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  • Parallel version of loop not faster than serial version

    - by Il-Bhima
    I'm writing a program in C++ to perform a simulation of particular system. For each timestep, the biggest part of the execution is taking up by a single loop. Fortunately this is embarassingly parallel, so I decided to use Boost Threads to parallelize it (I'm running on a 2 core machine). I would expect at speedup close to 2 times the serial version, since there is no locking. However I am finding that there is no speedup at all. I implemented the parallel version of the loop as follows: Wake up the two threads (they are blocked on a barrier). Each thread then performs the following: Atomically fetch and increment a global counter. Retrieve the particle with that index. Perform the computation on that particle, storing the result in a separate array Wait on a job finished barrier The main thread waits on the job finished barrier. I used this approach since it should provide good load balancing (since each computation may take differing amounts of time). I am really curious as to what could possibly cause this slowdown. I always read that atomic variables are fast, but now I'm starting to wonder whether they have their performance costs. If anybody has some ideas what to look for or any hints I would really appreciate it. I've been bashing my head on it for a week, and profiling has not revealed much.

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  • C++ Exception Handling

    - by user1413793
    So I was writing some code and I noticed that apart from syntactical, type, and other compile-time errors, C++ does not throw any other exceptions. So I decided to test this out with a very trivial program: #include<iostream> int main() { std::count<<5/0<<std::endl; return 1 } When I compiled it using g++, g++ gave me a warning saying I was dividing by 0. But it still compiled the code. Then when I ran it, it printed some really large arbitrary number. When I want to know is, how does C++ deal with exceptions? Integer division by 0 should be a very trivial example of when an exception should be thrown and the program should terminate. Do I have to essentially enclose my entire program in a huge try block and then catch certain exceptions? I know in Python when an exception is thrown, the program will immediately terminate and print out the error. What does C++ do? Are there even runtime exceptions which stop execution and kill the program?

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  • Parse JSON into a ListView friendly output

    - by Thomas McDonald
    So I have this JSON, which then my activity retrieves to a string: {"popular": {"authors_last_month": [ { "url":"http://activeden.net/user/OXYLUS", "item":"OXYLUS", "sales":"1148", "image":"http://s3.envato.com/files/15599.jpg" }, { "url":"http://activeden.net/user/digitalscience", "item":"digitalscience", "sales":"681", "image":"http://s3.envato.com/files/232005.jpg" } { ... } ], "items_last_week": [ { "cost":"4.00", "thumbnail":"http://s3.envato.com/files/227943.jpg", "url":"http://activeden.net/item/christmas-decoration-balls/75682", "sales":"43", "item":"Christmas Decoration Balls", "rating":"3", "id":"75682" }, { "cost":"30.00", "thumbnail":"http://s3.envato.com/files/226221.jpg", "url":"http://activeden.net/item/xml-flip-book-as3/63869", "sales":"27", "item":"XML Flip Book / AS3", "rating":"5", "id":"63869" }, { ... }], "items_last_three_months": [ { "cost":"5.00", "thumbnail":"http://s3.envato.com/files/195638.jpg", "url":"http://activeden.net/item/image-logo-shiner-effect/55085", "sales":"641", "item":"image logo shiner effect", "rating":"5", "id":"55085" }, { "cost":"15.00", "thumbnail":"http://s3.envato.com/files/180749.png", "url":"http://activeden.net/item/banner-rotator-with-auto-delay-time/22243", "sales":"533", "item":"BANNER ROTATOR with Auto Delay Time", "rating":"5", "id":"22243"}, { ... }] } } It can be accessed here as well, although it because it's quite a long string, I've trimmed the above down to display what is needed. Basically, I want to be able to access the items from "items_last_week" and create a list of them - originally my plan was to have the 'thumbnail' on the left with the 'item' next to it, but from playing around with the SDK today it appears too difficult or impossible to achieve this, so I would be more than happy with just having the 'item' data from 'items_last_week' in the list. Coming from php I'm struggling to use any of the JSON libraries which are available to Java, as it appears to be much more than a line of code which I will need to deserialize (I think that's the right word) the JSON, and they all appear to require some form of additional class, apart from the JSONArray/JSONObject script I have which doesn't like the fact that items_last_week is nested (again, I think that's the JSON terminology) and takes an awful long time to run on the Android emulator. So, in effect, I need a (preferably simple) way to pass the items_last_week data to a ListView. I understand I will need a custom adapter which I can probably get my head around but I cannot understand, no matter how much of the day I've just spent trying to figure it out, how to access certain parts of a JSON string..

