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  • How do I serialize/deserialize a NHibernate entity that has references to other objects?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have two NHibernate-managed entities that have a bi-directional one-to-many relationship: public class Storage { public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Box> Boxes { get; set; } } public class Box { public virtual string Box { get; set; } [DoNotSerialize] public virtual Storage ParentStorage { get; set; } } A Storage can contain many Boxes, and a Box always belongs in a Storage. I want to edit a Box's name, so I send it to the client using JSON. Note that I don't serialize ParentStorage because I'm not changing which storage it's in. The client edits the name and sends the Box back as JSON. The server deserializes it back into a Box entity. Problem is, the ParentStorage property is null. When I try to save the Box to the database, it updates the name, but also removes the relationship to the Storage. How do I properly serialize and deserialize an entity like a Box, while keeping the JSON data size to a minimum?

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  • Why it's important to specify the complete class name in your association when using namespaces

    - by Carmine Paolino
    In my Rails application there is a model that has some has_one associations (this is a fabricated example): class Person::Admin < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :person_monthly_revenue has_one :dude_monthly_niceness accepts_nested_attributes_for :person_monthly_revenue, :dude_monthly_niceness end class Person::MonthlyRevenue < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person_admin end class Dude::MonthlyNiceness < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person_admin end The application talks to a backend that computes some data and returns a piece of JSON like this: { "dude_monthly_niceness": { "february": 1.1153232569518972, "october": 1.1250217200558268, "march": 1.3965786869658541, "august": 1.6293418014601631, "september": 1.4062771500697835, "may": 1.7166279693955291, "january": 1.0086401628086725, "june": 1.5711510228365859, "april": 1.5614525597326563, "december": 0.99894169970474289, "july": 1.7263264324994585, "november": 0.95044938418509506 }, "person_monthly_revenue": { "february": 10.585596551505297, "october": 10.574823016656749, "march": 9.9125274764852787, "august": 9.2111604702328922, "september": 9.7905249446675153, "may": 9.1329712474607962, "january": 10.479614016604238, "june": 9.3710235926961936, "april": 9.5897372624830304, "december": 10.052587677671438, "july": 8.9508877843925561, "november": 10.925339756096172 }, } To deserialize it, I use ActiveRecord's from_json, but instead of a Person::Admin object with all the associations in place, I get this error: >> Person::Admin.new.from_json(json) NameError: uninitialized constant Person::Admin::DudeMonthlyNiceness Am I doing something wrong? Is there a better way to deserialize data? (I can modify the backend easily) UPDATE: the original title was "How to deserialize from json to ActiveRecord objects with associations?" but it ended up being my mistake in specifying associations so I changed the title.

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  • Weird behavior of matching array keys after json_decode()

    - by arnorhs
    I've got some very weird behavior in my PHP code. I don't know if this is actually a good SO question, since it almost looks like a bug in PHP. I had this problem in a project of mine and isolated the problem: // json object that will be converted into an array $json = '{"5":"88"}'; $jsonvar = (array) json_decode($json); // notice: Casting to an array // Displaying the array: var_dump($jsonvar); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($jsonvar["5"])); var_dump(isset($jsonvar[5])); That code outputs the following: array(1) { ["5"]=> string(2) "88" } bool(false) bool(false) The big problem: Both of those tests should produce bool(true) - if you create the same array using regular php arrays, this is what you'll see: // Let's create a similar PHP array in a regular manner: $phparr = array("5" => "88"); // Displaying the array: var_dump($phparr); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($phparr["5"])); var_dump(isset($phparr[5])); The output of that: array(1) { [5]=> string(2) "88" } bool(true) bool(true) So this doesn't really make sense. I've tested this on two different installations of PHP/apache. You can copy-paste the code to a php file yourself to test it. It must have something to do with the casting from an object to an array.

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  • How can I debug PEAR auth?

