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• Does Team Foundation support cross-app workitem groups?

  - by drachenstern

  We're currently using Visual Source Safe and BugNet and looking to migrate up and away from VSS. I've been pushing for either SVN ( a) we're an ASP.NET shop, b) DCVS is not an option - no matter how much I like Hg ;-) or TFS. Well we finally got a new dev server, so I talked the boss into installing TFS on it (30 day trial). In the meantime, we had started experimenting with FogBugz. We really like FogBugz for about 80% of what we want to do, and the other 20% is probably stuff that we don't know what we want. I'm pushing for TFS because it allows for IDE integrated (mostly) everything. He's pushing for FogBugz because he can group tasks by customer and then project and manage everything from one dashboard. (which means I lose most of my IDE integration - no huge loss I agree) Does TFS support a single dashboard that would span all our solutions (in this case each solution is a full app that we sell to a vertical market client) and let us assign workitems to each solution-spanning-group? So for instance I think we envision something like this: PROJECT1 - Bugtracker and workitems PROJECT2 - Bugtracker and workitems PROJECT3 - Bugtracker and workitems CUSTOMER1 - Deployment schedules, required features, specific notes (Uses PROJECT1, PROJECT2) CUSTOMER2 - Deployment schedules, required features, specific notes (Uses PROJECT2, PROJECT3) CUSTOMER3 - Deployment schedules, required features, specific notes (Uses PROJECT1, PROJECT3) Hopefully that makes sense. naturally it's more complicated than this but I think I've given the details enough to paint a picture. I offered the option of creating dummy projects per customer but he doesn't like that and it doesn't really give us the single dashboard view that we're hoping to end up with (and that FogBugz as we've sorta implmented things does do now). Has anyone got a good suggestion on a management app that would accomplish what both of us want?

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• python histogram one-liner

  - by mykhal

  there are many ways, how to code histogram in Python. by histogram, i mean function, counting objects in an interable, resulting in the count table (i.e. dict). e.g.: >>> L = 'abracadabra' >>> histogram(L) {'a': 5, 'b': 2, 'c': 1, 'd': 1, 'r': 2} it can be written like this: def histogram(L): d = {} for x in L: if x in d: d[x] += 1 else: d[x] = 1 return d ..however, there are much less ways, how do this in a single expression. if we had "dict comprehensions" in python, we would write: >>> { x: L.count(x) for x in set(L) } but we don't have them, so we have to write: >>> dict([(x, L.count(x)) for x in set(L)]) however, this approach may yet be readable, but is not efficient - L is walked-through multiple times, so this won't work for single-life generators.. the function should iterate well also through gen(), where: def gen(): for x in L: yield x we can go with reduce (R.I.P.): >>> reduce(lambda d,x: dict(d, x=d.get(x,0)+1), L, {}) # wrong! oops, does not work, the key name is 'x', not x :( i ended with: >>> reduce(lambda d,x: dict(d.items() + [(x, d.get(x, 0)+1)]), L, {}) (in py3k, we would have to write list(d.items()) instead of d.items(), but it's hypothethical, since there is no reduce there) please beat me with a better one-liner, more readable! ;)

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• Launch .jar files with command line arguments (but with no console window)

  - by Virat Kadaru

  I have to do a demo of an application, the application has a server.jar and client.jar. Both have command line arguments and are executable. I need to launch two instances of server.jar and two instances of client.jar. I thought that using a batch file was the way to go, but, the batch file executes the first command (i.e. server.bat [argument1] [argument2]) and does not do anything else unless I close the first instance, in which case it then runs the 2nd command. And also the I do not want a blank console window to open (or be minimized) What I really need is a batch script that will just launch these apps without any console windows and launch all instances that I need. Thanks in Advance! EDIT: javaw: works if I type the command into the console window individually. If I put the same in the batch file, it will behave as before. Console window opens, one instance starts (whichever was first) and it does not proceed further unless I close the application in which case it runs the 2nd command. I want it to run all commands silently SOLUTION: Found the solution, below is the contents of my batch file @echo off start /B server.jar [arg1] [arg2] start /B server.jar [arg3] [arg4] @echo on this opens, runs all the commands and closes the window, does not wait for the command to finish.

