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  • Creating foreach loops using Code Igniter controller and view

    - by Tim
    Hello, This is a situation I have found myself in a few times and I just want clear it up once and for all. Best just to show you what I need to do in some example code. My Controller function my_controller() { $id = $this->uri->segment(3); $this->db->from('cue_sheets'); $this->db->where('id', $id); $data['get_cue_sheets'] = $this->db->get(); $this->db->from('clips'); $this->db->where('sheet_id', ' CUE SHEET ID GOES IN HERE ??? '); $data['get_clips'] = $this->db->get(); $this->load->view('show_sheets_and_clips', $data); } My View <?php if($get_cue_sheets->result_array()) { ?> <?php foreach($get_cue_sheets->result_array() as $sheetRow): ?> <h1><?php echo $sheetRow['sheet_name']; ?></h1> <br/> <?php if($get_clips->result_array()) { ?> <ul> <?php foreach($get_clips->result_array() as $clipRow): ?> <li><?php echo $clipRow['clip_name']; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php } else { echo 'No Clips Found'; } ?> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php } ?> The problem I am having is the concept of passing data back to the controller from the view as I am sending the Database Queries off to the view as an array, when I really need to get some more information as to which sheet ID I am looking for to show the relevant clips. I hope this makes sense to someone out there. Thanks, Tim

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  • Appending data to NSFetchedResultsController during find or create loop

    - by Justin Williams
    I have a table view that is managed by an NSFetchedResultsController. I am having an issue with a find-or-create operation, however. When the user hits the bottom of my table view, I am querying my server for another batch of content. If it doesn't exist in the local cache, we create it and store it. If it does exist, however, I want to append that data to the fetched results controller and display it. I can't quite figure that part out. Here's what I'm doing thus far: Passing the returned array of values from my server to an NSOperation to process. In the operation, create a new managed object context to work with. In the operation, I iterate through the array and execute a fetch request to see if the object exists (based on its server id). If the object doesn't exist, we create it and insert it into the operations' managed object context. After the iteration completes, we save the managed object context, which triggers a merge notification on my main thread. At this point, any objects that weren't locally cached in my Core Data store before will appear, but the ones that previously existed do not come along for the ride. I feel like it's something simple I'm missing, and could use a nudge in the right direction.

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  • Why an auto_ptr can "seal" a container

    - by icephere
    auto_ptr on wikipedia said that "an auto_ptr containing an STL container may be used to prevent further modification of the container.". It used the following example: auto_ptr<vector<ContainedType> > open_vec(new vector<ContainedType>); open_vec->push_back(5); open_vec->push_back(3); // Transfers control, but now the vector cannot be changed: auto_ptr<const vector<ContainedType> > closed_vec(open_vec); // closed_vec->push_back(8); // Can no longer modify If I uncomment the last line, g++ will report an error as t05.cpp:24: error: passing ‘const std::vector<int, std::allocator<int> >’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>::push_back(const _Tp&) [with _Tp = int, _Alloc = std::allocator<int>]’ discards qualifiers I am curious why after transferring the ownership of this vector, it can no longer be modified? Thanks a lot!

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  • Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

    - by Mr Roys
    I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

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  • How to avoid using this in a constructor

    - by Paralife
    I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

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  • How to get the ui:param value in Javabean

    - by mihaela
    Hello, I am learning facelets and Seam and I'm facing the following problem: I'm have 2 xhtml files, one includes the other and each one has its own Seam component as backing bean. I want to send and object to the included facelet and obtain that object in the backing bean corresponding to the included facelet. I'll take an example to explain better the situation: registration.xhtml with Seam component as backing bean Registration.java. In this class I have an object of type Person address.html with Seam component as backing bean Address.java. In this class i want to obtain the Person object from the Registration component and set the address. registration.xhtml includes the address.xhtml and passes an object using How to obtain this object in Address bean? Will be the same reference of the object from the Registration bean? is the solution of passing this object or there is another solution for that? (maybe f:attribute, but even in this case how do I obtain the object in bean) This example is simple and not necessarily realistic but I have a similar problem and I don't know how to solve it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Simplest way to handle and display errors in a Python Pylons controller without a helper class