    - by croceldon
    I have a directory on my site that I've implemented PEAR's Auth to run my authentication. It is working great. However, I've tried to make a copy of my site (it's going to be translated to a different language), and on this new site, the Auth process doesn't seem to be working correctly. I can login properly, but every time I try to go to a different page in the same directory, and use Auth to authorize, it forces me to login again. Here's my logic: $auth_options = array( 'dsn' => mysql://user:password@server/db', 'table' => 'users', 'usernamecol' => 'username', 'passwordcol' => 'password', 'db_fields' => '*' ); $auth = new Auth("DB", $auth_options, "login_function"); $auth->setFailedLoginCallback('bad_login'); $auth->start(); if (!$auth->checkAuth()) { die('cannot succeed in checkAuth') exit; } else { include("nocache.php"); } This is part of a file that's included in every php page I that I desire to require authentication. I can login properly once, but whenever I then try to go to a different page that requires authentication, it makes me login again (and I see the 'cannot succeed' die message at the bottom of the page). Again, this solution works fine on my original site, I copied all the files, and only changed the db server/password - it still doesn't work. And I'm using the same webhost for both. What am I doing wrong here? Or how can I debug this further?

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  • Updating a field in a record dyanamically in extjs

    - by Daemon
    Scenario I want to update the column data of particular record in grid having store with static data. Here is my store: : : extend : 'Ext.data.Store', model : 'MyModel', autoLoad:true, proxy: { type: 'ajax', url:'app/data/data.json', reader: { type: 'json', root: 'users' } }, My data.json { 'users': [ { QMgrStatus:"active", QMgrName: 'R01QN00_LQYV', ChannelStatus:'active', ChannelName : 'LQYV.L.CLNT', MxConn: 50 } ] } What I am doing to update the record : var grid = Ext.getCmp('MyGrid'); var store = Ext.getStore('Mystore'); store.each(function(record,idx){ val = record.get('ChannelName'); if(val == "LQYV.L.CLNT"){ record.set('ChannelStatus','inactive'); record.commit(); } }); console.log(store); grid.getView().refresh(); MY PROBLEM I am getting the record updated over here.It is not getting reflected in my grid panel.The grid is using the same old store(static).Is the problem of static data? Or am I missing something or going somewhere wrong? Please help me out with this issue.Thanks a lot. MY EDIT I am tryng to color code the column based on the status.But here I am always getting the status="active" even though I am updating the store. What I am trying to do in my grid { xtype : 'grid', itemId : 'InterfaceQueueGrid', id :'MyGrid', store : 'Mytore', height : 216, width : 600, columns : [ { text: 'QueueMgr Status', dataIndex: 'QMgrStatus' , width:80 }, { text: 'Queue Manager \n Name', dataIndex: 'QMgrName' , width: 138}, { text: 'Channel Status',dataIndex: 'ChannelStatus' , width: 78,align:'center', renderer: function(value, meta, record) { var val = record.get('ChannelStatus'); console.log(val); // Here I am always getting status="active". if (val == 'inactive') { return '<img src="redIcon.png"/>'; }else if (val == 'active') { return '<img src="greenIcon.png"/>'; } } }, { text: 'Channel Name', align:'center', dataIndex: 'ChannelName', width: 80} { text: 'Max Connections', align:'center', dataIndex: 'MxConn', width: 80} ] }

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  • ruby on rails implement search with auto complete

    - by user429400
    I've implemented a search box that searches the "Illnesses" table and the "symptoms" table in my DB. Now I want to add auto-complete to the search box. I've created a new controller called "auto_complete_controller" which returns the auto complete data. I'm just not sure how to combine the search functionality and the auto complete functionality: I want the "index" action in my search controller to return the search results, and the "index" action in my auto_complete controller to return the auto_complete data. Please guide me how to fix my html syntax and what to write in the js.coffee file. I'm using rails 3.x with the jquery UI for auto-complete, I prefer a server side solution, and this is my current code: main_page/index.html.erb: <p> <b>Syptoms / Illnesses</b> <%= form_tag search_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search] %> <br/> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil %> </p> <% end %> </p> auto_complete_controller.rb: class AutoCompleteController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") + Symptom.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") render json: @results.map(&:name) end end search_controller.rb: class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.search(params[:search]) + Symptom.search(params[:search]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @results } end end end Thanks, Li

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  • What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

