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  • changing default my.cnf path in mysql

    - by user377941
    I am having two mysql instances on same machine. The installations are on /usr/loca/mysql1 and /usr/local/mysql2. I m having separate my.cnf files located in /etc/mysql1 and /etc/mysql2. I installed the first instance of my sql using source distribution and with the --prefix=/usr/local/mysql1 option. The second one i got from copying and pastinf the same directory to /usr/local/mysql2. When i start the mysql daemon on /usr.local/mysql/libexec it reads the my.cnf file in /etc/mysql1. And if i start the mysql daemon in /usr/local/mysql2 it reads the same my.cnf file. I have separate port numbers and .sock files defined in the .cnf file in those 2 locations. I can read the my.cnf file in the second location by using --defaults-file=/etc/mysql2/my.cnf option on mysqld startup. I dnt need to enter this each and every time i start the daemon. If i am going to have more instances how can i point the correct my.cnf file to read to each and every mysql daemon. What is the retionale behind mysqld links with the my.cnf file. how can i predefine the location of my.cnf file for each instance.

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  • Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

    - by nafe
    I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

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  • What is the best database structure for this scenario?

    - by Ricketts
    I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

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  • Subclassing UIButton but can't access my properties

    - by Ross Ellerington
    Hi, I've created a sub class of UIButton: // // DetailButton.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <MapKit/MapKit.h> @interface MyDetailButton : UIButton { NSObject *annotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *annotation; @end // // DetailButton.m // #import "MyDetailButton.h" @implementation MyDetailButton @synthesize annotation; @end I figured that I can then create this object and set the annotation object by doing the following: MyDetailButton* rightButton = [MyDetailButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; rightButton.annotation = localAnnotation; localAnnotation is an NSObject but it is really an MKAnnotation. I can't see why this doesn't work but at runtime I get this error: 2010-05-27 10:37:29.214 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190 2010-05-27 10:37:29.215 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190' ' I can't see why it's even looking at UIButton because I've subclassed that so it should be looking at the MyDetailButton class to set that annotation property. Have I missed something really obvious. It feels like it :) Thanks in advance for any help you can provide Ross

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  • SIGABRT on any UIView touch

    - by bitcruncher
    Hi. I'm afraid no amount of Googling has been able to save my hyde on this. I seem to be getting SIGABRT error anytime I touch the screen of the phone, on any UIView. The debugger console posts this error before the SIGABRT: .... [310:207] *** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0 .... [310:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0' (this is not my specific call to _exclusiveTouchView, of course.) I would gladly post some code, but the truth is I cannot find (or guess) where this problem may be coming from. This is not happening on any ONE UIView but on all the UIViews in my stack. I can summarize the display logic, though, perhaps that will shed some light. So the application is created and a UIWindow is alloc'd. A single viewcontroller is then alloc'd, which makes and adds its own blank self.view, to which the other UIViews, representing the different game states, are attached. Interestingly enough, this error is does NOT happen on the Simulator, but happens consistently on the device. And I should also mention that the application has yet to override/use any of the touchesBegan:/Ended:/Moved: etc... In other words, this error happens without these methods in the code. I'm really not understanding where this error is coming from... Any suggestions?

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  • My framework will utilise other frameworks, but I'd like this to be transparent to the end-user

    - by d11wtq
    I'm building a framework, which aims to provide a new development environment for the user, but I need to use things like RegexKit and almost certainly some other established frameworks in order to do this. Any functionality exposed from such frameworks would be abstracted through classes and methods in my own framework for maintenance reasons (allowing me to change my mind on which dependencies I want). In an ideal world I just want to ship a single .framework. However I'm aware that unlike with standard bundles and applications it is not possibile to embed a framework inside the framework bundle. Do I have any other option other than to tell the end user that they must also install RegexKit and any other dependencies? I have a feeling this lessens the appeal value of the easy to use embedded framework I'd envisaged building. Right now I'm feeling like I have some limited options: Force the user to install the dependencies. Write my own classes that provide the same functionality -- ugh! If at all possible, try to statically link the third party frameworks (is this possible??) My end-product is ideally a single .framework bundle that uses @rpath and so can be installed in the system or simply bundled with the app that uses it.