    - by ensnare
    I have a class User() that throw exceptions when attributes are incorrectly set. I am currently passing the exceptions from the models through the controller to the templates by essentially catching exceptions two times for each variable. Is this a correct way of doing it? Is there a better (but still simple) way? I prefer not to use any third party error or form handlers due to the extensive database queries we already have in place in our classes. Furthermore, how can I "stop" the chain of processing in the class if one of the values is invalid? Is there like a "break" syntax or something? Thanks. >>> u = User() >>> u.name = 'Jason Mendez' >>> u.password = '1234' Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "topic/model/user.py", line 79, in password return self._password ValueError: Your password must be greater than 6 characters In my controller "register," I have: class RegisterController(BaseController): def index(self): if request.POST: c.errors = {} u = User() try: u.name = c.name = request.POST['name'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['name'] = error try: u.email = c.email = request.POST['email'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['email'] = error try: u.password = c.password = request.POST['password'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['password'] = error try: u.commit() except ValueError, error: pass return render('/register.mako')

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  • is it possible to turn off vdso on glibc side?

    - by heroxbd
    I am aware that passing vdso=0 to kernel can turn this feature off, and that the dynamic linker in glibc can automatic detect and use vdso feature from kernel. Here I met with this problem. There is a RHEL 5.6 box (kernel 2.6.18-238.el5) in my institution where I only have a normal user access, probably suffering from RHEL bug 673616. As I compile a toolchain of linux-headers-3.9/gcc-4.7.2/glibc-2.17/binutils-2.23 on top of it, gcc bootstrap fails in cc1 in stage2 cannnot be run Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x00002aaaaaaca6eb in ?? () (gdb) info sharedlibrary From To Syms Read Shared Object Library 0x00002aaaaaaabba0 0x00002aaaaaac3249 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib64/ld-linux-x86-64.so.2 0x00002aaaaacd29b0 0x00002aaaaace2480 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libmpc.so.3 0x00002aaaaaef2cd0 0x00002aaaaaf36c08 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libmpfr.so.4 0x00002aaaab14f280 0x00002aaaab19b658 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libgmp.so.10 0x00002aaaab3b3060 0x00002aaaab3b3b50 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib/libdl.so.2 0x00002aaaab5b87b0 0x00002aaaab5c4bb0 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libz.so.1 0x00002aaaab7d0e70 0x00002aaaab80f62c Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib/libm.so.6 0x00002aaaaba70d40 0x00002aaaabb81aec Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib/libc.so.6 (*): Shared library is missing debugging information. and a simple program #include <sys/time.h> #include <stdio.h> int main () { struct timeval tim; gettimeofday(&tim, NULL); return 0; } get segment fault in the same way if compiled against glibc-2.17 and xgcc from stage1. Both cc1 and the test program can be run on another running RHEL 5.5 (kernel 2.6.18-194.26.1.el5) with gcc-4.7.2/glibc-2.17/binutils-2.23 as normal user. I cannot simply upgrade the box to a newer RHEL version, nor could I turn VDSO off via sysctl or proc. The question is, is there a way to compile glibc so that it turns off VDSO unconditionally?

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  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Intent.putExtras not consistent

    - by martinjd
    I have a weird situation with AlarmManager. I am scheduling an event with AlarmManager and passing in a string using intent.putExtra. The string is either silent or vibrate and when the receiver fires the phone should either turn of the ringer or set the phone to vibrate. The log statement correctly outputs the expected value each time. Intent intent; if (eventType.equals("start")) { intent = new Intent(context, SReceiver.class); } else { intent = new Intent(context, EReceiver.class); } intent.setAction(eventType+Long.toString(newId)); Log.v("EditQT",ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); intent.putExtra("ringerModeType", ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); PendingIntent appIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService (Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), appIntent); The receiver that fires when the alarm executes also has a log statement and I can see the first time around that the statement outputs the expected string either SILENT or VIBRATE. The alarm executes and then I change the value for putExtra to opposite string and the receiver still displays the previous value event though the call from the code above shows that the new value was passed in. The value for setAction is the same each time. audioManager = (AudioManager) context.getSystemService(Activity.AUDIO_SERVICE); Log.v("Start",intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").toString()); if (intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").equals("SILENTMODE")) { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_SILENT); } else { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_VIBRATE); } Any thoughts?