    - by Churk
    So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

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  • WIN32 Logon question

    - by Lalit_M
    We have developed a ASP.NET 3.5 web application with Web Server 2008 and has implemented a custom authentication solution using active directory as the credentials store. Our front end application uses a normal login form to capture the user name and password and leverages the Win32 LogonUser method to authenticate the user’s credentials. When we are calling the LogonUser method, we are using the LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK as the logon type. The issue we have found is that user profile folders are being created under the C:\Users folder of the web server. The folder seems to be created when a new user who has never logged on before is logging in for the first time. As the number of new users logging into the application grows, disk space is shrinking due to the large number of new user folders getting created. I need to get the token back after the authentication (authenticated \ password locked \ wrong password ) its futher use and based on logic showing different web pages Has anyone seen this behavior with the Win32 LogonUser method? Please answer the following issue: Is it possible to disable this behavior to create the folder as taking 2.78 MB of space for every new user and it eating my disck space? I have tried LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH but it was giving an error 1385 in authentication user. For any solution related to LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH, can you please confirm if that will stop creating the folders at location C:\users. Also for any possible solution I need either I am able to disable the folder to be created at C:\user or Any other option to authenticated user which will not creat folders.

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  • Programmatically setup a PEAP connection in Windows Mobile

    - by tomlog
    I have been working on this for a few days and this is doing my head in: Our application is built using the .NET Compact Framework 2.0 and running on Windows Mobile 5 & 6 devices. We can set the WLAN connection of the device programmatically using the Wireless Zero Config functions (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms894771.aspx), most notably the WZCSetInterface function which we pinvoke from our application. This works fine for WEP and WPA-PSK connections. In a recent effort to add support for WPA2 networks we decided to modify the code. We have successfully added support for WPA2 which uses a certificate for the 802.1x authentication by setting the correct registry settings before calling WZCSetInterface. Now we want to do the same for WPA2 using PEAP (MS-CHAPv2) authentication. When manually creating such a connection in Windows Mobile the user will be prompted to enter the domain/user/password details. In our application we will have those details stored locally and want to do this all programmatically without any user intervention. So I thought going along the same route as the certificate authentication, setting the correct registry entries before calling WZCSetInterface. The registry settings we set are: \HKCU\Comm\EAP\Config\[ssid name] Enable8021x = 1 (DWORD) LastAuthSuccessful = 1 (DWORD) EapTypeId = 25 (DWORD) Identity = "domain\username" (string) Password = binary blob containing the password that is encrypted using the CryptProtectData function (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms938309.aspx) But when these settings are set and I call WZCSetInterface with the correct parameters, it still prompts me with the User Logon dialog asking for the domain/username/password. Has anyone got an idea what I need to do to prevent the password dialog from appearing and connect straight away with the settings stored in the registry?

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  • Load ascx via jQuery

    - by Raika
    Is there a way to load ascx file by jQuery? UPDATE: thanks to @Emmett and @Yads.i am use the handler and the ajax: jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", //GET url: "Foo.ashx", data: '{}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { jQuery('#controlload').append(response.d); // or response }, error: function () { jQuery('#controlload').append('error'); } }); but i,m just getting an error. my ajax is wrong? Another Update : i am using error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { jQuery('#controlload').append(thrownError); } and this what i get : Invalid JSON: Test =(this test is label inside my ascx) and my ascx file after Error!!! Another Update : my ascx file is somthing like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddl" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true"> <asp:ListItem>1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server">Test</asp:Label> but when I call ajax i get this error in asp: :( Control 'ctl00_ddl' of type 'DropDownList' must be placed inside a form tag with runat=server.

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  • jQuery: responding to click event of element added to document after page load

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a page which uses a lot of in situ editing and updating using jQuery for AJAX. I have come accross a problem which can best be summarised by the workflow described below: Clicking on 'element1' on the page results in a jQuery AJAX POST Data is received in json format The data received in json format The received data is used to update an existing element 'results' in the page The received data is actual an HTML form I want jQuery to be responsible for POSTing the form when the form button is clicked The problem arises at point 6 above. I have code in my main page which looks like this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('img#inserted_form_btn').click(function(){ $.ajax({'type: 'POST', 'url': 'www.example.com', function($data){ $(data.id).html($data.frm); }), 'dataType': 'json'} }); }); However, the event is not being triggered. I think this is because when the document is first loaded, the img#inserted_form_btn element does not exist on the page (it is inserted into the DOM as the result of an element being clicked on the page (not shown in the code above - to keep the question short) My question therefore is: how can I get jQuery to be able to respond to events occuring in elements that were added to the DOM AFTER the page has loaded?