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• How to prevent Hibernate from nullifying relationship column during entity removal

  - by Grzegorz

  I have two entities, A and B. I need to easily retrieve entities A, joined with entities B on the condition of equal values of some column (some column from A equal to some column in B). Those columns are not primary or foreign keys, they contain same business data. I just need to have access from each instance of A to the collection of B's with the same value of this column. So I model it like this: class A { @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name="column_in_B", referencedColumnName="column_in_A") Collection<B> bs; This way, I can run queries like "select A join fetch a.bs b where b...." (Actually, the real relationship here is many-to-many. But when I use @ManyToMany, Hibernate forces me to use join table, which doesnt exist here. So I have to use @OneToMany as workaround). So far so good. The main problem is: whenever I delete an instance of A, hibernate calls "Update B set column_in_B = null", becuase it thinks the column_in_B is foreign key pointing at primary key in A (and because row in A is deleted, it tries to clean the foreign key in B). BUT the column_in_B IS NOT a foreign key, and can't be modified, because it causes data lost (and this column is NOT NULL anyway in my case, causing data integerity exception to be thrown). Plese help me with this. How to model such relationships with Hibernate? (I would call it "virtual relationships", or "secondary relationships" or so: as they are not based on foreign keys, they are just some shortcuts which allows for retrieving related objects and quering for them with HQL)

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• Best pattern to load enumerated values from DAL using WCF RIA Services

  - by Dale Halliwell

  I would like to be able to load several RIA entitysets in a single call without chaining/nesting several small LoadOperations together so that they load sequentially. I have several pages that have a number of comboboxes on them. These comboboxes are populated with static values from a database (for example status values). Right now I preload these values in my VM by one method that strings together a series of LoadOperations for each type that I want to load. For example: public void LoadEnums() { context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues1Query()).Completed += (s, e) => { this.StatusValues1 = context.StatusValues1; context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues2()).Completed += (s1, e1) => { this.StatusValues2 = context.StatusValues2; context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues3Query()).Completed += (s2, e2) => { this.StatusValues3 = context.StatusValues3; (....and so on) }; }; }; }; While this works fine, it seems a bit nasty. Also, I would like to know when the last loadoperation completes so that I can load whatever entity I want to work on after this, so that these enumerated values resolve properly in form elements like comboboxes and listboxes. (I think) I can't do this easily above without creating a delegate and calling that on the completion of the last loadoperation. So my question is: does anyone out there know a better pattern to use, ideally where I can load all my static entitysets in a single LoadOperation?

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• Any HTTP proxies with explicit, configurable support for request/response buffering and delayed conn

  - by Carlos Carrasco

  When dealing with mobile clients it is very common to have multisecond delays during the transmission of HTTP requests. If you are serving pages or services out of a prefork Apache the child processes will be tied up for seconds serving a single mobile client, even if your app server logic is done in 5ms. I am looking for a HTTP server, balancer or proxy server that supports the following: A request arrives to the proxy. The proxy starts buffering in RAM or in disk the request, including headers and POST/PUT bodies. The proxy DOES NOT open a connection to the backend server. This is probably the most important part. The proxy server stops buffering the request when: A size limit has been reached (say, 4KB), or The request has been received completely, headers and body Only now, with (part of) the request in memory, a connection is opened to the backend and the request is relayed. The backend sends back the response. Again the proxy server starts buffering it immediately (up to a more generous size, say 64KB.) Since the proxy has a big enough buffer the backend response is stored completely in the proxy server in a matter of miliseconds, and the backend process/thread is free to process more requests. The backend connection is immediately closed. The proxy sends back the response to the mobile client, as fast or as slow as it is capable of, without having a connection to the backend tying up resources. I am fairly sure you can do 4-6 with Squid, and nginx appears to support 1-3 (and looks like fairly unique in this respect). My question is: is there any proxy server that empathizes these buffering and not-opening-connections-until-ready capabilities? Maybe there is just a bit of Apache config-fu that makes this buffering behaviour trivial? Any of them that it is not a dinosaur like Squid and that supports a lean single-process, asynchronous, event-based execution model? (Siderant: I would be using nginx but it doesn't support chunked POST bodies, making it useless for serving stuff to mobile clients. Yes cheap 50$ handsets love chunked POSTs... sigh)

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• LINQ query code for complex merging of data.

