Search Results

Search found 8818 results on 353 pages for 'undefined behavior'.

Page 303/353 | < Previous Page | 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310  | Next Page >

• Android Webkit Input elements buggy with CSS3 translate3D

  - by Dansl

  I'm having a couple issues with the Input element in a Webkit Android App i'm developing. Testing on 2.X, but 3.x doesn't seem to have these issues... The app works by having separate Div's for each "page", and I'm using CSS3 translate3D to animate between the pages. Some of those pages include Input elements. When I tap on the input to gain focus, any of my "position:fixed" Div's will shift about 5px from the top, and 5px left. Now the kicker... it will eventually fix itself, and then never happen again when you tap on an input, its only that first time... My other problem, the Input elements are screwy with keyboards, for instance, spell corrections/autocomplete will not input text, and when using Swype Keyboard, you can't "swipe" the word, ONLY individual taps for each letter will input text into the Input element. I've read that a lot of these might be caused by CSS3 Translate3D. But, I've tried just about everything to fix these issues, and I've searched just about every site for a solution, but havent been able to find a fix, or find anyone else with this issue... Does anyone else have these issues, or know of a fix? (Possible solution??) Anyone know of a way to override the default behavior of Input elements in the webkit? I wonder if I can generate my own TextView and position it over these input fields...? Any help is greatly appreciated :)

  Read the article

• In a combobox, how do I determine the highlighted item (not selected item)?

  - by Harold Bamford

  First, fair warning: I am a complete newbie with C# and WPF. I have a combobox (editable, searchable) and I would like to be able to intercept the Delete key and remove the currently highlighted item from the list. The behavior I'm looking for is like that of MS Outlook when entering in email addresses. When you give a few characters, a dropdown list of potential matches is displayed. If you move to one of these (with the arrow keys) and hit Delete, that entry is permanently removed. I want to do that with an entry in the combobox. Here is the XAML (simplified): <ComboBox x:Name="Directory" KeyUp="Directory_KeyUp" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" IsEditable="True" Text="{Binding Path=CurrentDirectory, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static self:Properties.Settings.Default}, Path=DirectoryList, Mode=TwoWay}" / The handler is: private void Directory_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { ComboBox box = sender as ComboBox; if (box.IsDropDownOpen && (e.Key == Key.Delete)) { TrimCombobox("DirectoryList", box.HighlightedItem); // won't compile! } } When using the debugger, I can see box.HighlightedItem has the value I want but when I try and put in that code, it fails to compile with: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'HighlightedItem'... So: how do I access that value? Keep in mind that the item has not been selected. It is merely highlighted as the mouse hovers over it. Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

  - by Khnle

  I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

  Read the article

• JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu

  - by jolonaleur

  JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu Windows XP SP2 Java JRE 1.6.0_11-b03 Behavior varies. Sometimes, the Maximize and Minimize item on the window menu is disabled and sometimes enabled. Steps to reproduce enabled Maximize and Minimize button: Show the JDialog with setResizable(false) Open another window, say for example Notepad. Right-click on the window title bar of Notepad and click Maximize. Go to your JDialog and right click on the window title bar. Maximize window is enabled. Likewise, to disable the Maximize item for the JDialog, go to the maximized Notepad window and right click on title bar. Maximize item is disabled in the Notepad window. Go the your JDialog and right click on the title bar, notice that the Maximize item is also disabled. Note that my application can not use the defaultLookAndFeel method of java dialogs. The bug report related to this was for Solaris OS but that was already ages ago. bug report Is there any workaround? Thanks.

  Read the article

• FileReference.browse() stops playback on some Flash Players

  - by Christophe Herreman

  We have an issue were the server session associated with a Flex client times out when the browse file dialog is open for a time longer then the configured session timeout. It seems that on some players, the playback is stopped when browse or download on a FileReference is executing. This also causes remote calls to be blocked and hence our manual keep-alive messages are not sent to the server, resulting in a session timeout. I searched for some info on this in the docs and found a notice of it, but it does not explicitly list the players it does (not) work. Would anyone know were I could find a complete list? PS: here are the links that mention this behavior: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=17_Networking_and_communications_7.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() method are executing, most players will continue SWF file playback. http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/langref/flash/net/FileReference.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() methods are executing, SWF file playback pauses in stand-alone and external versions of Flash Player and in AIR for Linux and Mac OS X 10.1 and earlier Anyone knows what is meant with an "external Flash Player"? PPS: we tested this on Linux (10.0.x and 10.1.x) in Firefox where it seems to stop playback and on Windows (10.0.x) in IE where playback seems to continue.