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  • how do I paste text to a line by line text filter like awk, without having stdin echo to the screen?

    - by Barton Chittenden
    I have a text in an email on a windows box that looks something like this: 100 some random text 101 some more random text 102 lots of random text, all different 103 lots of random text, all the same I want to extract the numbers, i.e. the first word on each line. I've got a terminal running bash open on my Linux box... If these were in a text file, I would do this: awk '{print $1}' mytextfile.txt I would like to paste these in, and get my numbers out, without creating a temp file. my naive first attempt looked like this: $ awk '{print $1}' 100 some random text 100 101 some more random text 101 102 lots of random text, all different 103 lots of random text, all the same 102 103 The buffering of stdin and stdout make a hash of this. I wouldn't mind if stdin all printed first, followed by all of stdout; this is what would happen if I were to paste into 'sort' for example, but awk and sed are a different story. a little more thought gave me this: open two terminals. Create a fifo file. Read from the fifo on one terminal, write to it on another. This does in fact work, but I'm lazy. I don't want to open a second terminal. Is there a way in the shell that I can hide the text echoed to the screen when I'm passing it in to a pipe, so that I paste this: 100 some random text 101 some more random text 102 lots of random text, all different 103 lots of random text, all the same but see this? $ awk '{print $1}' 100 101 102 103

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  • C# .NET : Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ funciton calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is suffice?

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  • Techniques for sharing a value among classes in a program

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    I'm using Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.CommonApplicationData) + "\MyProgram" As the path to store several files used by my program. I'd like to avoid pasting the same snippet of code all over the my applcation. I need to ensure that: The path cannot be accidentally changed once its been set The classes that need it have access to it. I've considered: Making it a singleton Using constructor dependency injection Using property dependency injection Using AOP to create the path where its needed. Each has pros and cons. The singleton is everyone's favorite whipping boy. I'm not opposed to using one but there are valid reasons to avoid it if possible. I'm already heavily using constructor injection through Castle Windsor. But this is a path string and Windsor doesn't handle system type dependencies very gracefully. I could always wrap it in a class but that seems like overkill for something as simple as a passing around a string value. In any case this route would add yet another constructor argument to each class where it is used. The problem I see with property injection in this case is that there is a large amount of indirection from the where the value is set to where it is needed. I would need a very long line of middlemen to reach all the places where its used. AOP looks promising and I'm planning on using AOP for logging anyway so this at least sounds like a simple solution. Is there any other options I haven't considered? Am I off base with my evaluation of the options I have considered?

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  • [Perl] Testing for EAGAIN / EWOULDBLOCK on a recv

    - by Robert S. Barnes
    I'm testing a socket to see if it's still open: my $dummy = ''; my $ret = recv($sock, $dummy, 1, MSG_DONTWAIT | MSG_PEEK); if (!defined $ret || (length($dummy) == 0 && $! != EAGAIN && $! != EWOULDBLOCK )) { logerr("Broken pipe? ".__LINE__." $!"); } else { # socket still connected, reuse logerr(__LINE__.": $!"); return $sock; } I'm passing this code a socket I know for certain is open and it's always going through the first branch and logging "Broken pipe? 149 Resource temporarily unavailable". I don't understand how this is happening since "Resource temporarily unavailable" is supposed to correspond to EAGAIN as far as I know. I'm sure there must be something simple I'm missing. And yes, I know this is not a full proof way to test and I account for that.

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  • 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

    - by TomTom
    Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

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  • How do I animate UserControl objects using Storyboard and DoubleAnimation?

