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  • JPA entitylisteners and @embeddable

    - by seanizer
    I have a class hierarchy of JPA entities that all inherit from a BaseEntity class: @MappedSuperclass @EntityListeners( { ValidatorListener.class }) public abstract class BaseEntity implements Serializable { // other stuff } I want all entities that implement a given interface to be validated automatically on persist and/or update. Here's what I've got. My ValidatorListener: public class ValidatorListener { private enum Type { PERSIST, UPDATE } @PrePersist public void checkPersist(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.PERSIST); } } @PreUpdate public void checkUpdate(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.UPDATE); } } private void check(final Validateable entity, final Type persist) { switch (persist) { case PERSIST: if (entity instanceof Persist) { ((Persist) entity).persist(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; case UPDATE: if (entity instanceof Update) { ((Update) entity).update(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; default: break; } } } and here's my Validateable interface that it checks against (the outer interface is just a marker, the inner contain the methods): public interface Validateable { interface Persist extends Validateable { void persist(); } interface PersistOrUpdate extends Validateable { void persistOrUpdate(); } interface Update extends Validateable { void update(); } } All of this works, however I would like to extend this behavior to Embeddable classes. I know two solutions: call the validation method of the embeddable object manually from the entity validation method: public void persistOrUpdate(){ // validate my own properties first // then manually validate the embeddable property: myEmbeddable.persistOrUpdate(); // this works but I'd like something that I don't have to call manually } use reflection, checking all properties to see if their type is of one of their interface types. This would work, but it's not pretty. Is there a more elegant solution?

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  • wpf progress bar slows 10x times serial port communications... how could be possible that?

    - by D_Guidi
    I know that this could look a dumb question, but here's my problem. I have a worker dialog that "hides" a backgroundworker, so in a worker thread I do my job, I report the progress in a standard way and then I show the results in my WPF program. The dialog contains a simply animated gif and a standard wpf progress bar, and when a progress is notified I set Value property. All lokks as usual and works well for any kind of job, like web service calls, db queries, background elaboration and so on. For my job we use also many "couplers", card readers that reads data from smart card, that are managed with native C code that access to serial port (so, I don't use .NET SerialPort object). I have some nunit tests and I read a sample card in 10 seconds, but using my actual program, under the backgroundworker and showing my worker dialog, I need 1.30 minutes to do the SAME job. I struggled into problem for days until I decide to remove the worker dialog, and without dialog I obtain the same performances of the tests! So I investigated, and It's not the dialog, not the animated gif, but the wpf progress bar! Simply the fact that a progress bar is shown (so, no animation, no Value set called, nothing of nothing) slows serialport communicatitons. Looks incredible? I've tested this behavior and it's exactly what happens.

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  • jQuery slideDown + CSS Floats

    - by danilo
    I'm using a HTML Table with several rows. Every second row - containing details about the preceding row - is hidden using CSS. When clicking the first row, the second row gets showed using jQuery show(). This is quite nice, but I would prefer the slideDown-Effect. The problem is, inside the details row, there are two floating DIVs, one floating on the left, and one on the right. Now if i slideDown the previously hidden row, the contained DIVs behave strange and "jump around". See this animated gif to understand what I mean: http://ich-wars-nicht.ch/tmp/lunapic_127365879362365_.gif The markup: <tr class="row-vm"> <td>...</td> ... </tr> <tr class="row-details"> <td colspan="8"> <div class="vmdetail-left"> ... </div> <div class="vmdetail-right"> ... </div> </td> </tr> The CSS: .table-vmlist tr.row-details { display: none; } div.vmdetail-left { float: left; width: 50%; } div.vmdetail-right { float: right; width: 50%; } And the jQuery code: if ($(this).next().css('display') == 'none') { // Show details //$(this).next().show(); $(this).next().slideDown(); } else { // Hide details //$(this).next().hide(); $(this).next().slideUp(); } Is there a way to fix this behavior, and to implement a nice slideDown-effect?

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  • What are the best software/website UI design you have even seen?