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  • FindControl in DataList Edit Mode

    - by Doug
    As a new .net/C# web begginner, I always get tripped up when I try to use FindControl. Blam -flat on my face. Here is my current FindControl problem: I have an .aspx page and Form, then ajax updatePanel, inside it there is my DataList (DataList1) that has an EditItemTemplate: that has the following: <EditItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="thumbnailUploadLabel" runat="server" text="Upload a new thumbnail image:"/><br /> <asp:FileUpload ID="thumbnailImageUpload" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="thunbnailImageUploadButton" runat="server" Text="Upload Now" OnClick="thumbnailUpload"/><br /> </EditItemTemplate> In my C# code behind I have the OnClick code for the fileUpload object: protected void thumbnailUpload(object s, EventArgs e) { if (thumbnailImageUpload.HasFile) { //get name of the file & upload string imageName = thumbnailImageUpload.FileName; thumbnailImageUpload.SaveAs(MapPath("../../images/merch_sm/" + imageName)); //let'em know that it worked (or didn't) thumbnailUploadLabel.Text = "Image " + imageName + "has been uploaded."; } else { thumbnailUploadLabel.Text = "Please choose a thumbnail image to upload."; } So of course I'm getting "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" for the FileUpload and the Label. What is the correct syntax to find these controls, before dealing with them in the OnClick event? The only way Ive used FindControl is something like: label thumbnailUploadLabel = DataList1.FindControl("thumbnailUploadLabel") as Label; But of course this is throwing the "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. Any help is very much appreciated. (I've also seen the 'recursive' code out there that is supposed to make using FindControl easier. Ha! I'm so green at C# that I don't even know how to incorporate those into my project.) Thanks to all for taking a look at this.

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  • jdbc query - date ranges as parameters

    - by pstanton
    Hi all, I'd like to write a single JDBC statement that can handle the equivalent of any number of NOT BETWEEN date1 AND date2 where clauses. By single query, i mean that the same SQL string will be used to create the JDBC statements and then have different parameters supplied. This is so that the underlying frameworks can efficiently cache the query (i've been stung by that before). Essentially, I'd like to find a query that is the equivalent of SELECT * FROM table WHERE mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? and at the same time could be used with fewer parameters: SELECT * FROM table WHERE mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? or more parameters SELECT * FROM table WHERE mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? AND mydate NOT BETWEEN ? AND ? I will consider using a temporary table if that will be simpler and more efficient. thanks for the help!

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  • Launch command on remote Windows machine, given admin credentials

    - by Bilal Aslam
    I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. I can even use psexec to get what I want, as long as the remote computer is part of the domain. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: 1) The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos 2) The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

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  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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  • How do I get Ctrl-Backspace to delete a word in vim within gnome-terminal?

    - by Michael Gundlach
    I'd like Ctrl-Backspace to delete the current word in vim insert mode. From within xterm I can pull this off via :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> but in gnome-terminal I cannot figure out a way to make it happen. When in vim insert mode, if I type control-v and then press backspace, I get ^H in xterm, and ^? in gnome-terminal. Unfortunately, :inoremap <C-?> <C-W> doesn't do the trick in gnome-terminal; control-backspace just erases a single character no matter what. Regarding ASCII codes: Gnome-terminal lets you change the backspace character under Edit - Profile Preferences - Compatibility. Unfortunately, no option works, as far as I can tell: whatever character I apply to Backspace via the settings, if I try mapping the character itself, like :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace both erase an entire word; and if I try mapping control plus that character, like :inoremap <C-^H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace just erase a single character.

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  • Copy constructor using private attributes

    - by Pedro Magueija
    Hello all, My first question here so be gentle. I would like arguments for the following code: public class Example { private String name; private int age; ... // copy constructor here public Example(Example e) { this.name = e.name; // accessing a private attribute of an instance this.age = e.age; } ... } I believe this breaks the modularity of the instance passed to the copy construct. This is what I believe to be correct: public class Example { private String name; private int age; ... // copy constructor here public Example(Example e) { this.setName(e.getName()); this.setAge(e.getAge()); } ... } A friend has exposed a valid point of view, saying that in the copy construct we should create the object as fast as possible. And adding getter/setter methods would result in unnecessary overhead. I stand on a crossroad. Can you shed some light?

