Search Results

Search found 28957 results on 1159 pages for 'single instance'.

Page 304/1159 | < Previous Page | 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311  | Next Page >

• PHP Loop Over ONLY Different Arrays

  - by Steven

  Hello, I have a single array with several of the same values. And I only want to loop over DIFFERENT values. How could I go about doing this? Example 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108_119 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108_119 I have that in a single array, but I only want to loop for the different ones. So it would loop once for nothing, then once for _86, then once for _86_97, then once for _86_97_108, and then once for _86-97_108_119. So only loop for different key values, or would there be a way to count the number of different keys?

  Read the article

• Debugging unexpected error message - possible memory management problem?

  - by Ben Packard

  I am trying to debug an application that is throwing up strange (to my untutored eyed) errors. When I try to simply log the count of an array... NSLog(@"Array has %i items", [[self startingPlayers] count]); ...I sometimes get an error: -[NSCFString count]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1002af600 or other times -[NSConcreteNotification count]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1002af600 I am not sending 'count' to any NSString or NSNotification, and this line of code works fine normally. A Theory... Although the error varies, the crash happens at predictable times, immediately after I have run through some other code where I'm thinking I might have a memory management issue. Is it possible that the object reference is still pointing to something that is meant to be destroyed? Sorry if my terms are off, but perhaps it's expecting the array at the address it calls 'count' on, but finds another previous object that shouldn't still be there (eg an NSString)? Would this cause the problem? If so, what is the most efficient way to debug and find out what is that address? Most of my debugging up until now involves inserting NSLogs, so this would be a good opportunity to learn how to use the debugger.

  Read the article

• Scrollbar with Sprite and Rectangle won't move text, just the Rectangle it's painted on.

  - by WebDevHobo

  Warning: school assignment. For those of you still with me, I am tasked with making some scrollable content in Flash. Load in a TextFile using LoadURL(), then display it. To get the text, we've written our own class TextFieldExtended, which is basically just there to give the textfile location to the constructor and then have the class do the various steps of getting it and loading it for you. So I needed to get a Scrollbar, which I got here: http://kirupa.com/forum/showthread.php?t=245468 (all files in a zip linked at the end of this text) The thing is, it works with Sprites. After trying to get it to accept TextFieldExtended, I bumped into a block, since the scrollbar relied heavily on a Sprite property that TextFieldExtended didn't have or could have. So I tried adding the TextFieldExtended instance to a Sprite instance using addchild. A problem occurs here that I do not know how to handle. It seems that a Rectangle is drawn and the Text is drawn on that. I say this because the scrollbar moves the Rectangle up and down a bit, but the text doesn't scroll, just the Rectangle it is positioned in and the text then moves along with it. My question: can this be fixed, or is does this implementation of scrollbars need a lot of adaptations before this is possible? If so, any scrollbars you can recommend, because it's too extended for me at this point. All files: http://www.mediafire.com/?q2ium22gmox This was made in Flash CS4 using ActionScript3. The Example class is the final implementation

  Read the article

• How to refactor these generic methods?

  - by Steve Crane

  I have written two nearly identical generic extension methods and am trying to figure out how I might refactor them into a single method. They differ only in that one operates on List and the other on List, and the properties I'm interested in are AssetID for AssetDocument and PersonID for PersonDocument. Although AssetDocument and PersonDocument have the same base class the properties are defined in each class so I don't think that helps. I have tried public static string ToCSVList<T>(this T list) where T : List<PersonDocument>, List<AssetDocument> thinking I might then be able to test the type and act accordingly but this results in the syntax error Type parameter 'T' inherits conflicting constraints These are the methods that I would like to refactor into a single method but perhaps I am simply going overboard and they would besat be left as they are. I'd like to hear what you think. public static string ToCSVList<T>(this T list) where T : List<AssetDocument> { var sb = new StringBuilder(list.Count * 36 + list.Count); string delimiter = String.Empty; foreach (var document in list) { sb.Append(delimiter + document.AssetID.ToString()); delimiter = ","; } return sb.ToString(); } public static string ToCSVList<T>(this T list) where T : List<PersonDocument> { var sb = new StringBuilder(list.Count * 36 + list.Count); string delimiter = String.Empty; foreach (var document in list) { sb.Append(delimiter + document.PersonID.ToString()); delimiter = ","; } return sb.ToString(); }

