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VirtualBox limits size of .js file, that can be included from guest additions folder?

- by c69

This question might belong to SuperUser, but i'll try to ask it here anyway, because i believe, some web developers might encountered this weird behavior. When testing a site for IE8/winXP compatibility on VirtualBox i run into weird issue of $ is undefined, which is caused by jQuery (and jQuery UI) being not included, when referenced by relative path, which resolves to file:/// url. Seemingly because their size was too big (above 200KB). Simply replacing links to those 2 big files to http:// ones solved the issue for me. But here is the question: why did this happen ? is it a misconfiguration ? a bug ? a known design decision ? Details: VirtualBox 4.1.8 host os: win7 64bit, guest os: xp sp3 32 bit guest additions installed, page was launched from VB shared folder the bug was manifesting itself in all browsers (even in opera, which ignores ie security settings, afaik) ie configuration is default script was included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/libs/jquery/jquery-1.7.2.js"> exact size limit was not deducted.

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Performance impact when using XML columns in a table with MS SQL 2008

- by Sam Dahan

I am using a simple table with 6 columns, 3 of which are of XML type, not schema-constrained. When the table reaches a size around 120,000 or 150,000 rows, I see a dramatic performance cost in doing any query in the table. For comparison, I have another table, which grows in size at about the same rate, but only contain scalar types (int, datetime, a few float columns). That table performs perfectly fine even after 200,000 rows. And by the way, I am not using XQuery on the xml columns, i am only using regular SQL query statements. Some specifics: both tables contain a DateTime field called SampleTime. a statement like (it's in a stored procedure but I show you the actual statement) SELECT MAX(sampleTime) SampleTime FROM dbo.MyRecords WHERE PlacementID=@somenumber takes 0 seconds on the table without xml columns, and anything from 13 to 20 seconds on the table with XML columns. That depends on which drive I set my database on. At the moment it sits on a different spindle (not C:) and it takes 13 seconds. Has anyone seen this behavior before, or have any hint at what I am doing wrong? I tried this with SQL 2008 EXPRESS and the full-blown SQL Server 2008, that made no difference. Oh, one last detail: I am doing this from a C# application, .NET 3.5, using SqlConnection, SqlReader, etc.. I'd appreciate some insight into that, thanks! Sam

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__toString magic and type coercion

- by TomcatExodus

I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

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Error in Python's os.walk?

- by Mike Caron

The os.walk documentation (http://docs.python.org/library/os.html? highlight=os.walk#os.walk), says I can skip traversing unwanted directories by removing them from the dir list. The explicit example from the docs: import os from os.path import join, getsize for root, dirs, files in os.walk('python/Lib/email'): print root, "consumes", print sum(getsize(join(root, name)) for name in files), print "bytes in", len(files), "non-directory files" if 'CVS' in dirs: dirs.remove('CVS') # don't visit CVS directories I see different behavior (using ActivePython 2.6.2). Namely for the code: >>> for root,dirs,files in os.walk(baseline): ... if root.endswith(baseline): ... for d in dirs: ... print "DIR: %s" % d ... if not d.startswith("keep_"): ... print "Removing %s\\%s" % (root,d) ... dirs.remove(d) ... ... print "ROOT: %s" % root ... I get the output: DIR: two Removing: two DIR: thr33 Removing: thr33 DIR: keep_me DIR: keep_me_too DIR: keep_all_of_us ROOT: \\mach\dirs ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah\Extracted ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah2\Extracted\Stuff_1 ... WTF? Why wasn't \\mach\dirs\ONE removed? It clearly doesn't start with "keep_".

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How to prevent chrome from injecting content to webpage

- by Nazariy

Recently I have discovered that my application is misbehaving in Google Chrome. On a page with a form, after it was submitted, my application reloads page using simple method like this: header('Location: ' . $url); after that, page is rendered incorrectly and this content is injected to DOM <div id="sbi_camera_button" class="sbi_search" style="left: 0px; top: 0px; position: absolute; width: 29px; height: 27px; border: none; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; z-index: 2147483647; display: none; "></div> After manual page refresh everything works as expected. I'm not sure what causing this behavior, as I'm working in closed local environment and application works fine in Firefox. My application using following libraries (hosted locally): jQuery v1.7.1 jQuery UI 1.8.16 Bootstrap.js v 2.1.1 Can someone suggest me what can possibly cause this issue?

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Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

- by Andrew

I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

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Is a control's OnInit called even when attaching it during parent's OnPreRender?