    - by Edwin
    What are the best UI design in terms of usability and esthetics you have even seen? I mean both desktop software (of all OS) and website. My list: Picasa 3 - the way it organizes photos. Find-and-highlight-as-you-type in google Chrome. Dynamic search hints when entering something in the search box in Gmail. I'm not a Mac OS X user, but I have seen in most windows on the top toolbar there are both the icons and texts shown for each function, as apposed to on Windows I have seen many programs (MS Office included) have many small toolbar icons which you can hardly understand what they do until you hover the mouse on it for a while to see the hints (if any). The ability to search an setting in Eclipse IDE. the way to make 3D models in Google Sketchup. the way to label an email in Gmail. What are you list? Well, I couldn't resist to list some annoying UI design I have experienced and remember at this moment. IE on Windows server, when you visit the new website, you have to click many times to get it added to the white list before you can start browsing, IIRC, it's not fixed in IE 8 when that last time I used it on Windows 2008. The default search behavior in the File Explorer on Windows xp, that animated thing... the dialog that shows up when you are trying to save a plain text CSV file in Excel after applied some formatting options which does not compatible with CSV.

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  • What is the purpose of the Html "no-js" class?

    - by Swader
    I notice that in a lot of template engines, in the HTML5 Boilerplate, in various frameworks and in plain php sites there is the no-js class added onto the html element. Why is this done? Is there some sort of default browser behavior that reacts to this class? Why include it always? Does that not render the class itself obsolete, if there is no no-"no-js" case and html can be addressed directly? Here is an example from the HTML5 Boilerplate index.html: <!--[if lt IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie6"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie7"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 8 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie8"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 9 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie9"> <![endif]--> <!--[if (gt IE 9)|!(IE)]><!--> <html lang="en" class="no-js"> <!--<![endif]--> As you can see, the html element will always have this class. Can someone explain why this is done so often?

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  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

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  • Python re module becomes 20 times slower when called on greater than 101 different regex

    - by Wiil
    My problem is about parsing log files and removing variable parts on each lines to be able to group them. For instance: s = re.sub(r'(?i)User [_0-9A-z]+ is ', r"User .. is ", s) s = re.sub(r'(?i)Message rejected because : (.*?) \(.+\)', r'Message rejected because : \1 (...)', s) I have about 120+ matching rules like those above. I have found no performances issues while searching successively on 100 different regex. But a huge slow down comes when applying 101 regex. Exact same behavior happens when replacing my rules set by for a in range(100): s = re.sub(r'(?i)caught here'+str(a)+':.+', r'( ... )', s) Got 20 times slower when putting range(101) instead. # range(100) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 2.1 seconds. == # range(101) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 47.6 seconds. == Why such thing is happening ? And is there any known workaround ? (Happens on Python 2.6.6/2.7.2 on Linux/Windows.)

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  • CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

    - by kurisukun
    I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

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  • no such file to load -- for several gems unpacked in a Rails 2.3.8 app

    - by vincentp
    Hi, I unpacked several gems into the /vendor/gems folder, and I get the same error message for 5 of these gems when I try to start my Rails application. The date-performance one as an example : no such file to load -- date_performance.so /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `gem_original_require' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `require' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.8/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.8/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' /opt/ruby-enterprise-1.8.7-20090928/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.8/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' /path_to_my_app/vendor/gems/date-performance-0.4.8/lib/date/performance.rb:34 ... Here is the line 34 : require 'date_performance.so' I'm including the gem using the following code : config.gem "date-performance", :lib => "date/performance" The '.so' file is under /path_to_my_app/vendor/gems/date-performance-0.4.8/lib/ Any idea on why things were working while the gems were not unpacked? Do you have any idea about this behavior? I'm using : Rails 2.3.8 REE 1.8.7 gem 1.3.6 Mac OS X Thanks! Vincent

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  • Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

    - by dw
    Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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  • Refactor link to show/hide a table row

    - by abatishchev
    I have a table with row which cab be hidden by user. It's implemented this way: Markup: <table> <tr> <td> <table style="margin-left: auto; text-align: right;"> <tr> <td class="stats-hide"> <a href="#" onclick="hideStats();">Hide</a> </td> <td class="stats-show" style="display: none;"> <a href="#" onclick="showStats();">Show</a> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr class="stats-hide"> <td> <!-- data --> </td> </tr> </table> And jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function hideStats() { hideControls(true, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(false, $('.stats-show')); } function showStats() { hideControls(false, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(true, $('.stats-show')); } function hideControls(value, arr) { $(arr).each(function () { if (value) { $(this).hide(); } else { $(this).show(); } }); } </script> How to implement the same behavior with one, single link and one, probably, CSS class? My idea - store somewhere a boolean variable and toggle controls visibility relatively to this variable. Are there more?