  Read the article

• Serialize a C# class to xml. Store the XML as a string in SQL Server and then restore the class late

  - by BrianK

  I want to serialize a class to xml and store that in a field in a database. I can serialize with this: StringWriter sw = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer xmlser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyClass)); xmlser.Serialize(sw, myClassVariable); string s = sw.ToString(); sw.Close(); Thats works, but it has the namesapces in it. xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Will these slow down the deserialization because it will go out to those and verify the XML? I got rid of the namespaces by creating a blank XmlSerializerNamespaces and using that to serialize, but then the xml still had namespaces around integer variables: <anyType xmlns:q1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" d3p1:type="q1:int" xmlns:d3p1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> 3 </anyType> My question is: Is it necessary to have the namesapces for deserialization and if not, how to get rid of them? How do I tell it fields are ints so it doesnt put in "anytype" Thanks, Brian

  Read the article

• Does NULL and nil are equal?

  - by monish

  Hi Guys, Actually my question here is does Null and nil are equal or not? I had an Example but I am confused when they are equal when they are not. NSNull *nullValue = [NSNull null]; NSArray *arrayWithNull = [NSArray arrayWithObject:nullValue]; NSLog(@"arrayWithNull: %@", arrayWithNull); id aValue = [arrayWithNull objectAtIndex:0]; if (aValue == nil) { NSLog(@"equals nil"); } else if (aValue == [NSNull null]) { NSLog(@"equals NSNull instance"); if ([aValue isEqual:nil]) { NSLog(@"isEqual:nil"); } } Here in the above case it shows that both Null and nil are not equal and it displays "equals NSNull instance" NSString *str=NULL; id str1=nil; if(str1 == str) { printf("\n IS EQUAL........"); } else { printf("\n NOT EQUAL........"); } And in the second case it shows both are equal and it displays "IS EQUAL". Anyone's help will be much appreciated. Thank you, Monish.

  Read the article

• WCF service with PHP client - complex type as parameter not working

  - by Matt F

  Hi, I have a WCF service with three methods. Two of the methods return custom types (these work as expected), and the third method takes a custom type as a parameter and returns a boolean. When calling the third method via a PHP soap client it returns an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' exception. Example Custom Type: _ Public Class MyClass Private _propertyA As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyA() As Double Get Return _propertyA End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyA = value End Set End Property Private _propertyB As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyB() As Double Get Return _propertyB End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyB = value End Set End Property Private _propertyC As Date <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyC() As Date Get Return _propertyC End Get Set(ByVal value As Date) _propertyC = value End Set End Property End Class Method: Public Function Add(ByVal param As MyClass) As Boolean Implements IService1.Add ' ... End Function PHP client call: $client-Add(array('param'=array( 'PropertyA' = 1, 'PropertyB' = 2, 'PropertyC' = "2009-01-01" ))); The WCF service works fine with a .Net client but I'm new to PHP and can't get this to work. Is it possible to create an instance of 'MyClass' in PHP. Any help would be appreciated. Note: I'm using PHP 5 (XAMPP 1.7.0 for Windows). Thanks Matt

  Read the article

• What is the best database structure for this scenario?

  - by Ricketts

  I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Login with Kohana auth module - what am I doing wrong?