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  • How to identify the type of socket data?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, May be i am not able to express my doubt properly in this question but still i will try. Basically i created a simple socket based chat program and everything works fine. But i think i have made many patches in it from the design point of view. I have used ObjectInputStream and ObjectOutputStreams in my program. The question i want to ask is how do i identify the different type of data that i send across the network? say if it is simple String type object i directly add to List<String> chatMessages. Now if want to ban certain users i created an another class :- public class User{ private String name; private String id; //getters and setters } This User class means no importance to me till now but i only created it to properly identify the action. Thus if i receive an instanceOf User i can be sure that some user is to be banned. That way i dont have to hardcode strings. I mean first i thought of sending something like "Banned User :" + userName and then i used to check if string startsWith "Banned User :" then i take some action :p. I've created a User class but it means no importance to me in my program. I want to know whether directly sending strings is good way or create a class for every action that is good. If i am not clear please let me know. If i have hundreds of action do i have to create hundreds of classes so i can check via instanceOf? Say now if i plan to create a BUZZ like facility that is available in yahoo messenger. Should i again create an another class named BUZZ? so it can be identified easily?

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  • Wondering where to begin

    - by Cat
    Hello all. After being interested for years and years (and years), I have finally decided to start learning how to create software and web applications. Base on recommendations, I have started with learning the basics of web design first (which I am almost done with) and then will move on to the meat of my process: learning the languages. Problem is, I don't know where to start :/ PHP, Ruby, Perl...and where would SQL, JavaScript and .NET fit into the mix? I am assuming they build on each other/play off of each other somewhat so following some sort of 'order' will make the process more logical and digestible. You're probably thinking, "Just go to school for computer engineering, duh!" But I already have a degree and don't plan on going back to school. I believe I have an adequate aptitude for this sort of thing, and although it will be challenging, with the support of the community I know I can do it on my own. Thank in advance everyone and I am very sorry for the length. I look forward to hearing what all you have to say. Warm Regards, Cat

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  • Implementing eval and load functions inside a scripting engine with Flex and Bison.

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hy guys, i'm developing a scripting engine with flex and bison and now i'm implementing the eval and load functions for this language. Just to give you an example, the syntax is like : import std.*; load( "some_script.hy" ); eval( "foo = 123;" ); println( foo ); So, in my lexer i've implemented the function : void hyb_parse_string( const char *str ){ extern int yyparse(void); YY_BUFFER_STATE prev, next; /* * Save current buffer. */ prev = YY_CURRENT_BUFFER; /* * yy_scan_string will call yy_switch_to_buffer. */ next = yy_scan_string( str ); /* * Do actual parsing (yyparse calls yylex). */ yyparse(); /* * Restore previous buffer. */ yy_switch_to_buffer(prev); } But it does not seem to work. Well, it does but when the string (loaded from a file or directly evaluated) is finished, i get a sigsegv : Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0xb7f2b801 in yylex () at src/lexer.cpp:1658 1658 if ( YY_CURRENT_BUFFER_LVALUE->yy_buffer_status == YY_BUFFER_NEW ) As you may notice, the sigsegv is generated by the flex/bison code, not mine ... any hints, or at least any example on how to implement those kind of functions? PS: I've succesfully implemented the include directive, but i need eval and load to work not at parsing time but execution time (kind of PHP's include/require directives).