  Read the article

• Spring bean initialization in a web app

  - by EugeneP

  We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

  Read the article

• Cannot overload function

  - by anio

  So I've got a templatized class and I want to overload the behavior of a function when I have specific type, say char. For all other types, let them do their own thing. However, c++ won't let me overload the function. Why can't I overload this function? I really really do not want to do template specialization, because then I've got duplicate the entire class. Here is a toy example demonstrating the problem: http://codepad.org/eTgLG932 The same code posted here for your reading pleasure: #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <string> struct Bar { std::string blah() { return "blah"; } }; template <typename T> struct Foo { public: std::string doX() { return m_getY(my_t); } private: std::string m_getY(char* p_msg) { return std::string(p_msg); } std::string m_getY(T* p_msg) { return p_msg->blah(); } T my_t; }; int main(int, char**) { Foo<char> x; Foo<Bar> y; std::cout << "x " << x.doX() << std::endl; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Thank you everyone for your suggestions. Two valid solutions have been presented. I can either specialize the doX method, or specialize m_getY() method. At the end of the day I prefer to keep my specializations private rather than public so I'm accepting Krill's answer.

  Read the article

• Host ::1 resolves to remote IP

  - by thebuckst0p

  /etc/hosts files usually have this line, ::1 localhost. I thought ::1 was the equivalent of 127.0.0.1/localhost, and from my reading it seems to be the IPv6 version. So I was using it in Apache for firewalling, "Allow from ::1" and it only allowed local. Then suddenly that stopped working, so I pinged ::1 and got a remote IP address. I tracerouted it and it went through my ISP, through some Microsoft server, then another half dozen steps of asterisks... I'm not sure why this would be (the remote IP), but it doesn't seem good. I grep'd my hard drive for the remote IP and it doesn't appear anywhere. Is this some indicator that I'm being hacked, or normal behavior? Maybe my IPv6 settings are wrong? (This is a brand new MacBookPro with Snow Leopard.) Any ideas about this would be great - what is ::1 supposed to be, why would it be remote, should I be worried, how do I get it back to localhost? Thank you!

  Read the article

• Choosing a W3C valid DOCTYPE and charset combination?

  - by George Carter

  I have a homepage with the following: <DOCTYPE html> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> My choice of the DOCTYPE "html" is based on a recommendation for html pages using jQuery. My choice of charset=utf=8 is based on a recommendation to make my pages readable on most browsers. But these choices may be wrong. When I run this page thru the W3C HTML validator, I get messages you see below. Any way I can eliminate the 2 errors? ! Using experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. The validator checked your document with an experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. This feature has been made available for your convenience, but be aware that it may be unreliable, or not perfectly up to date with the latest development of some cutting-edge technologies. If you find any issue with this feature, please report them. Thank you. Validation Output: 2 Errors 1. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing character encoding utf-8 and reparsing. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> 2. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing encoding at this point would need non-streamable behavior. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">

  Read the article

• Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

  - by Horace Loeb

  Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

  Read the article

• JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

  - by teerapap

  The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

  Read the article

• Invoking a method overloaded where all arguments implement the same interface

  - by double07

  Hello, My starting point is the following: - I have a method, transform, which I overloaded to behave differently depending on the type of arguments that are passed in (see transform(A a1, A a2) and transform(A a1, B b) in my example below) - All these arguments implement the same interface, X I would like to apply that transform method on various objects all implementing the X interface. What I came up with was to implement transform(X x1, X x2), which checks for the instance of each object before applying the relevant variant of my transform. Though it works, the code seems ugly and I am also concerned of the performance overhead for evaluating these various instanceof and casting. Is that transform the best I can do in Java or is there a more elegant and/or efficient way of achieving the same behavior? Below is a trivial, working example printing out BA. I am looking for examples on how to improve that code. In my real code, I have naturally more implementations of 'transform' and none are trivial like below. public class A implements X { } public class B implements X { } interface X { } public A transform(A a1, A a2) { System.out.print("A"); return a2; } public A transform(A a1, B b) { System.out.print("B"); return a1; } // Isn't there something better than the code below??? public X transform(X x1, X x2) { if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof A)) { return transform((A) x1, (A) x2); } else if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof B)) { return transform((A) x1, (B) x2); } else { throw new RuntimeException("Transform not implemented for " + x1.getClass() + "," + x2.getClass()); } } @Test public void trivial() { X x1 = new A(); X x2 = new B(); X result = transform(x1, x2); transform(x1, result); }