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  • Strange GWT serialization exception when overiding method of serialized object

    - by Flueras Bogdan
    Hi there! I have a GWT serializable class, lets call it Foo. Foo implements IsSerializable, has primitive and serializable members as well as other transient members and a no-arg constructor. class Foo implements IsSerializable { // transient members // primitive members public Foo() {} public void bar() {} } Also a Service which handles RPC comunication. // server code public interface MyServiceImpl { public void doStuff(Foo foo); } public interface MyServiceAsync { void doStuff(Foo foo, AsyncCallback<Void> async); } How i use this: private MyServiceAsync myService = GWT.create(MyService.class); Foo foo = new Foo(); ... AsyncCallback callback = new new AsyncCallback {...}; myService.doStuff(foo, callback); In the above case the code is running, and the onSuccess() method of callback instance gets executed. But when I override the bar() method on foo instance like this: Foo foo = new Foo() { public void bar() { //do smthng different } } AsyncCallback callback = new new AsyncCallback {...}; myService.doStuff(foo, callback); I get the GWT SerializationException. Please enlighten me, because I really don't understand why.

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  • How to wrtie a XML License Line(ended with a forward slash '/') in C#?

    - by Nano HE
    I want to write a XML file as below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <books xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <License licenseId="" licensePath="" /> Some piece of my code attached here // Create a new file in D:\\ and set the encoding to UTF-8 XmlTextWriter textWriter = new XmlTextWriter("D:\\books.xml", System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); // Format automatically textWriter.Formatting = Formatting.Indented; // Opens the document textWriter.WriteStartDocument(); // Write the namespace declaration. textWriter.WriteStartElement("books", null); // Write the genre attribute. textWriter.WriteAttributeString("xmlns", "xsd", null, "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"); textWriter.WriteAttributeString("xmlns", "xsi", null, "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"); And now I need to write the License Line below in C# <License licenseId="" licensePath="" /> But I don't know how to move on for I found the Line ended with the forward slash / .Thank you.

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  • Parse numbers in singe textbox for query

    - by Joshua Slocum
    I’ve built a webform in Visual Web Developer Express 2008 to help me with my work. I use a webform to run query requests that are emailed to me. The inputs are in this format 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 I enter the first number in a textbox and the second number in another textbox and click a button that runs a query and returns the results in a gridview(single row). string strConn, strSQL; strConn = AppConfig.Connection strSQL = 'select fields from table where FirstNum=:FirstNum and SecondNum=:SecondNum'; using (OracleConnection cn = new OracleConnection(strConn)) { OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand(strSQL, cn); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(":FirstNum", txtFirstNum.Text); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(":SeconNum", txtSecondNum.Text); cn.Open(); using (OracleDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { dgResults.DataSource = rdr; dgResults.DataBind(); } cn.Close(); } I had an idea to help me speed up my work. I’d like to be able to past both numbers in a single textbox ( like this 12312 12312 ) and have the code parse out the nubmers for the query. Or even better would be to past all of them in a multiline textbox like this 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 And have them all parsed and the query run for each line and the results all output to one gridview. I’m just not sure how to approach this. Any suggestions would be appreciated. Thank you.

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  • COM-Objects containing maps / content error(0)

    - by Florian Berzsenyi
    I'm writing a small wrapper to get familiar with some important topics in C++ (WinAPI, COM, STL,OOP). For now, my class shall be able to create a (child) window. Mainly, this window is connected to a global message loop that distribute messages to a local loop of the right instance (global is static, local is virtual). Obviously, there are surely better ways to do that but I'm using std::maps to store HWND and their instance pointer in pairs (the Global loop looks for the pointer with the HWND-parameter, gets itself the pointer from the map and calls then the local loop). Now, it appears that the map does not accept any values because of a unknown reason. It seems to allocate enough space but something went wrong anyway [ (error) 0 is displayed instead of the entries in visual C++). I've looked that up in google as well and found out that maps cause some trouble when used in classes AND DLLs. May this be the reason and is there any solution?? Protected scope of class: static std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> m_LoopBuf Implementation in .cpp-file: std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> HWindow::m_LoopBuf;

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  • Are Fortran control characters (carriage control) still implemented in compilers?