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  • Working with complex objects in Prevayler commands

    - by alexantd
    The demos included in the Prevayler distribution show how to pass in a couple strings (or something simple like that) into a command constructor in order to create or update an object. The problem is that I have an object called MyObject that has a lot of fields. If I had to pass all of them into the CreateMyObject command manually, it would be a pain. So an alternative I thought of is to pass my business object itself into the command, but to hang onto a clone of it (keeping in mind that I can't store the BO directly in the command). Of course after executing this command, I would need to make sure to dispose of the original copy that I passed in. public class CreateMyObject implements TransactionWithQuery { private MyObject object; public CreateMyObject(MyObject business_obj) { this.object = (MyObject) business_obj.clone(); } public Object executeAndQuery(...) throws Exception { ... } } The Prevayler wiki says: Transactions can't carry direct object references (pointers) to business objects. This has become known as the baptism problem because it's a common beginner pitfall. Direct object references don't work because once a transaction has been serialized to the journal and then deserialized for execution its object references no longer refer to the intended objects - - any objects they may have referred to at first will have been copied by the serialization process! Therefore, a transaction must carry some kind of string or numeric identifiers for any objects it wants to refer to, and it must look up the objects when it is executed. I think by cloning the passed-in object I will be getting around the "direct object pointer" problem, but I still don't know whether or not this is a good idea...

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  • setting default value of superglobal

    - by Prasoon Saurav
    I have been working on a Timesheet Management website. I have my home page as index.php //index.php <?php session_start(); if($_SESSION['logged']=='set') { $x=$_SESSION['username']; echo '<div align="right">'; echo 'Welcome ' .$x.'<br/>'; echo'<a href="logout.php" class="links">&nbsp;<b><u>Logout</u></b></a>' ; } else if($_SESSION['logged']='unset') { echo'<form id="searchform" method="post" action="processing.php"> <div> <div align="right"> Username&nbsp;<input type="text" name="username" id="s" size="15" value="" /> &nbsp;Password&nbsp;<input type="password" name="pass" id="s" size="15" value="" /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="submit" /> </div> <br /> </div> </form> '; } ?> The problem I am facing is that during the first run of this script I get an error Notice: Undefined index: logged in C:\wamp\www\ps\index.php but after refreshing the page the error vanishes. How can I correct this problem? logged is a variable which helps determine whether the user is logged in or not. When the user is logged in $_SESSION['logged'] is set, otherwise unset. I want the default value of $_SESSION['logged'] to be unset prior to the execution of the script. How can I solve this problem?

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  • Grails or Play! for an ex-RoR developer ?

    - by Kedare
    Hello, I plan to begin learning a Java web framework (I love the Java API), I already used Rails and Django. I want something close to Java, but without all the complexity of J2EE. I've found 2 framework that could be good for me : Grails : Grails looks great, it use Groovy that is better than Java for web application (I think..), but it's slower, that use pure-java components (Hibernate, Strut, Spring), it looks pretty simple to deploy (send .war and it's ok !), the GSP is great ! It's a bit harder to debug (need to restart the server at each modification, and the stacktrace is a mix of Java and Groovy stack that is not always understandable..) Play! : This framework also looks great, it's faster than Grails (It's use directly Java), but I don't really like how it use Java, it modify the source code to transform the properties call as setXXX/getXXX, I'm not kind of that... The framework also have caching function that Grails don't (alreary) has. I don't really like the Template Engine. It's also easer to debug (no need to restart the server, and the stacktrace is clear) What do you recommend for ? I am looking for something easy to learn (I used a lot ruby and java, but a little bit java (But I love the Java API)), that is full featured (That's no a problem with all the Java Library availables, but if it's bundle and integrated I prefer), that scale and that is not too slow (faster than ruby), and if possible I would want something with a decent community to easily find support and answer to my questions ;) PS: No JRuby on Rails Thank you !

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • Changing the indexing on existing table in SQL Server 2000

    - by Raj
    Guys, Here is the scenario: SQL Server 2000 (8.0.2055) Table currently has 478 million rows of data. The Primary Key column is an INT with IDENTITY. There is an Unique Constraint imposed on two other columns with a Non-Clustered Index. This is a vendor application and we are only responsible for maintaining the DB. Now the vendor has recommended doing the following "to improve performance" Drop the PK and Clustered Index Drop the non-clustered index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT Recreate the PK, with a NON-CLUSTERED index Create a CLUSTERED index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT I am not convinced that this is the right thing to do. I have a number of concerns. By dropping the PK and indexes, you will be creating a heap with 478 million rows of data. Then creating a CLUSTERED INDEX on two columns would be a really mammoth task. Would creating another table with the same structure and new indexing scheme and then copying the data over, dropping the old table and renaming the new one be a better approach? I am also not sure how the stored procs will react. Will they continue using the cached execution plan, considering that they are not being explicitly recompiled. I am simply not able to understand what kind of "performance improvement" this change will provide. I think that this will actually have the reverse effect. All thoughts welcome. Thanks in advance, Raj