  - by keithjgrant

  I'm trying to login with the following controller action, but my login attempt keeps failing (I get the 'invalid username and/or password' message). What am I doing wrong? I also tried the other method given in the examples in the auth documentation, Auth::instance()->login($user->username, $form->password);, but I get the same result. Kohana version is 2.3.4. public function login() { $auth = Auth::instance(); if ($auth->logged_in()) { url::redirect('/account/summary'); } $view = new View('login'); $view->username = ''; $view->password = ''; $post = $this->input->post(); $form = new Validation($post); $form->pre_filter('trim', 'username') ->pre_filter('trim', 'password') ->add_rules('username', 'required'); $failed = false; if (!empty($post) && $form->validate()) { $login = array( 'username' => $form->username, 'password' => $form->password, ); if (ORM::factory('user')->login($login)) { url::redirect('/accounts/summary'); } else { $view->username = $form->username; $view->message = in_array('required', $form->errors()) ? 'Username and password are required.' : 'Invalid username and/or password.'; } } $view->render(true); }

  Read the article

• transactions and delete using fluent nhibernate

  - by Will I Am

  I am starting to play with (Fluent) nHibernate and I am wondering if someone can help with the following. I'm sure it's a total noob question. I want to do: delete from TABX where name = 'abc' where table TABX is defined as: ID int name varchar(32) ... I build the code based on internet samples: using (ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("FROM TABX WHERE name = :uid") .SetString("uid", "abc"); session.Delete(query.List<Person>()[0]); transaction.Commit(); } but alas, it's generating two queries (one select and one delete). I want to do this in a single statement, as in my original SQL. What is the correct way of doing this? Also, I noticed that in most samples on the internet, people tend to always wrap all queries in transactions. Why is that? If I'm only running a single statement, that seems an overkill. Do people tend to just mindlessly cut and paste, or is there a reason beyond that? For example, in my query above, if I do manage it to get it from two queries down to one, i should be able to remove the begin/commit transaction, no? if it matters, I'm using PostgreSQL for experimenting.

  Read the article

• Does posting data with a textarea automatically add slashes to (escape) the text?

  - by animuson

  Ok, so I'm having a problem with a simple textarea. I'm using a kind of hidden page to easily encode some data using JSON. However, all of my text input is automatically being escaped somewhere and I don't know where. All of my $_POST variables are automatically run through the htmlentities() function when the script starts up, as seen below: $ani->i->post = $this->clean($_POST, true); function clean($values, $unset = false) { if (is_array($values)) { foreach ($values as $key => $value) { $newkey = strtolower($key); $return[$newkey] = $this->clean($value); unset($values[$key]); } return $return; } return htmlentities($values); } I keep getting \' for all of my single quotes when I put the value back into the textarea. I can't find anywhere where it would be adding slashes and I don't remember it being a feature that they were automatically added when you submit from a textarea, and if that was so, why would they not be returning back to a single quote when put back into the textarea? Do I really need to run variables through stripslashes() to get them back to their original form? Edit: My 'test.php' file is as follows: <h1>To Be Encoded:</h1> <form action="/test" method="post"> <textarea name="encode" rows="20" cols="50"><?= html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode']) ?></textarea> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Encode It!" /> </form> <h1>Encoded By JSON:</h1> <textarea name="encoded" rows="20" cols="50"><?= json_encode(html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode'])) ?></textarea> <?php die(); ?> P.S. The die() is just there for compatibility with my framework.

  Read the article

• Java: Initializing a public static field in superclass that needs a different value in every subclas