  - by Stacey

  I've posted this before, but I worded it poorly. I'm trying again with a more well thought out structure. Re-writing this a bit to make it more clear. I have the following code and I am trying to figure out the shorter linq expression to do it 'inline'. Please examine the "Run()" method near the bottom. I am attempting to understand how to join two dictionaries together based on a matching identifier in one of the objects - so that I can use the query in this sort of syntax. var selected = from a in items.List() // etc. etc. select a; This is my class structure. The Run() method is what I am trying to simplify. I basically need to do this conversion inline in a couple of places, and I wanted to simplify it a great deal so that I can define it more 'cleanly'. class TModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } } class TModels : List<TModel> { } class TValue { } class TStorage { public Dictionary<Guid, TValue> Items { get; set; } } class TArranged { public Dictionary<TModel, TValue> Items { get; set; } } static class Repository { static public TItem Single<TItem, TCollection>(Predicate<TItem> expression) { return default(TItem); // access logic. } } class Sample { public void Run() { TStorage tStorage = new TStorage(); // access tStorage logic here. Dictionary<TModel, TValue> d = new Dictionary<TModel, TValue>(); foreach (KeyValuePair<Guid, TValue> kv in tStorage.Items) { d.Add(Repository.Single<TModel, TModels>(m => m.Id == kv.Key),kv.Value); } } }

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• Python: query a class's parent-class after multiple derivations ("super()" does not work)

  - by henry

  Hi, I have built a class-system that uses multiple derivations of a baseclass (object-class1-class2-class3): class class1(object): def __init__(self): print "class1.__init__()" object.__init__(self) class class2(class1): def __init__(self): print "class2.__init__()" class1.__init__(self) class class3(class2): def __init__(self): print "class3.__init__()" class2.__init__(self) x = class3() It works as expected and prints: class3.__init__() class2.__init__() class1.__init__() Now I would like to replace the 3 lines object.__init__(self) ... class1.__init__(self) ... class2.__init__(self) with something like this: currentParentClass().__init__() ... currentParentClass().__init__() ... currentParentClass().__init__() So basically, i want to create a class-system where i don't have to type "classXYZ.doSomething()". As mentioned above, I want to get the "current class's parent-class". Replacing the three lines with: super(type(self), self).__init__() does NOT work (it always returns the parent-class of the current instance - class2) and will result in an endless loop printing: class3.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() ... So is there a function that can give me the current class's parent-class? Thank you for your help! Henry -------------------- Edit: @Lennart ok maybe i got you wrong but at the moment i think i didn't describe the problem clearly enough.So this example might explain it better: lets create another child-class class class4(class3): pass now what happens if we derive an instance from class4? y = class4() i think it clearly executes: super(class3, self).__init__() which we can translate to this: class2.__init__(y) this is definitly not the goal(that would be class3.__init__(y)) Now making lots of parent-class-function-calls - i do not want to re-implement all of my functions with different base-class-names in my super()-calls.