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  • Appropriate SQL Server Permissions for Developers

    - by BJ Safdie
    After a couple of Google searches and a quick look at questions here, I cannot seem to find what I thought would be a cookbook answer for SQL Server permissions. As I often see in small shops, most developers here were using an admin account for SQL Server while developing. I want to set up roles and permissions that I can assign to developers so that we can get our jobs done, but also do so with the minimum permissions required. Can anyone offer advice on what SQL Server permissions to assign? Components: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2008 SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2008 Platforms: Production Staging/QA Development/Integration We are running "Mixed Mode" security because of some legacy apps and networks, but are moving to Windows Auth. I am not sure if that really affects the role set up. I plan to set up access for Developers to Prod and Staging/QA DBs as Read-Only. However, I still want developers to retain the ability to run Profiling. We need Deployment accounts with higher privilege levels. We are currently trying to figure out exactly what privileges we need for SSIS package deployments. Within the Development Server, Developers need broad privileges. However, I am not sure that just making them all admins is really the best choice. It's hard to believe that no one has published a decent example script that sets up these kinds of roles with a good set of appropriate permissions for developers and deployers. We can probably figure this all out by locking things down and then adding permissions as we discover the need, but that will be way too big a PITA for everyone. Can anyone point me to, or provide, a good exemplar for permissions for these kinds of roles on these kinds of platforms?

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  • Delphi trace tool

    - by Max
    I was wondering if there's a tool or a component for Delphi that can trace method execution line by line and create a log file. With this kind of tool it is easy to compare how method performs on two sets of input data by comparing two log files. EDIT: Let's say there is a function 10: function MyFunction(aInput: Integer): Integer; 11: begin 12: if aInput 10 then 13: Result := 10 14: else 15: Result := 0; 16: end; I'm looking for a tool that would give the log which whould be similar to the following: When aInput parameter is 1: Line 10: 'function MyFunction(aInput: Integer): Integer;' Line 11: 'begin' Line 12: 'if aInput 10 then' Line 15: 'Result := 0;' Line 16: 'end;' and when aInput parameter is 11: Line 10: 'function MyFunction(aInput: Integer): Integer;' Line 11: 'begin' Line 12: 'if aInput 10 then' Line 13: 'Result := 10;' Line 16: 'end;' The only information that should be required by the tool is the function name. It's like stepping through the method under debugger, but in an automatic manner with logging every line of code.

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  • When does an ARM7 processor increase its PC register?

    - by Summer_More_More_Tea
    Hi everyone: I'm thinking about this question for a time: when does an ARM7(with 3 pipelines) processor increase its PC register. I originally thought that after an instruction has been executed, the processor first check is there any exception in the last execution, then increase PC by 2 or 4 depending on current state. If an exception occur, ARM7 will change its running mode, store PC in the LR of current mode and begin to process current exception without modifying the PC register. But it make no sense when analyzing returning instructions. I can not work out why PC will be assigned LR when returning from an undefined-instruction-exception while LR-4 from prefetch-abort-exception, don't both of these exceptions happened at the decoding state? What's more, according to my textbook, PC will always be assigned LR-4 when returning from prefetch-abort-exception no matter what state the processor is(ARM or Thumb) before exception occurs. However, I think PC should be assigned LR-2 if the original state is Thumb, since a Thumb-instruction is 2 bytes long instead of 4 bytes which an ARM-instruction holds, and we just wanna roll-back an instruction in current state. Is there any flaws in my reasoning or something wrong with the textbook. Seems a long question. I really hope anyone can help me get the right answer. Thanks in advance.