    - by Neo
    In my WPF application, I have a Canvas object that contains some UserControl objects. I wish to animate the UserControl objects within the Canvas using DoubleAnimation so that they go from the right of the Canvas to the left of the Canvas. This is how I have done it so far (by passing the UserControl objects into the function): private void Animate(FrameworkElement e) { DoubleAnimation ani = new DoubleAnimation() { From = _container.ActualWidth, To = 0.0, Duration = new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10), TargetElement = e }; TranslateTransform trans = new TranslateTransform(); e.RenderTransform = trans; trans.BeginAnimation(TranslateTransform.XProperty, ani, HandoffBehavior.Compose); } However, this doesn't allow me to pause the animation, so I have considered using a Storyboard instead to do this, but I'm not sure how to implement this. This has been my attempt so far: private void Animate(FrameworkElement e) { DoubleAnimation ani = new DoubleAnimation() { From = _container.ActualWidth, To = 0.0, Duration = new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10), TargetElement = e }; Storyboard stb = new Storyboard(); Storyboard.SetTarget(ani, e); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(ani, "Left"); stb.Children.Add(ani); stb.Begin(); } Of course, this fails as UserControl doesn't have a Left property. How can I achieve what I'm after? Thanks.

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  • Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

    - by Ash Machine
    My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

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  • Perl WordPress::XMLRPC categories not being set.

    - by Jay
    The following code works fine to upload a new post to a WordPress blog but for the life of me I can't seem to get the categories to be set. The categories exist. I've tried all lower case, tried case-matching, tried the slug version. Nothing works. No matter how I try passing the categories, the post gets assigned only to the default category. I've scoured the web to find other pieces of sample code and none mention the actual code semantics of how to assign post to certain categories using the WordPress::XMLRPC module. use WordPress::XMLRPC; my $o = WordPress::XMLRPC-new; $o-username('username'); $o-password('password'); $o-proxy('http://blogdomain.com/xmlrpc.php'); $o-server() || die "$!"; my $hashref = { 'title' = 'Test New Post 999 555456782', 'categories' = ['Categorie1', 'Categorie2'], 'description' = '<pHere is the content</p', 'mt_keywords' = 'tag1, tag2, tag3', 'mt_allow_comments' = 1, }; my $ID = $o-newPost($hashref, 1);

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  • Windows Batch file to echo a specific line number

    - by Lee
    So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in c:\file_list.txt. I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do ( if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1 ) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of %a. Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: ECHO is off.); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the head.bat code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the set /a counter+=1 is doing what I think it's doing.

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  • What would cause native gem extensions on OS X to build but fail to load?

    - by goodmike
    I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

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  • How to add View Controller with Tab Bar interfaced View Controller

    - by TechFusion
    I have created Window based Tab Bar controller app, One Tab Bar of viewController has been interfaced with WebVIew ..I am looking to create another view once touch event happened in that WebView.. //TabBarViewController.m - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { TabMainView *mainView = [[TabMainView alloc] init]; mainView.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; [self.navigationController pushViewController: mainView animated:YES]; [mainView release]; } I have created MainView, which is UIViewController Subclass. //TabMainView.m - (void)loadView { CGRect frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); WebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; WebView.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; WebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; WebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleLeftMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleTopMargin); WebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; WebView.exclusiveTouch = YES; //self.WebView.UserInteractionEnabled = NO; WebView.clearsContextBeforeDrawing = YES; self.view = WebView; [WebView release]; } - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self.WebView loadRequest:[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.apple.com"]]]; } Here when touch event happened then it is not passing control to TabMainView.m 's Viewload function although I am pushing it's view? TabBarView is also UIViewController subclass not a UINavigationController.

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  • NSFetchedResultsController secondary sorting not working?