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  • could not execute a stored procedure(using DAAB) from a client(aspx page) to a wcf service

    - by user1144695
    i am trying to store data to sql database from a asp.net client website through a stored procedure(using DAAB) in a wcf service hosted in a asp.net empty website.When i try to store data to the DB i get the following error: ** - The server was unable to process the request due to an internal error. For more information about the error, either turn on IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults (either from ServiceBehaviorAttribute or from the <serviceDebug> configuration behavior) on the server in order to send the exception information back to the client, or turn on tracing as per the Microsoft .NET Framework SDK documentation and inspect the server trace logs. ** When i try to debug i get the following exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type Database, key "" in the code-- Database db = EnterpriseLibraryContainer.Current.GetInstance<Database>("MyInstance"); where my app.config is <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=5.0.414.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" requirePermission="true"/> </configSections> <dataConfiguration defaultDatabase="MyInstance"/> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyInstance" connectionString="Data Source=BLRKDAS307581\KD;Integrated Security=True;User ID=SAPIENT\kdas3;Password=ilove0LINUX" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0"/> </startup> </configuration> Can anyone help me with it? Thanks in advance...

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  • Catching exception in Main() method

    - by Corvin
    Consider the following simple application: a windows form created by a "new C# windows application" sequence in VS that was modified in a following way: public static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); try { Application.Run(new Form1()); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("An unexpected exception was caught."); } } Form1.cs contains the following modifications: private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { throw new Exception("Error"); } If I press F5 in IDE, then, as I expect, I see a message box saying that exception was caught and the application quits. If I go to Debug(or Release)/bin and launch the executable, I see the standard "Unhandled exception" window, meaning that my exception handler doesn't work. Obviously, that has something to do with exception being thrown from a different thread that Application.Run is called from. But the question remains - why the behavior differs depending on whether the application has been run from IDE or from command line? What is the best practice to ensure that no exceptions remain unhandled in the application?

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  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Custom ASP.net UserControl List<T> Property, having trouble setting declaratively

    - by Chris McCall
    I'm developing a custom UserControl to inject JQuery hotkeys into a page declaratively on the server side. Here's the control (the important parts anyway): [AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), DefaultProperty("HotKeys"), ParseChildren(true, "HotKeys"), ToolboxData("<{0}:HotKeysControl runat=\"server\"> </{0}:HotKeysControl>")] public partial class HotKeysControl : System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebControl { private string crlf = Environment.NewLine; public List<HotKey> _HotKeys; public HotKeysControl() { if (_HotKeys == null) { _HotKeys = new List<HotKey>(); } // if I uncomment this line, script is injected into the page // _HotKeys.Add(new HotKey("ctrl+r","thisControl")); } [ Category("Behavior"), Description("The hotkeys collection"), DesignerSerializationVisibility( DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), Editor(typeof(HotKeyCollectionEditor), typeof(UITypeEditor)), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty) ] public List<HotKey> HotKeys { set { _HotKeys = value; } get { return _HotKeys; } } Here's the .aspx code: <%@ Register Assembly="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" Namespace="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" TagPrefix="uc" %> ... <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="false"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="firstControl" KeyCode="ctrl+1" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+2" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> Nothing happens, as if no HotKeys objects are being added to the property collection. What Am I doing wrong? If I uncomment out the line above and "manually" add items, it works. It's something about how I'm declaratively adding hotkeys to the page. Any ideas?

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  • sql server - framework 4 - IIS 7 weird sort from db to page

    - by ila
    I am experiencing a strange behavior when reading a resultset from database in a calling method. The sort of the rows is different from what the database should return. My farm: - database server: sql server 2008 on a WinServer 2008 64 bit - web server: a couple of load balanced WinServer 2008 64 bit running IIS 7 The application runs on a v4.0 app pool, set to enable 32bit applications Here's a description of the problem: - a stored procedure is called, that returns a resultset sorted on a particular column - I can see thru profiler the call to the SP, if I run the statement I see correct sorting - the calling page gets the results, and before any further elaboration logs the rows immediately after the SP execution - the results are in a completely different order (I cannot even understand if they are sorted in any way) Some details on the Stored Procedure: - it is called by code using a SqlDatAdapter - it has also an output value (a count of the rows) that is read correctly - which sort field is to be used is passed as a parameter - makes use of temp tables to collect data and perform the desired sort Any idea on what I could check? Same code and same database work correctly in a test environment, 32 bit and not load balanced.