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  • Why is my long polling code for a notification system not updating in real time? PHP MYSQL

    - by tjones
    I am making a notification system similar to the red notification on facebook. It should update the number of messages sent to a user in real time. When the message MYSQL table is updated, it should instantly notify the user, but it does not. There does not seem to be an error inserting into MYSQL because on page refresh the notifications update just fine. I am essentially using code from this video tutorial: http://www.screenr.com/SNH (which updates in realtime if a data.txt file is changed, but it is not written for MYSQL like I am trying to do) Is there something wrong with the below code: **Javascript** <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var timestamp = null; function waitForMsg(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "getData.php", data: "userid=" + userid, async: true, cache: false, success: function(data){ var json = eval('(' + data + ')'); if (json['msg'] != "") { $('.notification').fadeIn().html(json['msg']); } setTimeout('waitForMsg()',30000); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ setTimeout('waitForMsg()',30000); } }); } waitForMsg(); </script> <body> <div class="notification"></div> **PHP*** <?php if ($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == 'GET' ) { $userid = $_GET['userid']; include("config.php"); $sql="SELECT MAX(time) FROM notification WHERE userid='$userid'"; $result = mysql_query($sql); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $currentmodif = $row['MAX(time)']; $s="SELECT MAX(lasttimeread) FROM notificationsRead WHERE submittedby='$userid'"; $r = mysql_query($s); $rows = mysql_fetch_assoc($r); $lasttimeread = $rows['MAX(lasttimeread)']; while ($currentmodif <= $lasttimeread) { usleep(10000); clearstatcache(); $currentmodif = $row['MAX(time)']; } $response = array(); $response['msg'] = You have new messages; echo json_encode($response); } ?>

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  • using action helpers in Zend Framework 1.8

    - by Nasser
    Hi am starting off with Zend Framework and have a question about action helpers. My first application is a simple authentication system (following a tutorial from a book). The registration and authentication seems to work fine but the redirect doesn't. I have a customer controller that has this among others: class CustomerController extends Zend_Controller_Action { // some code here...... public function authenticateAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); if (!$request->isPost()) { return $this->_helper->redirector('login'); } // Validate $form = $this->_forms['login']; if (!$form->isValid($request->getPost())) { return $this->render('login'); } if (false === $this->_authService->authenticate($form->getValues())) { $form->setDescription('Login failed, please try again.'); return $this->render('login'); } return $this->_helper->redirector('index'); } the authenticate url is http://localhost/customer/authenticate and this seems to work fine but it does not redirect. After authentication I get a blank page which looks like its taking me to the index and just sits there. I tried using '/index' instead but that did not help either. Do I need to do anything special to make the redirector helper work? I have a logout action which behaves the same.

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  • Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

    - by ming yeow
    I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

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  • jQuery ajax request response is empty in Internet Explorer

    - by Aprilia1982
    Hi, I'm doing the following ajax call: //exif loader function LoadExif(cImage) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost:62414/Default1.aspx/GetImageExif", data: "{iCurrentImage:" + cImage + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", error: ajaxFailed, success: function (data, status) { var sStr = ''; for (var count in data.d) { sStr = sStr + data.d[count]; }; alert(sStr); } }); }; In Firefox the request works really fine. When I try to run the code in Internet Explorer, the response is empty. Here is the webmethod witch is called: <WebMethod()> _ <ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat:=ResponseFormat.Json)> _ Public Shared Function GetImageExif(ByVal iCurrentImage As Integer) As String Dim sbTable As New StringBuilder sbTable.AppendLine("<table>") sbTable.AppendLine("<tr>") sbTable.AppendLine("<td>Name</td><td>" & gGallery.Images(iCurrentImage).File.Name & "</td>") sbTable.AppendLine("</tr>") sbTable.AppendLine("</table>") Return sbTable.ToString End Function Any ideas? Jan

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  • using variable in DATA of getJASON Callback function