    - by CmdrGuard
    In the book Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, there is much talk given to the importance of recognizing that the first column in a format statement is reserved for control characters. I've also seen control characters referred to as carriage control on the internet. To avoid confusion, by control characters, I refer to the characters "1, a blank (i.e. \s), 0, and +" as having an effect on the vertical spacing of output when placed in the first column (character) of a FORMAT statement. Also, see this text-only web page written entirely in fixed-width typeface : Fortran carriage-control (because nothing screams accuracy and antiquity better than prose in monospaced font). I found this page and others like it to be not quite clear. According to Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, failure to recall that the first column is reserved for carriage control can lead to horrible unintended output. Paraphrasing Dave Barry, type the wrong character, and nuclear missiles get fired at Norway. However, when I attempt to adhere to this stern warning, I find that gfortran has no idea what I'm talking about. Allow me to illustrate my point with some example code. I am trying to print out the number Pi: PROGRAM test_format IMPLICIT NONE REAL :: PI = 2 * ACOS(0.0) WRITE (*, 100) PI WRITE (*, 200) PI WRITE (*, 300) PI 100 FORMAT ('1', "New page: ", F11.9) 200 FORMAT (' ', "Single Space: ", F11.9) 300 FORMAT ('0', "Double Space: ", F11.9) END PROGRAM test_format This is the output: 1New page: 3.141592741 Single Space: 3.141592741 0Double Space: 3.141592741 The "1" and "0" are not typos. It appears that gfortran is completely ignoring the control character column. My question, then, is this: Are control characters still implemented in standards compliant compilers or is gfortran simply not standards compliant? For clarity, here is the output of my gfortran -v Using built-in specs. Target: powerpc-apple-darwin9 Configured with: ../gcc-4.4.0/configure --prefix=/sw --prefix=/sw/lib/gcc4.4 --mandir=/sw/share/man --infodir=/sw/share/info --enable-languages=c,c++,fortran,objc,java --with-gmp=/sw --with-libiconv-prefix=/sw --with-ppl=/sw --with-cloog=/sw --with-system-zlib --x-includes=/usr/X11R6/include --x-libraries=/usr/X11R6/lib --disable-libjava-multilib --build=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --host=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --target=powerpc-apple-darwin9 Thread model: posix gcc version 4.4.0 (GCC)

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  • Capistrano fails for multiple host deployments

    - by morris082
    I be at a loss here, and after scouring the seas (read: internet) for solutions I am left with none other than to hit up the stack. any help appreciated. I have capistrano running locally for deployments onto several different environments. (I'm on windows 7, fwiw). All was well until I needed to deploy to multiple :app servers during a single deployment. Usually I'm prompted for my ssh passphrase once when I call 'cap deploy'. I have ssh-agent running (git never pesters for my pass) but despite this Capistrano has always bugged me once each deployment. Regardless, it always worked when deploying to ONE host. Now, when I attempt to deploy to multiple servers at once, it asks for my passphrase what appears to be multiple times: (ips removed by ME) servers: ["redacted", "redacted"]<br /> Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: So with the above I enter my passphrase but this doesn't work. It waits as little while, then spits out this error: connection failed for: <one of the server ips> (NoMethodError: undefined method `overwrite' for nil:NilClass) And that's the end of that. I can "passwordless" ssh into the servers I'm deploying on just fine. I'm pretty certain the ssh-agent is running since I can hit Git w/out entering my passphrase every time Using 'forward_agent' setting in cap deploy did not work. This is my role: role :app, "ip 1 removed", "ip 2 removed" If i set default_run_options[:max_hosts] = 1, it works OK but it asks for my passphrase for every single connection to each host I'm deploying to.. which ends up being a lot. Essentially I'm looking for any of the below (but not limited to): - "You're never going to fix that on windows" - "This is how you get REAL passwordless deployment in capistrano" - "Have you overlooked this setting/feature?" - "I have a rock that can fix anything, you may borrow it" Thanks!