  Read the article

• Project builds skipped with Any CPU build platform

  - by JMarsch

  All: We are using Visual Studio 2010, and we have recently upgraded our workstations to Windows 7/64-bit. I have a question: When I create a new solution, it seems to want to use the x86 platform. If I change the solution to "any cpu" and then I add a new project to the solution, the project will not have an "any cpu" build option, and it will be deselected from building (in configuration manager). Something seems wrong here. Here's what I want to have (assuming that it is supported): I want my solutions' platforms to default to "Any CPU" (I believe that means that at JIT time, the assembly will be either x86 or 64-bit, based on the machine that loaded it). When I add a new project to the solution, I want for it to have an "any cpu" solution, and I want for that projec to build by default. (basically, the same behavior that we had in VS 2008 on 32-bit workstations). How do I do that? Is there some additional thing that I need to know now that I am using a 64-bit workstation?

  Read the article

• Timer appears to be pausing when screen becomes inactive

  - by elchuppa

  So I have a very simple android activity that starts a timer when you hit a button. Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { doStuff(); } }, 15 * 60 * 1000); So this worked reasonably well for me when I was testing but as it turns out when the screen becomes inactive so does the timer. I was a bit surprised by this. I understand you need to create a service to have anything running in the background but I hadn't realized this is required for an activity in the foreground when the phone has inactivated the screen due to lack of activity. What confuses me is I think this worked as I expected originally and just in the last few weeks or so has the timer been affected by the phone saving power. I could be wrong though.. So basically my questions are: am I seeing expected behavior? Do I need to create all timers as services or somehow disallow powersaving? thanks for any advice, Patrick

  Read the article

• Show NSSegmentedControl menu when segment clicked, despite having set action

  - by Justin Williams

  I have an NSSegmentedControl on my UI with 4 buttons. The control is connected to a method that will call different methods depending on which segment is clicked: - (IBAction)performActionFromClick:(id)sender { NSInteger selectedSegment = [sender selectedSegment]; NSInteger clickedSegmentTag = [[sender cell] tagForSegment:selectedSegment]; switch (clickedSegmentTag) { case 0: [self showNewEventWindow:nil]; break; case 1: [self showNewTaskWindow:nil]; break; case 2: [self toggleTaskSplitView:nil]; break; case 3: [self showGearMenu]; break; } } Segment 4 has has a menu attached to it in the awakeFromNib method. I'd like this menu to drop down when the user clicks the segment. At this point, it only will drop if the user clicks & holds down on the menu. From my research online this is because of the connected action. I'm presently working around it by using some code to get the origin point of the segment control and popping up the context menu using NSMenu's popUpContextMenu:withEvent:forView but this is pretty hacktastic and looks bad compared to the standard behavior of having the menu drop down below the segmented control cell. Is there a way I can have the menu drop down as it should after a single click rather than doing the hacky context menu thing?

  Read the article

• SQL Server problems reading columns with a foreign key

  - by illdev

  I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately By 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) I got a foreign key on ProductGroups ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] FOREIGN KEY([ProductGroupID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ProductGroup] ([ProductGroupID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] there are some 6000 rows and IsDiscontinued is a bit, not null, but leaving this condition out does not change the outcome. Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone? Additional Info: this does not seem to be restricted to this Foreign Key, but all/some referencing this entity.