    - by asilloo
    Hi, My problem is manage the code which get the tag and use is as variable (var searchterm= ??????). With JSON I want first get the "location" tags with tagthe and show the relate photos from flickr. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <style>img{ height: 100px; float: left; }</style> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="images"> </div> <script> $.getJSON("http://tagthe.net/api/?url=http://www.knallgrau.at/en&view=json&callback=MyFunc",function(data){ var searchterm=data[location]; }); $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags="+searchterm+"&tagmode=any&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i,item){ $("<img/>").attr("src", item.media.m).appendTo("#images"); if ( i == 3 ) return false; }); });</script> </body> </html>

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  • Trouble with IIS SMTP relaying to Gmail

    - by saille
    I appreciate that similar questions have been asked about how to setup SMTP relaying with IIS's virtual SMTP server. However I'm still completely stumped on this problem. Here's the setup: IIS 6.0 SMTP server running on Win2k3 box with a NAT'ed IP. Company uses Gmail for all email services. An app on the box needs to send email, so normally we'd just set the app up to talk to smtp.gmail.com directly, but this app doesn't support TLS. Easy, we just setup a local SMTP relay right? So I thought. What we have done so far: Setup IIS SMTP server to relay to smtp.gmail.com, as per these excellent instructions: http://fmuntean.wordpress.com/2008/10/26/how-to-configure-iis-smtp-server-to-forward-emails-using-a-gmail-account/ The local SMTP relay allows anonymous access. Both the local IP and the loopback IP have been explicitly allowed in the Connection... and Relay... dialogs. Tried sending email from 2 different apps via the local SMTP server, but failed (the emails end up in the Queue folder, but never get sent). The IIS logs show the conversation with the local app, but zero conversation happening with smtp.gmail.com. The port used by gmail is open outbound, and indeed the apps we have that support TLS can send email directly via smtp.gmail.com, so there is no problem with the network. At this point I changed the smtp settings in IIS SMTP server to use a different external SMTP server and hey-presto, the local apps can send email via local IIS SMTP relay. So smtp.gmail.com fails to work with our IIS SMTP relay, but another 3rd party SMTP service works fine. We need to use smtp.gmail.com, so how to troubleshoot this one?

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  • How to setup a virtual host in Ubuntu?

    - by Rade
    I have an app that's accessible via 1.2.3.4/myapp. The app is installed in /var/www/myapp. I've set up a subdomain(apps.mydomain.com) that points to 1.2.3.4. I want the server to point to var/www/myapp if I type apps.mydomain.com/myapp, how do I do that? I have experience creating virtual hosts(lots of them) locally but I'm lost because it's now in production and it's a little different. Here's my virtual host config: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ServerName apps.mydomain.com/myapp DocumentRoot /var/www/myapp/public <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All </Directory> <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride All Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ <Directory "/usr/lib/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride All Options +ExecCGI -MultiViews +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn CustomLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/access.log combined </VirtualHost> Any idea why I still see the files instead of pointing me to the document root? Just in case someone might ask, the app is based on Laravel 4 framework. It's really bad right now because anyone can access the files from the browser.

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  • Java Swing over Remote Desktop - Strange, weird GUI squashing

    - by ADTC
    I thought this question fits SuperUser more than StackOverflow because it's not about actual Java programming, though programmers might be more likely to encounter the problem. Anyway, let me start of with some stats before I ask the actual question: Laptop: Windows 7 x32 Screen resolution 1024 x 768; Nvidia GeForce Go 6200 Connected to desktop via ad-hoc wireless network Access internet via desktop Desktop: Windows 7 x64 Screen resolution 1920 x 1080 Connected to laptop via ad-hoc wireless network Access internet via cable modem I'm connecting to my laptop via Remote Desktop from my desktop to take advantage of the large screen. I'm doing programming on my laptop (for portability reasons). Everything else runs smooth and fast over Remote Desktop as both computers are connected directly over the ad-hoc wireless. The only problem is this: Java Swing apps don't display the GUI properly. I acquired a Java Swing application and I'm debugging it in Eclipse. Here's what I got when I ran the app: Apparently there doesn't seem to be anything wrong with the GUI application I'm debugging, because the Java Control Panel exhibits the same problem. I've searched high and low in Google about this; the closest I came to a solution is this. But sadly, the use of -Dsun.java2d.nodraw=true has no effect at all. This only happens over Remote Desktop. I have tried locally and the GUI apps display properly. This isn't a dealbreaker for me as I can stop using Remote Desktop when developing Java Swing apps. However, I would like to know if anyone has encountered this and found any solution. PS: All software involved (Eclipse, Java JRE, etc.) are latest versions.