- by Xerion

My original understanding was that the asp.net page lifecycle is run once for all pages and controls under normal circumstances. When I attached a control during a container's OnPreRender, I encountered a situation where the control's OnInit was not called. OK, I considered that a bug in my code and fixed as such, by attaching the control earlier. But just today, I encountered a situation where OnInit for a control seems to be called after the normal OnInit has been done for everyone else. See stack below. It seems that during the page's PreRender, the control's OnInit is called as it is being dynamically added. So I just want to confirm exactly what ASP.NET's behavior is? Does it actually keep track of the stage of each control's lifecycle, and upon adding a new control, it will run from the very beginning? [HttpException (0x80004005): The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases.] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +8678663 MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.Initialize() MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.OnInit(EventArgs e) System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.AddedControl(Control control, Int32 index) +198 System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +80 MyCompany.Web.Controls.PageHeader.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) in System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +80 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842

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Visibility of reintroduced constructor

- by avenmore

I have reintroduced the form constructor in a base form, but if I override the original constructor in a descendant form, the reintroduced constructor is no longer visible. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; constructor TfrmA.Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); begin FWndParent := AWndParent; inherited Create(AOwner); end; type TfrmB = class(TfrmA) private public end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; end; constructor TfrmC.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited Create(AOwner); end; When creating: frmA := TfrmA.Create(nil, 0); frmB := TfrmB.Create(nil, 0); frmC := TfrmC.Create(nil, 0); // Compiler error My work-around is to override the reintroduced constructor or to declare the original constructor overloaded, but I'd like to understand the reason for this behavior. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); overload; override; constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); override; end;

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Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

- by Lily

I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

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Inconsistent table width when hideing/showing a set of columns

- by Salman A. Kagzi

I have got a an HTML table of around 40+ columns. To make this table fit in the screen and have the data in a re presentable format we have section in this table. i.e. there are some column that are always visible and the remainder a made visible when s specific radio button (describing a section) is selected. Each radio button is associated to different number of columns. We show/hide a column by setting/removing "display:none" style in all the cell under that column. This all works Just fine. Now the real problem is with the width of the columns in this table. I cant use fixed with with pixel settings. I have tried using the percentage setting by giving 50% to the always visible part and rest 50% is divided between the column in a section. But I am unable to get a fixed behavior i.e. the size of the table columns across IE & FF. Some columns are just right while some are really huge. How can I get the table to give consistent column width across browsers?

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how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

- by praksant

Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

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How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

- by Ned Batchelder

Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

- by Jason

I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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How to know why an animation stutters?

- by Patrick Klug

I have a few fairly simple animations (moving text around, moving ellipses etc.) and running in full screen (1920x1080 minus the task bar) the WPF Performance Suite reports a good framerate around 50 FPS throughout the animation. Dirty Rect Addition is somewhere around 300 rect/s, the SW frames are between 0 and 4 and the HW frames are between 3 and 5. Video memory usage is around 80 MB. Problem is that the animations stutters every other half second. My machine is a new Dell laptop XPS 15 with the GeForce GT 435 with 2GB memory. - The drivers are up to date. (The same behavior occurs on my netbook (in full screen) as well so I don't think it is hardware related.) If I make the window smaller the stutter goes away. The stutter occurs with the simplest of animations - even with just a couple of elements but adding more elements certainly makes it more noticeable. How can I find out what causes this stutter? When I think of it, I have not actually seen any WPF animations which run smoothly in full screen. Is this even possible?

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Performance difference in for loop condition?

- by CSharperWithJava

Hello all, I have a simple question that I am posing mostly for my curiousity. What are the differences between these two lines of code? (in C++) for(int i = 0; i < N, N > 0; i++) for(int i = 0; i < N && N > 0; i++) The selection of the conditions is completely arbitrary, I'm just interested in the differences between , and &&. I'm not a beginner to coding by any means, but I've never bothered with the comma operator. Are there performance/behavior differences or is it purely aesthetic? One last note, I know there are bigger performance fish to fry than a conditional operator, but I'm just curious. Indulge me. Edit Thanks for your answers. It turns out the code that prompted this question had misused the comma operator in the way I've described. I wondered what the difference was and why it wasn't a && operator, but it was just written incorrectly. I didn't think anything was wrong with it because it worked just fine. Thanks for straightening me out.

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Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

- by Carl Manaster

I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

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Can a Generic Method handle both Reference and Nullable Value types?