  - by BinaryMuse

  Good evening, I am developing a set of Java classes so that a container class Box contains a List of a contained class Widget. A Widget needs to be able to specify relationships with other Widgets. I figured a good way to do this would be to do something like this: public abstract class Widget { public static class WidgetID { // implementation stolen from Google's GWT private static int nextHashCode; private final int index; public WidgetID() { index = ++nextHashCode; } public final int hashCode() { return index; } } public abstract WidgetID getWidgetID(); } so sublcasses of Widget could: public class BlueWidget extends Widget { public static final WidgetID WIDGETID = new WidgetID(); @Override public WidgetID getWidgetID() { return WIDGETID; } } Now, BlueWidget can do getBox().addWidgetRelationship(RelationshipTypes.SomeType, RedWidget.WIDGETID, and Box can iterate through it's list comparing the second parameter to iter.next().getWidgetID(). Now, all this works great so far. What I'm trying to do is keep from having to declare the public static final WidgetID WIDGETID in all the subclasses and implement it instead in the parent Widget class. The problem is, if I move that line of code into Widget, then every instance of a subclass of Widget appears to get the same static final WidgetID for their Subclassname.WIDGETID. However, making it non-static means I can no longer even call Subclassname.WIDGETID. So: how do I create a static WidgetID in the parent Widget class while ensuring it is different for every instance of Widget and subclasses of Widget? Or am I using the wrong tool for the job here? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

  - by Adam

  I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

  Read the article

• Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton

  - by Tzur Gazit

  I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

  Read the article

• .Net Finalizer Order / Semantics in Esent and Ravendb

  - by mattcodes

  Help me understand. I've read that "The time and order of execution of finalizers cannot be predicted or pre-determined" Correct? However looking at RavenDB source code TransactionStorage.cs I see this ~TransactionalStorage() { try { Trace.WriteLine( "Disposing esent resources from finalizer! You should call TransactionalStorage.Dispose() instead!"); Api.JetTerm2(instance, TermGrbit.Abrupt); } catch (Exception exception) { try { Trace.WriteLine("Failed to dispose esent instance from finalizer because: " + exception); } catch { } } } The API class (which belongs to Managed Esent) which presumable takes handles on native resources presumably using a SafeHandle? So if I understand correctly the native handles SafeHandle can be finalized before TransactionStorage which could have undesired effects, perhaps why Ayende has added an catch all clause around this? Actually diving into Esent code, it does not use SafeHandles. According to CLR via C# this is dangerous? internal static class SomeType { [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] // This prototype is not robust private static extern IntPtr CreateEventBad( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name); // This prototype is robust [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] private static extern SafeWaitHandle CreateEventGood( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name) public static void SomeMethod() { IntPtr handle = CreateEventBad(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); SafeWaitHandle swh = CreateEventGood(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); } } Managed Esent (NativeMEthods.cs) looks like this (using Ints vs IntPtrs?): [DllImport(EsentDll, CharSet = EsentCharSet, ExactSpelling = true)] public static extern int JetCreateDatabase(IntPtr sesid, string szFilename, string szConnect, out uint dbid, uint grbit); Is Managed Esent handling finalization/dispoal the correct way, and second is RavenDB handling finalizer the corret way or compensating for Managed Esent?

  Read the article

• Architecture Guidance Needed?

  - by vijay

  We are about to automate number of process for our reporting team. (The reports are like daily reports, weekly reports, monthly reports, etc..) Mostly the process is like pulling some data from the oracle and then fill them in particular excel template files. Each reports and so their templates are different from each other. Except the excel file manipulation, there are hardly any business logic behind these. Client wanted an integrated tool and all the automated processes are placed as menus/submenus. Right now roughly there are around 30 process waiting to be automated. And we are expecting more new reports in the next quarter. I am nowhere to near having any practical experience when comes to architecuring. Already i have been maintaining two or three systems(they are more than 4yrs old.) for this prestegious client.The possiblity of the above mentioned tool will be manintained for another 3 yrs is very likely. From my past experience i've been through the pain of implmenting change requests to the rigd & undocumented code base resulting in the break down of the system and then eventually myself. So My main and top most concern is the maintainablity. When i was searching for these i came across this link, Smart Clients Using CAB and SCSF is the above link appropriate for my requirement? Also Should i place each automated processes in separate forms under a single project, or place them in separate projects under a single solution.. Please correct me if have missed any other important information. Thx.