  Read the article

• ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

  - by Metiu

  I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

  Read the article

• Using tarantula to test a Rails app

  - by Benjamin Oakes

  I'm using Tarantula to test a Rails app I'm developing. It works pretty well, but I'm getting some strange 404s. After looking into it, Tarantula is following DELETE requests (destroy actions on controllers) throughout my app when it tests. Since Tarantula gets the index action first (and seems to keep a list of unvisited URLs), it eventually tries to follow a link to a resource which it had deleted... and gets a 404. Tarantula is right that the URL doesn't exist anymore (because it deleted the resource itself). However, it's flagging it as an error -- that's hardly the behavior I would expect. I'm basically just using the Rails scaffolding and this problem is happening. How do I prevent Tarantula doing this? (Or, is there a better way of specifying the links?) Updates: Still searching, but I found a relevant thread here: http://github.com/relevance/tarantula/issues#issue/3 Seems to be coming from relying on JS too much, in a way (see also http://thelucid.com/2010/03/15/rails-can-we-please-have-a-delete-action-by-default/)

  Read the article

• JSP:Include not rendering the page correctly

  - by sreekanth

  am having trouble with including a jsp page with tag. This is what is happening. I making changes to a portlet application running on Websphere 7 server. This is the hierarchy of the jsp pages. blankPage.jsp --bookingViewTabs.jsp -- availableRooms.jsp meaning blankPage is included in bookingViewTabs which is inturn included in availableRooms.jsp I have 2 problems with this. (1). The blankPage.jsp does not render correctly on the screen. It gets cutoff (2). The other is in blankPage.jsp there is a form called "guestProfileSearchResultsFormId". this form has several hidden fields for data. example, "guestId" which is a child of that form and can be accessed formname.fieldname, but when i include that page into another jsp as the first include(there are several includes on the page) under the another form tag, the form field is not being rendered as a child of the form, but as a sibling of the form. If i change the order and include some other page and include this, it is working as it is supposed to have. meaning with children intact. I don't understand this behavior. I HAVE ATTACHED A GIF IMAGE OF WHAT I SEE ON THE BROWSER Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• how to set style through javascript in IE immediately

  - by rezna

  Hi, recently I've encountered a problem with IE. I have a function function() { ShowProgress(); DoSomeWork(); HideProgress(); } where ShowProgress and HideProgress just manipulate the 'display' CSS style using jQuery's css() method. In FF everything is OK, and at the same time I change the display property to block, progress-bar appears. But not in IE. In IE the style is applied, once I leave the function. Which means it's never shown, because at the end of the function I simply hide it. (if I remove the HideProgress line, the progress-bar appears right after finishing executing the function (more precisely, immediately when the calling functions ends - and so there's nothing else going on in IE)). Has anybody encountered this behavior? Is there a way to get IE to apply the style immediately? I've prepared a solution but it would take me some time to implement it. My DoSomeWork() method is doing some AJAX calls, and these are right now synchronous. I assume that making them asynchronous will kind of solve the problem, but I have to redesign the code a bit, so finding a solution just for applying the style immediately would much simplier. Thanks rezna

  Read the article

• Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

  - by stormin986

  I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

  Read the article

• Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

  - by Curtis White

  Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

  Read the article

• CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

  - by kurisukun

  I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

  Read the article

• How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

  - by Brian Bassett

  I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

  Read the article

• I am confused about how to use @SessionAttributes

  - by yusaku

  I am trying to understand architecture of Spring MVC. However, I am completely confused by behavior of @SessionAttributes. Please look at SampleController below , it is handling post method by SuperForm class. In fact, just field of SuperForm class is only binding as I expected. However, After I put @SessionAttributes in Controller, handling method is binding as SubAForm. Can anybody explain me what happened in this binding. ------------------------------------------------------- @Controller @SessionAttributes("form") @RequestMapping(value = "/sample") public class SampleController { @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public String getCreateForm(Model model) { model.addAttribute("form", new SubAForm()); return "sample/input"; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String register(@ModelAttribute("form") SuperForm form, Model model) { return "sample/input"; } } ------------------------------------------------------- public class SuperForm { private Long superId; public Long getSuperId() { return superId; } public void setSuperId(Long superId) { this.superId = superId; } } ------------------------------------------------------- public class SubAForm extends SuperForm { private Long subAId; public Long getSubAId() { return subAId; } public void setSubAId(Long subAId) { this.subAId = subAId; } } ------------------------------------------------------- <form:form modelAttribute="form" method="post"> <fieldset> <legend>SUPER FIELD</legend> <p> SUPER ID:<form:input path="superId" /> </p> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>SUB A FIELD</legend> <p> SUB A ID:<form:input path="subAId" /> </p> </fieldset> <p> <input type="submit" value="register" /> </p> </form:form>

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310  | Next Page >