- by Adam Lassek

I have a series of Extension methods to help with null-checking on IDataRecord objects, which I'm currently implementing like this: public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { int? nullInt = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullInt : dr.GetInt32(ordinal); } public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, string fieldname) { int ordinal = dr.GetOrdinal(fieldname); return dr.GetNullableInt32(ordinal); } and so on, for each type I need to deal with. I'd like to reimplement these as a generic method, partly to reduce redundancy and partly to learn how to write generic methods in general. I've written this: public static Nullable<T> GetNullable<T>(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { Nullable<T> nullValue = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullValue : (Nullable<T>) dr.GetValue(ordinal); } which works as long as T is a value type, but if T is a reference type it won't. This method would need to return either a Nullable type if T is a value type, and default(T) otherwise. How would I implement this behavior?

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[Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

- by Jergason

I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

- by Eric

I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

- by tricote

Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

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Is there a way to touch-enable scrolling in a WPF ScrollViewer?

- by Brian Sullivan

I'm trying to create a form in a WPF application that will allow the user to use iPhone-like gestures to scroll through the available fields. So, I've put all my form controls inside a StackPanel inside a ScrollViewer, and the scrollbar shows up as expected when there are too many elements to be shown on the screen. However, when I try to test this on my touch-enabled device, a panning gesture (placing a finger down on the surface and dragging it upward) does not move the viewable area down as I would expect. When I simply put a number of elements inside a ListView, the touch gestures work just fine. Is there any way to enable the same kind of behavior in a ScrollViewer? My window is structured like this: <Window x:Class="TestTouchScrolling.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <ScrollViewer Name="viewer" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <StackPanel Name="panel"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 1:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox1"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 2:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox2"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 3:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox3"></TextBox> </StackPanel>  </StackPanel> </ScrollViewer> </Grid>

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I did my own web framework: now, how keep it sync with applications? must I use versions?

- by Daniel Koch

... and I did the first web application using it, now I'm going to create the second. In this first web application I enhanced the framework's core library with new things and promptly updated framework branch. I'm using bazaar to keep framework and web application committed. The application was in the beginning, a full branch of framework source tree, now I'm updating framework manually at every change on core files. (copying changed files from web app to framework's branch). With this second web application that I'm going to create, I need to know about versions (or revisions) which the application is based. If I found a bug in this version I can fix and then sync files with first web application no worrying: functions will be the same to this application. If I'm going to make changes in core (new behavior, new functions in library or something new in source tree) it must be named as "new version". What's the best way to do this? Because I'm using a Distributed Version Control System (bazaar), I'm not dealing with VERSIONS, but revision numbers that change every time. Please fresh my mind with new ideas.

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Why does my Jabber bot only work if I'm debugging my Perl script?

- by TheGNUGuy

I am trying to make a jabber bot from scratch and my script is acting funny. I was originally developing the bot on a remote CentOS box, but I have switched to a local Win7 machine. Right now I'm using ActiveState Perl and I'm using Eclipse with the Perl plugin to run a debug the script. The funny behavior I'm experiencing occurs when I run or debug the script. If I run the script using the debugger it works fine, meaning I can send messages to the bot and it can send messages to me. However when I just execute the script normally the bot sends the successful connection message then it disconnects from my jabber server and the script ends. I'm a novice when it comes to Perl and I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. My guess is it has something to do with the subroutines and sending the presence of the bot. (I know for sure that it has something to do with sending the bot's presence because if the presence code is removed, the script behaves as expected except the bot doesn't appear to be online.) If anyone can help me with this that would be great. I originally had everything in 1 file but separated them into several trying to figure out my problem here are the pastebin links to my source code. jabberBot.pl: http://pastebin.com/cVifv0mm chatRoutine.pm: http://pastebin.com/JXmMT7av trimSpaces.pm: http://pastebin.com/SkeuWtu1 Thanks again for any help!

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Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

- by marc_s

Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

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wsdl xml parsing , maxlength problem after encoding of text

- by MichaelD

We are working together with another firm. our application communicates with the other application through WCF on our side and a custom implemented java wsdl handler on the other side. They specify the wsdl format and one of the rules is that a specific string cannot contain more then 15 characters. (normally it's 60, but i take 15 for easy example reasons) When we try to send the following string to them we get an error that the string is too long according to the wsdl: "example & test" this is a string of 14 characters, so it should be allowed the microsoft wcf parser translates this to "example & test" . This encoded string is 18 characters long. Now what is the standaard behavior to check a maxlength defined in a message? Is it the encoded message or the decoded message? I would think it's the decoded message , but i ain't sure. If it is the encoded message, how should we handle this so we would know how we have to split the string?

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