  Read the article

• Assembly unavailable after Web.config change

  - by tags2k

  I'm using a custom framework that uses reflection to do a GetTypeByName(string fullName) on the fully-qualified type name that it gets from the database, to create an instance of said type and add it to the page, resulting in a standard modular kind of thing. GetTypeByName is a utility function of mine that simply iterates through Thread.GetDomain().GetAssemblies(), then performs an assembly.GetType(fullName) to find the relevant type. Obviously this result gets cached for future reference and speed. However, I'm experiencing some issues whereby if the web.config gets updated (and, in some scarier instances if the application pool gets recycled) then it will lose all knowledge of certain assemblies, resulting in the inability to render an instance of the module type. Debugging shows that the missing assembly literally does not exist in the current thread assemblies list. To get around this I added a second check which is a bit dirty but recurses through the /bin/ directory's DLLs and checks that each one exists in the assemblies list. If it doesn't, it loads it using Assembly.Load and fixing the context issue thanks to 'Solving the Assembly Load Context Problem'. This would work, only it seems that (and I'm aware this shouldn't be possible) some projects still have access to the missing assembly, for example my actual web project rather than the framework itself - and it then complains that duplicate references have been added! Has anyone ever heard of anything like this, or have any ideas why an assembly would simply drop out of existence on a config change? Short of a solution, what is the most elegant workaround to get all the assemblies in the bin to reload? It needs to be all in one "hit" so that the site visitors don't see any difference other than a small delay, so an app_offline.htm file is out of the question. Programatically renaming a DLL in the bin and then naming it back does work, but requires "modify" permissions for the IIS user account, which is insane. Thanks for any pointers the community can gather!

  Read the article

• MySQL Gurus: How to pull a complex grid of data from MySQL database with one query?

  - by iopener

  Hopefully this is less complex than I think. I have one table of companies, and another table of jobs, and a third table with that contains a single entry for each employee in each job from each company. NOTE: Some companies won't have employees in some jobs, and some companies will have more than one employee in some jobs. The company table has a companyid and companyname field, the job table has a jobid and jobtitle field, and the employee table has employeeid, companyid, jobid and employeename fields. I want to build a table like this: +-----------+-----------+-----------+ | Company A | Company B | Company C | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job A | Emp 1 | Emp 2 | | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job B | Emp 3 | | Emp 4 | | | | Emp 5 | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job C | | Emp 6 | | | | Emp 7 | | | | Emp 8 | | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ I had previously been looping through a result set of jobs, and for each job, looping through a result set of each company, and for each company, looping through each employee and printing it in a table (gross, but performance was not supposed to be a consideration). The app has grown in popularity, and now we have 100 companies and hundreds of jobs, and the server is crapping out (all the id fields are indexed). Any suggestions on how to write a single query to get this data? I don't need the company names or job titles (obviously), but I do need some way to identify where each row from the result should be printed. I'm imagining a result set that just contained a long list of joined employees, and I could write a loop to use the companyid and employeeid values to tell me when to create a new cell or table row. This works as long as there aren't ZERO employees; I would need a NULL employee name for that I think? Am I completely on the wrong track? Thanks in advance for any ideas!

  Read the article

• iPhone OS: Is there a way to set up KVO between two ManagedObject Entities?

  - by nickthedude

  I have 2 entities I want to link with KVO, one a single statTracker class that keeps track of different stats and the other an achievement class that contains information about achievements. Ideally what I want to be able to do is set up KVO by having an instance of the achievement class observe a value on the statTracker class and also set up a threshold value at which the achievement instance should be "triggered"(triggering in this case would mean showing a UIAlertView and changing a property on the achievement class.) I'd like to also set these relationships up on instantiation of the achievement class if possible so kind of like this: Achievement *achievement1 = (Achievement *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Achievement" inManagedObjectContext:[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext]]; [achievement1 setAchievementName:@"2 time launcher"]; [achievement1 setAchievementDescription:@"So you've decided to come back for more eh? Here are some achievement points to get you going"]; [achievement1 setAchievementPoints:[NSNumber numberWithInt:300]; [achievement1 setObjectToObserve:@"statTrackerInstace" propertyToObserve:@"timesLaunched" valueOfPropertToSatisfyAchievement:2] Anyone out there know how I would set this up? Is there some way I could do this by way of relationships that I'm not seeing? Thanks, Nick

  Read the article

• MySQL Query That Can Pull the Data I am Seeking?