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  • Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

    - by jimbokun
    The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

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  • How can I provide users with the functionality of the DBUnit DatabaseOperation methods from a web in

    - by reckoner
    I am currently updating a java-based web application which allows database developers to create stored procedure regression test suites for database testing. Currently, for test setup, execution and clean-up stages, the user is provided with text boxes where they are able to enter SQL code which is executed by the isql command. I would like to extend the application to use DB Unit’s DatabaseOperation methods to provide more ways to setup the state of the database than just SQL statements. The main reason for using Db Unit rather than just SQL statements is to be able to create and store xml and xls DataSets on a server where they can be associated with their test cases and used for data setup. My question is: How can I provide users with the functionality of the DBUnit DatabaseOperation methods from a web interface? I have considered: Creating a simple programming language and a parser to read some simple syntax involving the DB Unit method names which accept a parameter being the file location to an xml or xls DataSet. I was thinking of allowing the user to register the files they need with the web app which would catalogue them and provide each file with an identifier which could passed as a parameter to the methods in this simple programming language. Creating an XML DTD which provides the user with the ability to specify operations and parameters. If I went this approach, how can I execute the methods and their parameters that I parse from the XML document? Creating a table in the database which stores the method and a FK relation to a catalogued DataSet file, however I don’t think this would be good solution due to the fact that data entry would be tedious. Thanks for your help.

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  • Class initialization and synchronized class method

    - by nybon
    Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • net send command program debugging in C#

    - by riad
    Dear all, I write a program to execute and send msg using windows net send command.Its working fine for single receptor.But the problem happen when i want to send message in many receptors. i use a for loop to take receptor name from a list box. Here all message go to the first receptor.The problem happen on process execution.So far i guess the process is not clear or dead on the time. Can any body guide me how i can send the msg to multiple users at a time? my code below: string sendingMessage = messageRichTextBox.Text; string[] recepentAddressArray = new string[recepentAddressListBox.Items.Count]; for (int j = 0; j < recepentAddressListBox.Items.Count; j++) // Getting address from list box { recepentAddressArray[j] = recepentAddressListBox.Items[j].ToString(); string recepantAddress = recepentAddressArray[j]; try { string strLine = "net send " + recepantAddress + " " + sendingMessage + " >C:netsend.log"; FileStream fs = new FileStream("c:netsend.bat", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write); StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(fs); streamWriter.BaseStream.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.End); streamWriter.Write(strLine); streamWriter.Flush(); streamWriter.Close(); fs.Close(); Process p = new Process(); p.StartInfo.FileName = "C:netsend.bat"; p.StartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; p.Start(); p.WaitForExit(); p.Close(); FileStream fsOutput = new FileStream("C:netsend.log", FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(fsOutput); reader.BaseStream.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); string strOut = reader.ReadLine(); reader.Close(); fsOutput.Close(); } catch (Exception) { MessageBox.Show("ERROR"); } }

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  • Allow paste in worksheet without overwriting locked cells

    - by jjeaton
    I have a protected worksheet that users would like to copy and paste into. I have no control over the workbook they are copying from. The protected worksheet has some rows that are available for data entry, and other rows that are locked and greyed out to the user. The users would like to be able to paste over the top of the entire worksheet from another random workbook and have all the cells available for data entry filled in, while the locked cells are undisturbed. In the current state, the user gets an error when they try to paste, because it cannot paste over the locked cells. Example: Worksheet 1: Act1 100 100 100 Act2 100 100 100 Act3 100 100 100 Worksheet 2: (The second row is locked) Act1 300 300 300 Act2 200 200 200 Act3 100 100 100 After copying/pasting Worksheet 2 should look like this: Act1 100 100 100 Act2 200 200 200 Act3 100 100 100 The values from worksheet 1 are populated and the locked rows are undisturbed. I've been thinking along the lines of having a hook where on paste, the locked cells are unlocked so that the paste can happen, and then are reverted to their original values and relocked. Is there some way I can loop through the cells in the clipboard and only paste cells where the target isn't locked? It is preferable to not create a separate button for paste, so there is less impact on the users, but if that's the only way, I'm not opposed to it. Currently, I plan on grouping the locked rows together, so that the data entry cells are contiguous, but then the accounts will be out of order, which is not preferred.

