User instance instead) Here is my user_info class. class user_info: def auth_ctrlr(self, user): if self.status(user) == status_allowed: return ("<a href=\"%s\">Sign Out</a>)" % (users.create_login_url("/"))) else: return ("<a href=\"%s\">Sign In or Get an Account</a>)" % (users.create_logout_url("/"))) def status(self, user): match = sub_user.gql(qu_by_user_id, user.user_id) return match.string_status def group(self, user): match = sub_user.gql(qu_by_user_id, user.user_id) grp = group_names.gql(qu_by_user_id, match.groupID) return grp def okstatus(self, user): match = self.status(user) if match == status_allowed: return True My understanding is that the argument "self" inside the method's calling arguments describes it as a child to the class. I've tried everything I can think of and can't find any related info online. Can someone please tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks

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  • How to reliably replace a library-defined error handler with my own?

    - by sharptooth
    On certain error cases ATL invokes AtlThrow() which is implemented as ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which in turn throws CAtlException. The latter is not very good - CAtlException is not even derived from std::exception and also we use our own exceptions hierarchy and now we will have to catch CAtlException separately here and there which is lots of extra code and error-prone. Looks like it is possible to replace ATL::AtlThrowImpl() with my own handler - define _ATL_CUSTOM_THROW and define AtlThrow() to be the custom handler before including atlbase.h - and ATL will call the custom handler. Not so easy. Some of ATL code is not in sources - it comes compiled as a library - either static or dynamic. We use the static - atls.lib. And... it is compiled in such way that it has ATL::ThrowImpl() inside and some code calling it. I used a static analysis tool - it clearly shows that there're paths on which the old default handler is called. To ensure I even tried to "reimplement" ATL::AtlThrowImpl() in my code. Now the linker says it sees two declarations of ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which I suppose confirms that there's another implementation that can be called by some code. How can I handle this? How do I replace the default handler completely and ensure that the default handler is never called?

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  • GDI+ double buffering in C++

    - by David Titarenco
    I haven't written anything with GDI for a while now (and never with GDI+), and I'm just working on a fun project, but for the life of me, I can't figure out how to double buffer GDI+ void DrawStuff(HWND hWnd) { HDC hdc; HDC hdcBuffer; PAINTSTRUCT ps; hdc = BeginPaint(hWnd, &ps); hdcBuffer = CreateCompatibleDC(hdc); Graphics graphics(hdc); graphics.Clear(Color::Black); // drawing stuff, i.e. bunnies: Image bunny(L"bunny.gif"); graphics.DrawImage(&bunny, 0, 0, bunny.GetWidth(), bunny.GetHeight()); BitBlt(hdc, 0,0, WIDTH , HEIGHT, hdcBuffer, 0,0, SRCCOPY); EndPaint(hWnd, &ps); } The above works (everything renders perfectly), but it flickers. If I change Graphics graphics(hdc); to Graphics graphics(hdcBuffer);, I see nothing (although I should be bitblt'ing the buffer-hWnd hdc at the bottom). My message pipeline is set up properly (WM_PAINT calls DrawStuff), and I'm forcing a WM_PAINT message every program loop by calling RedrawWindow(window, NULL, NULL, RDW_ERASE | RDW_INVALIDATE | RDW_UPDATENOW); I'm probably going about the wrong way to do this, any ideas? The MSDN documentation is cryptic at best.

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  • C# Inheritence: Choosing what repository based on type of inherited class

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been making a program that downloads information about movies from the internet. I have a base class Title, which represents all titles. Movie, Serie and Episode are inherited from that class. To save them to the database I have 2 services, MovieService and SerieService. They in turn call repositories, but that is not important here. I have a method Save(Title title) which I am not very happy with. I check for what type the title is and then call the correct service. I would like to perhaps write like this: ITitleService service = title.GetService(); title.GetSavedBy(service); So I have an abstract method on Title that returns an ITitleSaver, which will return the correct service for the instance. My question is how should I implement ITitleSaver? If I make it accept Title I will have to cast it to the correct type before calling the correct overload. Which will lead to having to deal with casting once again. What is the best approach to dealing with this? I would like to have the saving logic in the corresponding class.

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  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

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  • verilog / systemverilog -- What is the behavior of blocking statements across two always blocks?