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  • How to best configure a central repository/multiple central repositories for Mercurial?

    - by Mario
    I am new to Mercurial and trying to figure out if it could replace SVN. Everyone I work with has used SVN, CVS and VSS (shiver), so this could be quite a large change. I have been very interested after reading about its merge and branch capability, but have a few reservations. We are currently on SVN, and have one central repository. From my reading, it seems as though there is no ONE central repository for all projects when using Mercurial. NOTE: We consider each project a separate logical set of code, or a Visual Studio Solution. It runs on its own. We have around 60 separate projects in our one central SVN repository. After reading about Mercurial it seems to me that I have to create 60 separate central repositories for each one of these projects on the server. QUESTION #1: Should I create a single repository for each project? If yes, then I am worried about configuring and hosting 60 separate central Mercurial servers. I started thinking I could configure one file, but it seems as if each repository must be individually configured using the “C:...\MyRepository.hg\hgrc” file (Windows install). It also seems as I have to run 60 servers (hg serve), I would assume on different ports. QUESTION #2: If the answer to question 1 is yes, there should be a single central repository for each project, then how have people managed many multiple repositories? Finally, I haven’t looked into moving all history and changes from one SVN repository to a bunch of separate Mercurial repositories, but would appreciate any comments from someone who has done this (or if it is even possible).

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  • asp.net 4.0 webforms - how to keep ContentPlaceHolder1_ out of client id's in a simple way?

    - by James Manning
    I'm attempting to introduce master pages to an existing webforms site that's avoided using them because of client id mangling in the past (and me not wanting to deal with the mangling and doing <% foo.ClientID % everywhere :) GOAL: use 'static' id values (whatever is in the server control's id attribute) except for data-bound / repeating controls which would break for those cases and therefore need suffixes or whatever to differentiate (basically, Predictable) Now that the site migrated to ASP.NET 4.0, I first attempted to use ClientIDMode of Static (in the web.config) but that broke too many places doing repeating controls (checkboxes inside gridviews, for instance) since they all resulted with the same id. So, I then tried Predictable (again, just in the web.config) so that the repeating controls wouldn't have conflicting id's, and it works well except that the master page content placeholder (which is indeed a naming container) is still reflecting in the resulting client id's (for instance, ContentPlaceHolder1_someCheckbox). Certainly I could leave the web.config setting as static and then go through all the databound/repeating controls switch them to Predictable, but I'm hoping there's some easier/simpler way to get that effect without having to scatter ClientIDMode attributes in those N number of places (or extend all those databound controls with my own usercontrol that just sets clientidmode, or whatever). I even thought of leaving web.config set to static and doing a master or basepage handler (preinit? not sure if that would work or not) that would go walk Controls with OfType<INamingContainer() (might be a better choice on the type, but that seems like a good starting choice looking at repeater and gridview) and then set those to Predictable so I'd get static for all my 'normal' things outside of repeating controls but not have to deal with static inside things like gridview/repeater/etc. I don't see any way to mark the content placeholder such that it 'opts out' of being included in child id's - setting the ID of the placeholder to empty/blank doesn't work as it's a required attribute :) At that point I figured there was a better/simpler way that I was missing and decided to ask on SO :) Edit: I thought about changing all my 'fetch by id' jquery calls from $('#foo') to fetch_by_id('foo') and then having that function return the 'right one' by checking $('#foo').length and then $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_foo').length (and maybe other patterns) or even just have it return $('#foo, #ContentPlaceHolder1_foo') (again, potentially other patterns) but changing all the places I fetch elements by id seemed pretty ugly too, and I'd like to avoid that abstraction layer if possible to do so easily :)

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  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

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  • WPF : Access Application Resources when not referencing Shell from App.xaml