  - by Amy

  On the project I am working on, I am stuck with the table structure from Hades. Two things to keep in mind: I can't change the table structure right now. I'm stuck with it for the time being. The queries are dynamically generated and not hard coded. So, while I am asking for a query that can pull this data, what I am really working toward is an algorithm that will generate the query I need. Hopefully, I can explain the problem without making your eyes glaze over and your brain implode. We have an instance table that looks (simplified) along these lines: Instances InstanceID active 1 Y 2 Y 3 Y 4 N 5 Y 6 Y Then, there are multiple data tables along these lines: Table1 InstanceID field1 reference_field2 1 John 5 2 Sally NULL 3 Fred 6 4 Joe NULL Table2 InstanceID field3 5 1 6 1 Table3 InstanceID fieldID field4 5 1 Howard 5 2 James 6 2 Betty Please note that reference_field2 in Table1 contains a reference to another instance. Field3 in Table2 is a bit more complicated. It contains a fieldID for Table 3. What I need is a query that will get me a list as follows: InstanceID field1 field4 1 John Howard 2 Sally 3 Fred The problem is, in the query I currently have, I do not get Fred because there is no entry in Table3 for fieldID 1 and InstanceID 6. So, the very best list I have been able to get thus far is InstanceID field1 field4 1 John Howard 2 Sally In essence, if there is an entry in Table1 for Field 2, and there is not an entry in Table 3 that has the instanceID contained in field2 and the field ID contained in field3, I don't get the data from field1. I have looked at joins till I'm blue in the face, and I can't see a way to handle the case when table3 has no entry.

  Read the article

• How to find the first declaring method for a reference method

  - by Oliver Gierke

  Suppose you have a generic interface and an implementation: public interface MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param); } public class MyImplementation<T> implements MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param) { } } These two types are frework types. In the next step I want allow users to extend that interface as well as redeclare foo(T param) to maybe equip it with further annotations. public interface MyExtendedInterface extends MyInterface<Bar> { @Override void foo(Bar param); // Further declared methods } I create an AOP proxy for the extended interface and intercept especially the calls to furtherly declared methods. As foo(…) is no redeclared in MyExtendedInterface I cannot execute it by simply invoking MethodInvocation.proceed() as the instance of MyImplementation only implements MyInterface.foo(…) and not MyExtendedInterface.foo(…). So is there a way to get access to the method that declared a method initially? Regarding this example is there a way to find out that foo(Bar param) was declared in MyInterface originally and get access to the accoriding Method instance? I already tried to scan base class methods to match by name and parameter types but that doesn't work out as generics pop in and MyImplementation.getMethod("foo", Bar.class) obviously throws a NoSuchMethodException. I already know that MyExtendedInterface types MyInterface to Bar. So If I could create some kind of "typed view" on MyImplementation my math algorithm could work out actually.

  Read the article

• RegularExpression-esque search matching Objects in List

  - by Pindatjuh

  I'm currently working on an implementation of the following idea, and I was wondering if there is any literature on this subject. Working with Java, but the principle applies on any language with a decent type-system, I like to implement: matching Objects from a List using a RegularExpression-esque search: So let's say I have a List containing List<Object> x = new ArrayList<Object>(); x.add(new Object()); x.add("Hello World"); x.add("Second String"); x.add(5); // Integer (auto-boxing) x.add(6); // Integer Then I create a "Regular Expression" (not working with a stream of characters, but working with a stream of Objects), and instead of character-classes, I use type-system properties: [String][Integer] And this would match one sublist: {Match["Second String", 5]}. The expression: [String:length()<15] Will match two sublist (each of length 1) containing a String which instance is passing the expression instance.length() < 5: {Match["Hello World"],Match["Second String"]}. [Object][Object] Matches any pair in the List: {Match[Object,"Hello World"],Match["Second String", 5]}, in a streamed manner (no overlapping matches). Ofcourse, my implementation will have grouping, lookahead/lookbehinds and is hierarchical (i.e. matching n elements from Lists in Lists), etc. The above merely illustrates the concept. Is there a name for this principle, and is there literature available on it?