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  • Mysql and PHP - Reading multiple insert queries from a file and executing at runtime

    - by SpikETidE
    Hi everyone... I am trying out a back-up and restore system. Basically, what i try to do is, when creating the back up i make a file which looks like DELETE FROM bank_account; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:05');INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('2', 'IB7391', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '3', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:32'); and so on and so forth. When i restore the db i just read the query from the file, save it to a string and then execute it over the DB using mysql_query(); The problem is, when i run the query through mysql_query(), the execution stops after the delete query with the error 'Error in syntax near '; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2',' at line 1. But when i run the queries directly over the Db, using phpmyadmin it executes without any errors. As far as i can see, i can't notice any syntax error in the query. Can anyone point out where there might be a glitch...? Thanks and regards....

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  • How do I manage dependencies for automated builds on my build server?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I'm trying to implement continuous integration into our day to day workings. In our team, we're moving from just building our code in Visual Studio on our workstations and deploying, to using MSBuild.exe and automating on our build server (which is Jenkins) without the use of Visual Studio. We have external dependencies to references such as Automap in our projects. Because the automap (for example) dll isn't on the build server, the msbuild execution fails, for obvious reasons. There are other dll's which I need to be part of the build, I'm just using automap as an example. So what's the best way to get any dependencies onto the build server as part of the automated build? I've seen references to using a 'lib' folder, but I don't really understand where I should be putting it (in my project, filesystem, SVN ...?), and how the build server will get to it. I've also read that NuGet can do something with dependencies, but my build server isn't connected to the internet, and I don't understand how I can get my build to pull a NuGet package I may have created, and how it works together. Edit: I'm using subversion and we cannot use TeamCity as we would have to buy it and there's zero chance of funding.

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  • Mysql select - improve performance

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated.

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  • Dynamic expression tree how to

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hello everybody! Implemented a generic repository with several Methods. One of those is this: public IEnumerable<T> Find(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.Where(where); } Given to be it is easy to call this like this: Expression<Func<Culture, bool>> whereClause = c => c.CultureId > 4 ; return cultureRepository.Find(whereClause).AsQueryable(); But now i see (realize) that this kind of quering is "limiting only to one criteria". What i would like to do is this: in the above example c is of type Culture. Culture has several properties like CultureId, Name, Displayname,... How would i express the following: CultureId 4 and Name.contains('de') and in another execution Name.contains('us') and Displayname.contains('ca') and .... Those queries should be created dynamically. I had a look in Expression trees (as i thought this to be a solution to my problem - btw i never used them before) but i cannot find anything which points to my requirement. How can this be costructed? Thanks in advance

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  • Does adding to a method group count as using a variable?

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following code example taken from the code of a Form: protected void SomeMethod() { SomeOtherMethod(this.OnPaint); } private void SomeOtherMethod(Action<PaintEventArgs> onPaint) { onPaint += MyPaint; } protected void MyPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { // paint some stuff } The second method (SomeOtherMethod) has resharper complaining at me. It says of onPaint that "Value assigned is not used in any execution path". To my mind it was used because I added a method to the list of methods called when a paint was done. But usually when resharper tells me something like this it is because I am not understanding some part of C#. Like maybe when the param goes out of goes out of scope the item I added to the list gets removed (or something like that). I thought I would ask here to see if any one knows what resharper is trying to tell me. (Side Note: I usually just override OnPaint. But I am trying to get OnPaint to call a method in another class. I don't want to expose that method publicly so I thought I would pass in the OnPaint group and add to it.)

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  • XMLHttpRequest() and Google Analytics Tracking

    - by sjw
    I have implemented an XMLHttpRequest() call to a standalone html page which simply has an html, title & body tag which Google Analytics Tracking code. I want to track when someone makes a request to display information (i.e. phone number) to try and understand what portion of people look at my directory versus obtaining a phone number to make a call. It is very simple code: var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhReq.open("GET", "/registerPhoneClick.htm?id=" + id, false); xhReq.send(null); var serverResponse = xhReq.responseText Yet I cannot see the "hit" in Analytics... Has anyone had this issue? All the analytics tracking code does is call: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-XXXXXXX"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> So realistically, my XmlHTTPRequest() calls an htm file within which a script is execute to make an outbound call to Google Analytics. Is there any reason why an XmlHTTPRequest() would not execute this? Does an XmlHTTPRequest() still bring the code to the client before execution? Help Please

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