    - by CF_Maintainer
    I am beginner in WPF. My App.xaml looks like below app.xaml <Application x:Class="ContactManager.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Application.Resources> <Color x:Key="lightBlueColor">#FF145E9D</Color> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="lightBlueBrush" Color="{StaticResource lightBlueColor}" /> </Application.Resources> I do not set the startupuri since I want to a presenter first approach. I do the following in app.xaml.cs protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); var appPresenter = new ApplicationPresenter( new Shell(), new ContactRepository()); appPresenter.LaunchView(); } I have a usercontrol called "SearchBar.xaml" which references "lightBlueBrush" as a staticResource. When I try to open "Shell.xaml" in the designer it tells me : The "shell.xaml" cannot be loaded at design time because it says it could not create an instance of type "SearchBar.xaml". When I debugged the devenv.exe using another visual studio instance it tells me that it does not have access to the Brush I created in app.resources. If one is doing a Presenter first approach, how does one access resources? I had this working when the startupURI was "Shell.xaml" and the startup event was not present. Any clues/ideas/suggestions. I am just trying to understand. Everything works as expected when I run the application just not @ design time.

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  • Login with Kohana auth module - what am I doing wrong?

    - by keithjgrant
    I'm trying to login with the following controller action, but my login attempt keeps failing (I get the 'invalid username and/or password' message). What am I doing wrong? I also tried the other method given in the examples in the auth documentation, Auth::instance()->login($user->username, $form->password);, but I get the same result. Kohana version is 2.3.4. public function login() { $auth = Auth::instance(); if ($auth->logged_in()) { url::redirect('/account/summary'); } $view = new View('login'); $view->username = ''; $view->password = ''; $post = $this->input->post(); $form = new Validation($post); $form->pre_filter('trim', 'username') ->pre_filter('trim', 'password') ->add_rules('username', 'required'); $failed = false; if (!empty($post) && $form->validate()) { $login = array( 'username' => $form->username, 'password' => $form->password, ); if (ORM::factory('user')->login($login)) { url::redirect('/accounts/summary'); } else { $view->username = $form->username; $view->message = in_array('required', $form->errors()) ? 'Username and password are required.' : 'Invalid username and/or password.'; } } $view->render(true); }

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  • What is difference between my atoi() calls?

    - by Lucas
    I have a big number stored in a string and try to extract a single digit. But what are the differences between those calls? #include <iostream> #include <string> int main(){ std::string bigNumber = "93485720394857230"; char tmp = bigNumber.at(5); int digit = atoi(&tmp); int digit2 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(5)) int digit3 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(12)); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl; std::cout << "digit2: " << digit2 << std::endl; std::cout << "digit3: " << digit3 << std::endl; } This will produce the following output. digit: 7 digit2: 2147483647 digit3: 57230 The first one is the desired result. The second one seems to me to be a random number, which I cannot find in the string. The third one is the end of the string, but not just a single digit as I expected, but up from the 12th index to the end of the string. Can somebody explain the different outputs to me? EDIT: Would this be an acceptable solution? char tmp[2] = {bigNumber.at(5), '\0'}; int digit = atoi(tmp); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl;

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  • ASP.NET "Object reference not set..." error

    - by Roman
    Hi, I have a website written using ASP.NET. We have a development machine and a deployment server. The site works great on the development machine, but when is transfered (using simple FTP Upload) generates strange behavior. It starts working just fine, but after a while stops working and throws an exception "Exception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.". The deal is that the absolute path of the website on the development machine is different than on the deployment server (and why should they be similar?) and the exact error is: Exception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at SOMEPROJECT_Objects.Player..ctor(Int32 PlayerID) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\SOMEPROJECTSolution\ALLPROJECT\SOMEPROJECT_Objects\Player.cs:line 123 at SOMEPROJECT_GameLayer.M_Game.PlayerActiveGame(Int32 PlayerID) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\SOMEPROJECTSolution\ALLPROJECT\SOMEPROJECT_GameLayer\M_Game.cs:line 85 at Web.getsms.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\SOMEPROJECTSolution\ALLPROJECT\SOMEPROJECT-sms\Web\getsms.aspx.cs:line 59 The address that it is looking for is the address on the DEVELOPMENT machine, where as the site now resides on the deployment server. Any ideas why this happens would be appreciated. Thanks, Roman

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