    - by miles.sherman
    I am wondering about the behavior of the below code. There are two always blocks, one is combinational to calculate the next_state signal, the other is sequential which will perform some logic and determine whether or not to shutdown the system. It does this by setting the shutdown_now signal high and then calling state <= next_state. My question is if the conditions become true that the shutdown_now signal is set (during clock cycle n) in a blocking manner before the state <= next_state line, will the state during clock cycle n+1 be SHUTDOWN or RUNNING? In other words, does the shutdown_now = 1'b1 line block across both state machines since the state signal is dependent on it through the next_state determination? enum {IDLE, RUNNING, SHUTDOWN} state, next_state; logic shutdown_now; // State machine (combinational) always_comb begin case (state) IDLE: next_state <= RUNNING; RUNNING: next_state <= shutdown ? SHUTDOWN : RUNNING; SHUTDOWN: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; default: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; endcase end // Sequential Behavior always_ff @ (posedge clk) begin // Some code here if (/*some condition) begin shutdown_now = 1'b0; end else begin shutdown_now = 1'b1; end state <= next_state; end

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  • Question about WeakReferences

    - by Impz0r
    Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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  • Flex - Increase timeout on a PHP service function call

    - by Travesty3
    I'm using Flash Builder 4 Beta 2. I have it connecting to a PHP service. The way I set this up was using the wizard, so I didn't actually write the code to connect to it. The service looks like this: package services.flash { import mx.rpc.AsyncToken; import com.adobe.fiber.core.model_internal; import mx.rpc.AbstractOperation; import valueObjects.CustomDatatype8; import valueObjects.NewUsageData; import mx.collections.ItemResponder; import mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject; import mx.rpc.remoting.Operation; import com.adobe.fiber.services.wrapper.RemoteObjectServiceWrapper; import com.adobe.fiber.valueobjects.AvailablePropertyIterator; import com.adobe.serializers.utility.TypeUtility; [ExcludeClass] internal class _Super_FLASH extends RemoteObjectServiceWrapper { // Constructor public function _Super_FLASH() { // initialize service control _serviceControl = new RemoteObject(); var operations:Object = new Object(); var operation:Operation; operation = new Operation(null, "sendCommand"); operation.resultType = Object; operations["sendCommand"] = operation; ... } } One of the functions that I'm calling fetches users from a MySQL database. There are about 30,000 users right now. The service seems to timeout when fetching more than around 22,000 rows, I get the "Channel Disconnected before an acknowledgement was received" error. If I call the PHP script from a browser, it fetches them all with no problems at all, however. I have tried increasing the timeout in the PHP script (which didn't work), but obviously this isn't the problem since the browser is able to pull them up with no problems. Is there a way to increase the timeout of the PHP service in Flash Builder? I'm a bit of a noob when it comes to Flash, so please be descriptive. Thanks in advance!

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  • Files not waiting for each other

    - by Sunny
    I have two batch files as follows in which file2.bat is dependent on file1.bat's output: file1.bat @ECHO OFF setlocal enabledelayedexpansion SET "keystring1=" ( FOR /f "delims=" %%a IN ( Source.txt ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "Appprocess.exe" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 SET keystring1=%%a FOR %%b IN (App1 App2 App3 App4 App5 App6 ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "%%b" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 IF DEFINED keystring1 CALL ECHO(%%keystring1%% %%b&SET "keystring1=" )))>result.txt GOTO :EOF file2.bat @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion (for /f "tokens=1,2" %%a in (memory.txt) do ( for /f "tokens=5" %%c in ('find " %%a " ^< result.txt ') do echo %%c %%b ))> new.txt file1.bat usually takes 60 sec to complete its execution. In master.bat file i am calling above two files as: call file1.bat call file2.bat but file2.bat is not waiting for file1.bat to complete its execution. Even , i tried to call file2.bat within file1.bat as below but still its not waiting for file1.bat to get completed: @ECHO OFF setlocal enabledelayedexpansion SET "keystring1=" ( FOR /f "delims=" %%a IN ( Source.txt ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "HsvDataSource.exe" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 SET keystring1=%%a FOR %%b IN (EUHFMPROD USHFMPROD TL2TEST GSHFMPROD TL2PROD GSARCH1213 TL2FY13) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "%%b" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 IF DEFINED keystring1 CALL ECHO(%%keystring1%% %%b&SET "keystring1=" )))>file2.txt GOTO :EOF call file1.bat I also tried below start option, but no effect.: start file1.bat /wait call file2.bat Not getting ..why its happening..?