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• Field specific errors for ETL

  - by AaronLS

  I am creating a ETL process in MS SQL Server and I would like to have errors specific to a particular column of a particular row. For example, the data is initially loaded from excel files into a table(we'll call the Initial table) where all columns are varchar(2000) and then I stage the data to another table(the DataTypedTable) that contains more specific data types (datetime,int, etc.) or more tightly constrained varchar lengths. I need to be able to create error messages for a specific field such as: "Jan. 13th" is not a valid date format for the submission date. Please use a format of MM/DD/YYYY These error messages would need to be stored in some way such that later in the process a automated process can create reports with the error messages such that each message references a specific row and field(someone will need to go back and correct the data in the source system and resubmit the excel file). So ideally it would be inserted into a Failures tables of some sort and contain the primary key of the failed row, the column name, and the error message. Question: So I am wondering if this can be accomplished with SSIS, or some open source tool like Talend, and if so, what would be your general approach? Or what hand coded approach you would take? Couple approaches I've thought of using SQL(up until no I have done ETL by hand in SQL procs, but I want to consider other approaches. Possible C# even.): Use a cursor to read through the Initial table, and for each row insert a blank record with only the primary key into the DataTyped table, then use a single update statement for each column, such that if that update fails I can insert a very specific error message specific to that column in the error messages table. Insert all the data as is into the DataTyped table, but have duplicate columns like SubmissionDate and SubmissionDateOld. After the initial insert the *Old columns have data, the rest are blank, and I have a single update for each column that sets the SubmissionDate based on the SubmissionDateOld. In addition to suggesting an approach, I'd like to know if you are using that approach or something similar already in the work you do.

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• Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

  - by Ash Machine

  My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

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• Triple Quotes? How do I delimit a databound Javascript string parameter in ASP.NET?

  - by David HAust

  How do I delimit a Javascript databound string parameter in an anchor OnClick event? I have an anchor tag in an ASP.NET Repeater control. The OnClick event of the anchor contains a call to a Javascript function. The Javascript funciton takes a string for it's input parameter. The string parameter is populated with a databound value from the Repeater. I need the 'double quotes' for the Container.DataItem. I need the 'single quotes' for the OnClick. And I still need one more delimiter (triple quotes?) for the input string parameter of the Javascript function call. Since I can't use 'single quotes' again, how do I ensure the Javascript function knows the input parameter is a string and not an integer? Without the extra quotes around the input string parameter, the Javascript function thinks I'm passing in an integer. Cheers in advance for any knowledge you can drop. The anchor: <a id="aShowHide" onclick='ToggleDisplay(<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "JobCode") %>);' >Show/Hide</a> and here is the Javascript: <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript">/* Shows/Hides the Jobs Div */ function ToggleDisplay(jobCode) { /* Each div has it's ID set dynamically ('d' plus the JobCode) */ var elem = document.getElementById('d' + jobCode); if (elem) { if (elem.style.display != 'block') { elem.style.display = 'block'; elem.style.visibility = 'visible'; } else { elem.style.display = 'none'; elem.style.visibility = 'hidden'; } } }</script>

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• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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• JPanel.addComponentListener does not work when the listener is a class variable

  - by Coder

  I have a public class which has the following method and instance variable: public void setImagePanel(JPanel value) { imagePanel = value; if (imagePanel != null) { //method 1 : works imagePanel.addComponentListener(new ComponentAdapter() { public void componentResized(ComponentEvent evt) { System.out.println("Here 1"); } }); //method 2 : does not work panelResizeListener = new ResizeListener(); imagePanel.addComponentListener(panelResizeListener); //method 3 : works //ResizeListener listener = new ResizeListener(); //imagePanel.addComponentListener(listener); //method 4 : works //imagePanel.addComponentListener(new ResizeListener()); //method 5 : does not work -- THIS IS THE DESIRED CODE I WANT TO USE imagePanel.addComponentListener(panelResizeListener); } } public class ResizeListener extends ComponentAdapter { @Override public void componentResized(ComponentEvent evt) { System.out.println("RESIZE 3"); } } private ResizeListener panelResizeListener = new ResizeListener(); Each of the methods above correspond the to code immediately below until the next //method comment. What i don't understand is why i can't use the class instance variable and add that to the JPanel as a component listener. What happens in the cases above where i say that the method does not work is that i don't get the "RESIZE 3" log messages. In all cases where i list that it works, then i get the "RESIZE 3" messages. The outer class is public with no other modification except that it implements an interface that i created (which has no methods or variables in common with the methods and variables listed above). If anyone can help me i would greatly appreciate it. This problem makes no sense to me, the code should be identical.