  Read the article

• Modify static variables while debugging in Eclipse

  - by sleske

  As an extension the the question "Modify/view static variables while debugging in Eclipse", I'd like to be able to modify static variables while debugging in Eclipse. For instance and local variables, I can just choose the variable in the "Variables" view of Eclipse, and use the context menu "Change value..." to change the value. This is not possible for arbitrary static variables, because they do not appear in the "Variables" view. What I tried: If you choose "Java / Show static variables" from the triangle menu in the "Variables" view, you can see and modify static member variables of the variables listed in the "Variables view". However, I did not find how to access a static member of a class whose instance does not appear in the "Variables view". You can of course enter a static member as an expression into the "Expression view" (using fully qualified name). Then you can see the value, but the "Expression view" does not have an option to modify the value (it does allow to modify members of an expression, but not the expression itself, even if the expression is a field). So, if I have a static variable like a boolean MyClass.disableAllBugs, is there a way to change MyClass.disableAllBugs during debugging? As an aside: I realize that even having public mutable static fields (i.e. mutable global variables) is very bad style. But some codebases have it, and then it's sometimes useful to modify it while debugging.

  Read the article

• Issues Deploying ROOT Context in Tomcat6

  - by Josh K

  I'm working on getting an application deployed to the ROOT ("/") context in my Tomcat 6 instance. Here's what has been done: Defined another virtual host (domain.com) Created the respective folder (/etc/tomcat6/Catalina/domain.com) Set it to auto deploy WAR's Set appBase to CATALINA_BASE/domainapps and created respective folder Copied manager.xml from localhost to domain.com. Now I'm trying to deploy into the ROOT context by uploading a ROOT.war to CATALINA_BASE/domainapps. This isn't working. I don't get any exceptions thrown, but the stock ROOT page ("It works !") stays up. I have successfully deployed it into another context (by uploading domainapp.war and viewing at /domainapp), but not ROOT. Re-reading the Virtual Host setup it makes reference to CATALINA_HOME and CATALINA_BASE. My CATALINA_HOME is at /usr/share/tomcat6/domainapp while CATALINA_BASE is /var/lib/tomcat6. Which should I be using for what? Currently haven't touched CATALINA_HOME but will try messing with a few things there. A better question might be what is the generally accepted flow taken to setup a new Tomcat instance and deploy an application to the root context.

  Read the article

• My framework will utilise other frameworks, but I'd like this to be transparent to the end-user

  - by d11wtq

  I'm building a framework, which aims to provide a new development environment for the user, but I need to use things like RegexKit and almost certainly some other established frameworks in order to do this. Any functionality exposed from such frameworks would be abstracted through classes and methods in my own framework for maintenance reasons (allowing me to change my mind on which dependencies I want). In an ideal world I just want to ship a single .framework. However I'm aware that unlike with standard bundles and applications it is not possibile to embed a framework inside the framework bundle. Do I have any other option other than to tell the end user that they must also install RegexKit and any other dependencies? I have a feeling this lessens the appeal value of the easy to use embedded framework I'd envisaged building. Right now I'm feeling like I have some limited options: Force the user to install the dependencies. Write my own classes that provide the same functionality -- ugh! If at all possible, try to statically link the third party frameworks (is this possible??) My end-product is ideally a single .framework bundle that uses @rpath and so can be installed in the system or simply bundled with the app that uses it.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311  | Next Page >