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  • App-V Problems After SCCM 2007 SP2 Upgrade

    - by GAThrawn
    We're running an SCCM (MS System Centre Config Manager, successor to SMS) 2007 environment and delivering a number of applications to clients virtualized using App-V 4.5.1. The App-V apps are delivered by SCCM in Download-and-Execute, not streaming mode. The SCCM environment was recently service packed to SCCM 2007 SP2 (amongst other things this gives Win7 support). We also pushed out the updated SCCM clients to our workstations. This seems to have broken file associations for virtual apps for a large number of our users. The users can still open their App-V apps by finding the specific app on their Start Menu and clicking it's icon, but double-clicking an associated file in Explorer, or opening an email attachment gives the "This action is only valid for installed applications" error. There is a Technet blog entry from the App-V team talking about this issue "Upgrade to ConfigMgr 2007 SP2 may break App-V File Type Associations" but running the script there comes back saying "The User Interface option has been updated" but hasn't seemed to fix the problems for any of our users. Unfortunately the Technet blogs don't seem to have comments switched on so you can't see how this has worked out for other people. Anyone else had this problem, have you found any other way to fix it?

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  • Trouble with IIS SMTP relaying to Gmail

    - by saille
    I appreciate that similar questions have been asked about how to setup SMTP relaying with IIS's virtual SMTP server. However I'm still completely stumped on this problem. Here's the setup: IIS 6.0 SMTP server running on Win2k3 box with a NAT'ed IP. Company uses Gmail for all email services. An app on the box needs to send email, so normally we'd just set the app up to talk to smtp.gmail.com directly, but this app doesn't support TLS. Easy, we just setup a local SMTP relay right? So I thought. What we have done so far: Setup IIS SMTP server to relay to smtp.gmail.com, as per these excellent instructions: http://fmuntean.wordpress.com/2008/10/26/how-to-configure-iis-smtp-server-to-forward-emails-using-a-gmail-account/ The local SMTP relay allows anonymous access. Both the local IP and the loopback IP have been explicitly allowed in the Connection and Relay dialogs. Tried sending email from 2 different apps via the local SMTP server, but failed (the emails end up in the Queue folder, but never get sent). The IIS logs show the conversation with the local app, but zero conversation happening with smtp.gmail.com. The port used by gmail is open outbound, and indeed the apps we have that support TLS can send email directly via smtp.gmail.com, so there is no problem with the network. At this point I changed the smtp settings in IIS SMTP server to use a different external SMTP server and hey-presto, the local apps can send email via local IIS SMTP relay. So smtp.gmail.com fails to work with our IIS SMTP relay, but another 3rd party SMTP service works fine. We need to use smtp.gmail.com, so how to troubleshoot this one?

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  • how to authenticate once for multiple servers, using only apache configs?

    - by Wang
    My problem is, I have a number of prepackaged web apps (a print system, a wiki, a bug tracker, an email archive, etc.) running on different Mac OS X Leopard (soon to be SL) servers that each need to authenticate users from the internet at large. Right now every server presents an Apache basic authentication prompt, which takes a shared login, but it's apparently enough of an inconvenience to log in repeatedly that people are sending email without checking the wiki or bug tracker or archive. In the case of the bug tracker, a user [might need to log in twice---once for apache if he hasn't used any other protected service on that server, once for the bug tracker itself so it can distinguish different people. Since the only common component to all these apps is Apache 2 itself, does it have any way of authenticating a user once, in some way that will be respected by other servers and various web apps? Looked at http://serverfault.com/questions/32421/how-is-session-stickiness-achieved-across-multiple-web-servers but it sounds like the answer is assuming that I get to write my own web app. Looked at Ian Bicking's blog but it's four years old and recommends something available only for apache 1.3, not apache 2. Sorry not to hyperlink the second site---apparently I need 10 reputation points. Edit: Shibboleth does what I need, but I should have specified that I'm looking for a really dumb, really simple solution for in-house services that need to handle all of a dozen users, probably not more than three at a time.