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• Why is this CHOICE element not getting assigned in my SharePoint Field definition schema?

  - by ccornet

  I defined a new field of the type "Choice" for my web application. It will serve basically as a pseudo-lookup as its contents are defined by the value of a Text field in a list. It is initialized with a dummy choice to begin with (I'm under the impression a choice field needs at least one choice when defined), which is replaced with a real choice later on. But for some reason, this dummy choice is never actually added to the choices! Below is the XML Schema for the field in question. <Field ID="{ALICEH-ASFA-KEGU-IDLISTED}" Name="ddlSystems" Group="Lookup Columns" DisplayName="ddlSystems" Type="Choice" Sealed="FALSE" ReadOnly="FALSE" Hidden="FALSE" FillInChoice="TRUE" DisplaceOnUpgrade="TRUE"> <CHOICES> <CHOICE>BLANULL</CHOICE> </CHOICES> <Default>BLANULL</Default> </Field> Initially, I used a default choice of (a single space), but I changed it to BLANULL so that I can parse an actual word instead of a veritably empty string. Now, even after having uninstalled and reinstalled the feature with this field, I have a choice field that has (still a single space) as the only choice. Even more perplexing, BLANULL is actually listed for the default value in both the UI and the object model! What is causing this problem, and how can I circumvent it so that I don't have to manually set this dummy value each time?

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• UpdateAllViews() from within a worker thread?

  - by Harvey

  I have a worker thread in a class that is owned by a ChildView. (I intend to move this to the Doc eventually.) When the worker thread completes a task I want all the views to be updated. How can I make a call to tell the Doc to issue an UpdateAllViews()? Or is there a better approach? Thank you. Added by OP: I am looking for a simple solution. The App is running on a single user, single CPU computer and does not need network (or Internet) access. There is nothing to cause a deadlock. I think I would like to have the worker thread post (or send) a message to cause the views to update. Everything I read about threading seems way more complicated than what I need - and, yes, I understand that all those precautions are necessary for applications that are running in multiprocessor, multiuser, client-server systems, etc. But none of those apply in my situation. I am just stuck at getting the right combination of getting the window handle, posting the message and responding to the message in the right functions and classes to compile and function at all.

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• Eclipse+PyDev+GAE memcache error

  - by bocco

  I've started using Eclipe+PyDev as an environment for developing my first app for Google App Engine. Eclipse is configured according to this tutorial. Everything was working until I start to use memcache. PyDev reports the errors and I don't know how to fix it: Error: Undefined variable from import: get How to fix this? Sure, it is only PyDev checker problem. Code is correct and run on GAE. UPDATE: I'm using PyDev 1.5.0 but experienced the same with 1.4.8. My PYTHONPATH includes (set in Project Properties/PyDev - PYTHONPATH): C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\django C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\webob C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\yaml\lib UPDATE 2: I took a look at C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\api\memcache\__init__.py and found get() is not declared as memcache module function. They use the following trick to do that (I didn't hear about such possibility): _CLIENT = None def setup_client(client_obj): """Sets the Client object instance to use for all module-level methods. Use this method if you want to have customer persistent_id() or persistent_load() functions associated with your client. Args: client_obj: Instance of the memcache.Client object. """ global _CLIENT var_dict = globals() _CLIENT = client_obj var_dict['set_servers'] = _CLIENT.set_servers var_dict['disconnect_all'] = _CLIENT.disconnect_all var_dict['forget_dead_hosts'] = _CLIENT.forget_dead_hosts var_dict['debuglog'] = _CLIENT.debuglog var_dict['get'] = _CLIENT.get var_dict['get_multi'] = _CLIENT.get_multi var_dict['set'] = _CLIENT.set var_dict['set_multi'] = _CLIENT.set_multi var_dict['add'] = _CLIENT.add var_dict['add_multi'] = _CLIENT.add_multi var_dict['replace'] = _CLIENT.replace var_dict['replace_multi'] = _CLIENT.replace_multi var_dict['delete'] = _CLIENT.delete var_dict['delete_multi'] = _CLIENT.delete_multi var_dict['incr'] = _CLIENT.incr var_dict['decr'] = _CLIENT.decr var_dict['flush_all'] = _CLIENT.flush_all var_dict['get_stats'] = _CLIENT.get_stats setup_client(Client()) Hmm... Any idea how to force PyDev to recognize that?