    - by binkly
    Hello, I'm using NSFetchedResultsController to fetch Message entities with Core Data. I want my tableview to group the messages by an attribute called ownerName. This works fine in the sense that I get a proper UI dispalying appropriately named sections. I can achieve this with the code below: NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"ownerName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController = nil; fetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:[appDelegate managedObjectContext] sectionNameKeyPath:@"ownerName" cacheName:@"Messages"] What'd I'd like to do now is have the section with the newest message at the top; exactly how it works with the Messages app on iPhone currently. I've tried adding a second sort descriptor and putting it in an array of sort descriptors and passing that to the fetchRequest but it doesn't appear to be affecting anything. Here is the 2nd sort descriptor that I used. NSSortDescriptor *idDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"createdAt" ascending:YES]; If anyone could provide some insight into this I would greatly appreciate it.

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  • PHP strtotime() looks like it is expecting a Euro format

    - by Jason Rhodes
    I've been using PHP's strtotime() method to accept a date field on a form. I love how powerful it is, in how it will accept "Tomorrow", "Next Thursday", or (supposedly) any date representation and convert it to the Unix timestamp. It's been working great -- until yesterday. Someone entered "2-4-10" and instead of logging Feb 4th, 2010, it logged April 10, 2002! So it expected Y-M-D instead of M-D-Y. I thought maybe the problem was just using a 2-digit year, so we tried again with "2-4-2010". That logged April 2nd, 2010! At that point I just don't understand what strtotime() is doing. PHP.net says it expects a US English date format. Why then would it assume D-M-Y? Is there a way around this? Or do I have to stop using strtotime()? Note: I just now did a test. When you use slashes instead of hyphen/dashes, it works fine, even with 2/4/10. Why on earth does that matter? And if that's all it is, should I just run str_replace("-", "/", $input) on the form input before passing it to strtotime()?

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  • How to get a UIScrollView embedded within a UITableCellView to scroll?

    - by Zan
    I have a scroll view containing several images embedded within a custom cell view, it sometimes scrolls horizontally if I keep holding the cell for a while. I tried a lot of things and it doesn't seem to work, please help? Here's part of the CustomCell : UITableViewCell code: -(void) layoutSubviews { CGRect scrollViewFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 200); self.scrollView.frame = scrollViewFrame; self.scrollView.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; self.scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake((320*3), 200); self.scrollView.scrollEnabled = YES; self.scrollView.clipsToBounds = YES; self.scrollView.pagingEnabled = YES; self.scrollView.showsHorizontalScrollIndicator = NO; self.scrollView.showsVerticalScrollIndicator = NO; self.scrollView.scrollsToTop = NO; self.scrollView.delegate = self; self.scrollView.userInteractionEnabled = YES; // add 3 images to subview here pageControl.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:0 green:0 blue:0 alpha:0.7]; pageControl.frame = CGRectMake(0, 170, 320, 30); pageControl.numberOfPages = 8;} I tested the code on a UIViewController and it works just fine, I'm guessing that this is caused by cell selection and I tried returning nil when the cell gets selected and that didn't work. I also tried passing touches to the scrollview and that didn't work either, please help?

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  • NSOperation and fwrite (Iphone)

    - by Sridhar
    Hi, I am having problem with this code.Basically I want to execute the fwrite from a timer function asyncronusly. Here is the code block in my Timer function. (This will call by the timer every 0.2 seconds. -(void)timerFunction { WriteFileOperation * operation = [WriteFileOperation writeFileWithBuffer:pFile buffer:readblePixels length:nBytes*15]; [_queue addOperation:operation]; // Here it is waiting to complete the fwrite } The WrtiteFilerOperation is an NSoperation class which it has to write the passing buffer to a file. I added this code in WriteFileOperation's "start" method. (void)start { if (![NSThread isMainThread]) { [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(start) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; return; } [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; _isExecuting = YES; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; NSLog(@"write bytes %d",fwrite(_buffer, 1, _nBytes, _file)); free(_buffer); [self finish]; } The problem here is , my timerFunction blocked by NSOperation until it writes the buffer into file.(I mean blocked till start method finishes its execution) and the performance seems same as directly placing the fwrite in timerFunction. I want to just return to timerFunction with out waiting from the start method execution to be completed. What I am doing wrong here ? Thanks In Advance Raghu

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