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  • Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio causing system freeze

    - by CRoshanLG
    I'm experiencing very slow response from MSSMS and it causes other applications to slow down. Specially Skype crashes after few seconds from opening MSSMS, showing an error called "Disk I/O Error". I'm regularly using few applications (Sublime text, MS Word, Firefox, Outlook, Skype and one or two other apps) simultaneously. The system works fine when MSSMS is not in use! But as soon as MSSMS is opened, all the apps start to freeze (MSSMS also responds very slow). This problem has been there for about a week now (I haven't installed any apps or haven't made any changes to the system during that time). -- System Specifications -- Processor: Core i3 (3.1 GHz) RAM: 4 GB OS: Windows 7 Professional (64 bit) Free space in C drive: ~ 100 GB MS SQL Server 2008 R2 Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio version - 10.50.1600.1 I've tried to find a reason for this but there are no helpful information in the web! There are some solutions suggested (in forums and in Skype Support pages) for the Skypes' "Disk I/O Error", all of which I tried but does not solve the problem. Has anyone faced the same senario? (and hopefully) knows a solution? Systems Log I don't have much knowledge in interpreting the System Log, but I think the Critical and Warnings are not helpful. But there are lots of Error logs which might be useful. In source Kernal-General there are few similar errors saying "An I/O operation initiated by the Registry failed unrecoverably.The Registry could not flush hive (file): <some file>" In source atapi also there are few similar errors -- "The driver detected a controller error on \Device\Ide\IdePort0." (all errors has occurred in 'IdePort0') In Application Error, there are several errors logged, and following is the latest one. Both the Errors which has occurred today is similar (to this one). As it is from Ssms.exe, I guess this is relevant to the cause of problem. But as I said above I can't understand what it means!

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  • Windows 7 task bar stuck in hiding, how to fix?

    - by Rainer Blome
    In Windows 7, I use the "Auto-hide the task bar" feature. Usually, it works fine: As soon as the pointer touches the screen bottom, the task bar pops up. However sometimes, it refuses to rise. Pressing the "Windows" key (or Ctrl-ESC) makes the start menu appear, forcing the task bar from hinding as well. Once I've done this, the task-bar auto-rises again. This is annoying, it interrupts flow. Has anyone else noticed this? How do I avoid this? Searching for "Windows 7 task bar auto-raise" shows that at least one other person experienced this problem: http://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/windows_7-desktop/how-can-i-fix-the-taskbars-auto-hide/8cdf6369-7354-4d29-9249-b7096ed0e28b?msgId=6dac3361-9d0f-4a9e-8642-b91a72826ba4 To answer the question posed by the "helpful" support engineer on the above page, of course I am running some apps when this happens, usually Explorer, Firefox, Eclipse, Cygwin/X, Xterm, Emacs, Notes, VPN client, Firewall. If my memory serves correctly, I have seen this behavior on earlier versions of Windows as well, XP at least. To reproduce this behavior, I tried switching between apps, and bringing apps to open other windows. I am unable to reproduce this behavior so far. So far, it appears to happen out of the blue, sometimes multiple times a day. Looks like a bug to me. The task bar should raise no matter what.

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  • Modifier key bug with Adobe Design Standard CS4 (Mac OS 10.6.6)

    - by Andy
    When I launch the Adobe apps, they ask me if I want to delete the preferences file. I say 'no'. Then, when using the apps, none of the tools seem to work properly, eg in Illustrator, I can't move objects without it duplicating the object. Photoshop constantly displays the contextual menu icon that usually only appears when you hold down the control key. I can't do any work in them when this happens, so I am forced to log out and then back in. They work for a while and then this annoying bug happens again. I think it must be to do with the modifier keys (command option and control). I think Adobe's apps must think I'm permanently pressing the modifier keys down - the thing is, no other app on my machine has this problem! Does anyone else experience this? Or have a fix for it? Any suggestions much appreciated. Running: Mac OS X 10.6.6 on an iMac. Adobe CS4 Design standard installed.

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