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• Best way to replace mass emails sent from Entourage with a proper mailing list solution?

  - by aaandre

  I am helping a Los Angeles choreographer to transition away from sending her announcements via Entourage. Here's the situation: She has multiple conact groups, and sends classes and performance announcements several times a month, to different groups. She manages the contact groups manually. The group size is between 1500 and 2500 people. Recently verizon blocked her outgoing port 25, presumably for spam activity. Again, her contacts are interested in the content. She is aware of mailchimp, constantcontact etc. but would like to be able to send the email via her email software and not have to create a newsletter for every single mailing. Also, she's very short on $$. So, what would be the best way to set up a system allowing her to send announcements from Entourage, with attached images, to her lists, without having Entourage send every single email? I am thinking of setting up a set of mailing lists, each corresponding to one of her groups. I have never set up a mailing list before and am wondering if it's possible to have a list accept emails from only one person (Admin) and distribute them to the group? Recipients should be able to unsubscribe easily, and by default reply to her but not the list. She should be the only one able to use the list for distribution, and should be able to send messages (with attachments) directly from her email client without modification. Is this possible? Where can I find step-by-step instructions? What are best practices to avoid her domain being blacklisted? What's the easiest way to convert her contact groups to mailing list subscribers? I am helping her for free, so the simpler the better :) Thank you! UPDATE: She has a standard linux hosting account allowing her to run php etc. And, ideally, the emails would come from her personally or at least from her domain name.

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• Android Multiple Handlers Design Question

  - by Soumya Simanta

  This question is related to an existing question I asked. I though I'll ask a new question instead of replying back to the other question. Cannot "comment" on my previous question because of a word limit. Marc wrote - I've more than one Handlers in an Activity." Why? If you do not want a complicated handleMessage() method, then use post() (on Handler or View) to break the logic up into individual Runnables. Multiple Handlers makes me nervous. I'm new to Android. Is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? I'm new to Android. My question is - is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? Here is the sketch of my current implementation. I've a mapActivity that creates a data thread (a UDP socket that listens for data). My first handler is responsible for sending data from the data thread to the activity. On the map I've a bunch of "dynamic" markers that are refreshed frequently. Some of these markers are video markers i.e., if the user clicks a video marker, I add a ViewView that extends a android.opengl.GLSurfaceView to my map activity and display video on this new vide. I use my second handler to send information about the marker that the user tapped on ItemizedOverlay onTap(int index) method. The user can close the video view by tapping on the video view. I use my third handler for this. I would appreciate if people can tell me what's wrong with this approach and suggest better ways to implement this. Thanks.

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• A map and set which uses contiguous memory and has a reserve function

  - by edA-qa mort-ora-y

  I use several maps and sets. The lack of contiguous memory, and high number of (de)allocations, is a performance bottleneck. I need a mainly STL-compatbile map and set class which can use a contiguous block of memory for internal objects (or multiple blocks). It also needs to have a reserve function so that I can preallocate for expected sizes. Before I write my own I'd like to check what is available first. Is there something in Boost which does this? Does somebody know of an available implementation elsewhere? Intrusive collection types are not usable here as the same objects need to exist in several collections. As far as I know STL memory pools are per-type, not per instance. These global pools are not efficient with respect to memory locality in mutli-cpu/core processing. Object pools don't work as the types will be shared between instance but their pool should not. In many cases a hash map may be an option in some cases.