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • Overriding check box in JavaScript with jQuery

    - by Gutzofter
    Help with unit testing checkbox behavior. I have this page: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('<div><input type="checkbox" name="makeHidden" id="makeHidden" checked="checked" />Make Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('<div id="displayer" style="display:none;">Was Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('#makeHidden').click(function() { var isChecked = $(this).is(':checked'); if (isChecked) { $('#displayer').hide(); } else { $('#displayer').show(); } return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This doesn't work it is because of the return false; in the click handler. If I remove it it works great. The problem is if I pull the click function out into it's own function and unit test it with qunit it will not work without the return false;

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  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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  • In Java, is there a gain in using interfaces for complex models?

    - by Gnoupi
    The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public method from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations.

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  • Phonegap Android application exiting - but not really - when home button is pressed

    - by Lucas T
    I have created an Phonegap 1.5/Android application. My client reports that, when he leaves the app using the Home button, and then relaunches it using the app icon, the app relaunches from the start instead of resuming. However, when he holds the home button, the app appears in the running apps, and when he accesses the app through this menu, the app resumes in the expected way. I thought this could be linked to the app being automatically closed by the OS due to a lack of memory, but if that was the case the app shouldn't appear in the running apps. I could not reproduce the bug on my Sony Ericsson XPERIA with Android 2.3.4, the client has experienced this behaviour on a Motorola Defy and on another phone (i'll add the reference of the other phone and the OS versions as soon as I get them). The initialization process of the app is declared this way : window.addEventListener('load', function(){ document.addEventListener('deviceready', _onDeviceReady, false); }, false); Could this be fixed by attaching the processes to other events (although I doubt it, the app really seems to be relaunched from the start) ? Is there a declaration to make in the Android Manifest to prevent this behavior ? Is that a known bug in some Android phones/versions ?

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  • Custom UITableViewCell trouble with UIAccessibility elements

    - by ojreadmore
    No matter what I try, I can't keep my custom UITableViewCell from acting like it should under the default rules for UIAccessiblity. I don't want this cell to act like an accessibility container (per se), so following this guide I should be able to make all of my subviews accessible, right?! It says to make each element accessible separately and make sure the cell itself is not accessible. - (BOOL)isAccessibilityElement { return NO; } - (NSString *)accessibilityLabel { return nil; } - (NSInteger)accessibilityElementCount { return 0; } - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyle)style reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)reuseIdentifier //cells use this reusage stuff { if (self = [super initWithStyle:style reuseIdentifier:reuseIdentifier]) { [self setIsAccessibilityElement:NO]; sub1 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,1,1)]; [sub1 setAccessibilityLanguage:@"es"]; [sub1 setIsAccessibilityElement:YES]; [sub1 setAccessibilityLabel:sub1.text] sub2 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,1,1)]; [sub2 setAccessibilityLanguage:@"es"]; [sub2 setIsAccessibilityElement:YES]; [sub2 setAccessibilityLabel:sub2.text] The voice over system reads the contents of the whole cell all at once, even though I'm trying to stop that behavior. I could say [sub2 setIsAccessibilityElement:NO]; but that would would make this element entirely unreadable. I want to keep it readable, but not have the whole cell be treated like a container (and assumed to be the English language). There does not appear to be a lot of information out there on this, so at the very least I'd like to document it.

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • Is there a better way to keep track of session variable creation/access throughout different pages?

    - by Brandon
    Here's what I am working on. At my website I have multiple processes with each one containing multiple steps. Now in one of the processes, there is an error checking routine executed before proceeding to the next step of that process. A session var is set indicating the error status and it will either redirect back to the referrer or display the next page's contents. Now this kind of functionality, I believe, is common throughout web development. The issue that is occurring is that session vars are left around and are not being cleaned up properly. At times this introduces undesired behavior. My website is growing and I find that I am requiring more and more session vars to keep track of different system and error states. So I was thinking about creating a kind of "session variable keeper" to keep track of session var usage. The idea is fairly simple. It will have the notion of a context (e.g. registration process) and allow access to a predefined set of session vars within that context. In addition, the var and context will be paired with an action to proceed to some form of event handling. So if you haven't noticed I'm new to web development. Any thoughts or comments on the idea that I am proposing would be greatly appreciated. The back-end is written in PHP/MySQL.

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