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  • How to get HTTP status code in HTTPService fault handler

    - by Ankur
    I am calling a server method through HTTPService from client side. The server is a RestFul web service and it might respond with one of many HTTP error codes (say, 400 for one error, 404 for another and 409 for yet another). I have been trying to find out the way to determine what was the exact error code sent by the server. I have walked teh entire object tree for the FaultEvent populated in my fault handler, but no where does it tell me the error code. Is this missing functionality in Flex? My code looks like this: The HTTP Service declaration: <mx:HTTPService id="myServerCall" url="myService" method="GET" resultFormat="e4x" result="myServerCallCallBack(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> <mx:request> <action>myServerCall</action> <docId>{m_sDocId}</docId> </mx:request> </mx:HTTPService> My fault handler code is like so: private function faultHandler(event : FaultEvent):void { Alert.show(event.statusCode.toString() + " / " + event.fault.message.toString()); }

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  • JSF Managed Property question

    - by kidvid
    I have a search page that I'll called "Parent." The search page references a country lookup page that I'll call "Child." When the user selects a country on Child's page and clicks on OK, I set the country back into the parent page. I do this by calling a method on the Parent page called "UpdateCountryCodeWithLookupValue(Child child)" When the user clicks on OK on the Child page, that method gets called in the parent, wherein it'll get the selected country code out of the Child page and set it into a text entry field. My question has to do with the proper way to set up this relationship in the faces config file. The way I have it now is that the child has a managed property for the parent. I.e., in my Child page I defined a method called "SetParent(Parent parent)". Is there any drawback to doing it this way? Would it be preferable to set the managed property so that the Child page class is a property of the parent instead of vice-versa? Let's say that I could have two Parent (search) pages open at the same time, and each of these was able to open the Child page (country code lookup). What would be the ramification for that circumstance in terms of the managed property in the faces config file? Thanks, Adrian

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  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

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  • should std::auto_ptr<>::operator = reset / deallocate its existing pointee ?

    - by afriza
    I read here about std::auto_ptr<::operator= Notice however that the left-hand side object is not automatically deallocated when it already points to some object. You can explicitly do this by calling member function reset before assigning it a new value. However, when I read the source code for header file C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\ce\include\memory template<class _Other> auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Other>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Ty>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr_ref<_Ty> _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right._Ref (assume pointer) _Ty **_Pptr = (_Ty **)_Right._Ref; _Ty *_Ptr = *_Pptr; *_Pptr = 0; // release old reset(_Ptr); // set new return (*this); } What is the correct/standard behavior? How do other STL implementations behave?

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  • Colorbox with bxslider not working

    - by Bill K
    Hello I am trying to use bxslider with colorbox. My implementation of bxslider is like an example listed here. The difference is that I want only the pagers to be shown. Also when the user clicks one pager I want colorbox to open and have next and previous buttons. The problem is that I cant group the images with colorbox and next and previous button is not shown! The following code uses the rel option but with this way colorbox doesnt event start. What I have tried till now is: HTML <div class="slider_mini" style="position:relative;bottom:0px;"> <div id="bx-pager"> <a data-slide-index="0" href="image.jpg" class="imgz"><img style="width:130px;height:104px;" src="image.jpg"/></a> <a data-slide-index="1" href="image2.jpg" class="imgz"><img style="width:130px;height:104px;" src="image2.jpg"/></a> <a data-slide-index="2" href="image3.jpg" class="imgz"><img style="width:130px;height:104px;" src="image3.jpg"/></a> </div> </div> SCRIPT <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.imgz').colorbox({rel:'imgz'}); $('.bxslider.two').bxSlider({ pagerCustom: '#bx-pager' }); $('#bx-pager').bxSlider({ slideWidth: 130, minSlides: 2, maxSlides: 3, moveSlides: 1, slideMargin: 10 }); }); </script> Not working Fiddle. Feedback: The problem was in live website that I was calling colorbox before bxslider. I put the call after bxslider's and it works. Thank you.

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • How to avoid game rendering component circular references?

    - by CodexArcanum
    I'm working on a simple game design, and I wanted to break up my game objects into more reusable components. But I'm getting stuck on how exactly to implement the design I have in mind. Here's an example: I have a Logger object, whose job is simply to store a list of messages and render them to screen. You know, logging. Originally the Logger just held the list, and the game loop rendered it's contents. Then I moved the rendering logic into the Logger.Draw() method, and now I want to move it further into a LoggerRenderer object. In effect, I want to have the game loop call RenderAll, which will then call Logger.Render, which will in turn call the LoggerRenderer.Render and finally output the text. So the Logger needs to contain a Renderer object, but the Renderer needs access to the Logger's state (the message queue) in order to render. How do I resolve that? Should I be passing in the message queue and other state information explicitly to the Render method? Or should the game loop be calling the Renderer directly and it links back to the logger, but the RenderAll method never actually sees the logger object itself? This feels kind of like Command pattern, but I'm botching it up terribly.

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