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• Problem using NSXMLParser with NOAA data on iPhone

  - by Amagrammer

  Can anyone help me see why NSXMLParser is not causing these methods parser:didStartElement:namespaceURI:qualifiedName:attributes: parser:didEndElement:namespaceURI:qualifiedName:attributes: to fire for the part of the following data: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?><SOAP-ENV:Envelope SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:NDFDgenResponse xmlns:ns1=""><dwmlOut xsi:type="xsd:string"><?xml version="1.0"?> <dwml version="1.0" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="http://www.nws.noaa.gov/forecasts/xml/DWMLgen/schema/DWML.xsd"> (body excluded) </dwml> </dwmlOut></ns1:NDFDgenResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope> I'm not an XML expert, but to me, the part looks like just a regular element, to be parsed just like the parts before it. I do get two parser:parseErrorOccurred: errors, #200 and #201, but they occur during the parsing of the <SOAP-ENV:Body> element, not the element, so I'm not sure if they are relevant. Thanks for any help you can give me.

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• Coldfusion Web Service Response Problem

  - by Ivan Paloscia

  I have a problem with the Web Service I recently developed. The problem is about the Web Service response. More precisely sometimes the Web Service sends back the following response: <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <ns1:GetConstants2Response soapenv:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:ns1="http://usermanagerwstest"> <GetConstants2Return xsi:type="ns2:CFComponentSkeleton" xmlns:ns2="http://rpc.xml.coldfusion"/> </ns1:GetConstants2Response> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> Instead the correct response (that sometimes shows up in an intermittent way) is reported below: <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <ns1:GetConstants2Response soapenv:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:ns1="http://usermanagerwstest"> <GetConstants2Return xsi:type="ns1:Constants2"> <BooleanTypeFalse xsi:type="xsd:string">0</BooleanTypeFalse> <BooleanTypeTrue xsi:type="xsd:string">1</BooleanTypeTrue> <GenderFemale xsi:type="xsd:string">F</GenderFemale> <GenderMale xsi:type="xsd:string">M</GenderMale> <LanguageEnglish xsi:type="xsd:string">inglese</LanguageEnglish> <LanguageItalian xsi:type="xsd:string">italiano</LanguageItalian> </GetConstants2Return> </ns1:GetConstants2Response> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> Where does the CFCComponentSkeleton comes from? I thank everybody in advance.

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• How to prevent parallel builds per build configuration across multiple Build Agents

  - by vanslly

  I have many build configurations in TeamCity, each servicing a large project. In the past if a build is kicked off the Build Agent could be busy for up to 20min! In order to improve throughput I installed a second Build Agent on the same machine such that if a build run is kicked off by say Build Agent 1 and it is busy for 20min and someone from another project makes a change then Build Agent 2 can do the build for the other project without needing to wait on the current build run to finish. All was well until two successive check-ins resulted in both Build Agents running a build for a single build configuration in parallel. Since some resources are shared, IIS directories & databases, I don't want a single build configuration to run on both Build Agents in parallel. How can I ensure a build isn't triggered if a build is currently running for that build configuration on a different build agent? One way seems to involve environmental variables and ensuring a 50/50 split by Build Agent in terms of build configuration compatibility, but that seems a little clunky.

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• Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

  - by nafe

  I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

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• objective C architecture question

  - by thekevinscott

  Hey folks, I'm currently teaching myself objective C. I've gone through the tutorials, but I find I learn best when slogging through a project of my own, so I've embarked on making a backgammon app. Now that I'm partway in, I'm realizing there's some overall architecture things I just don't understand. I've established a "player" class, a "piece" class, and a "board" class. A piece theoretically belongs to both a player and the board. For instance, a player has a color, and every turn makes a move; so the player owns his pieces. At the same time, when moving a piece, it has to check whether it's a valid move, whether there are pieces on the board, etc. From my reading it seems like it's frowned upon to reach across classes. For instance, when a player makes a move, where should the function live that moves the piece? Should it exist on board? This would be my instinct, as the board should decide whether a move is valid or not; but the piece needs to initialize that query, as its the one being moved, no? Any info to help a noob would be super appreciated. Thanks guys!

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• Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

  - by wilth

  Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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