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Which Javascript framework (jQuery vs Dojo vs ... )?

- by cletus

There are a few Javascript frameworks/toolets out there, such as: jQuery; Dojo; Prototype; YUI; MooTools; ExtJS; SmartClient; and others I'm sure. It certainly seems that jQuery is ascendant in terms of mindshare at the moment. For example, Microsoft (ASP.NET MVC) and Nokia will use it. I also found this this performance comparison of Dojo, jQuery, MooTools and Prototype (Edit: Updated Comparison), which looks highly favourable to Dojo and jQuery. Now my previous experience with Javascript has been the old school HTML + Javascript most of us have done and RIA frameworks like Google Web Toolkit ("GWT") and Ext-GWT, which were a fairly low-stress entry into the Ajax world for someone from a Java background, such as myself. But, after all this, I find myself leaning towards the more PHP + Ajax type solution, which just seems that much more lightweight. So I've been looking into jQuery and I really like it's use of commands, the use of fluent interfaces and method chaining, it's cross-browser CSS selector superset, the fact that it's lightweight and extensible, the brevity of the syntax, unobtrusive Javascript and the plug-in framework. Now obviously many of these aren't unique to jQuery but on the basis that some things are greater than their sum of parts, it just seems that it all fits together and works well. So jQuery seems to have a lot going for it and it looks to the frontrunner for what I choose to concentrate on. Is there anything else I should be aware of or any particular reasons not to choose it or to choose something else? EDIT: Just wanted to add this trend comparison of Javascript frameworks.

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Backwards compatibility when using Core Data

- by Alex

Could anybody shed some light as to why is my app crashing with the following error on iPhone OS 2.2.1 dyld: Symbol not found: _OBJC_CLASS_$_NSPredicate Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/456F243F-468A-4969-9BB7-A4DF993AE89C/AppName.app/AppName Expected in: /System/Library/Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Foundation I have weak linked CoreData.framework, and have the Base SDK set to 3.0 and Deployment Target set to SDK 2.2 The app already uses other 3.0 features when available and I did not have any problems with those. But apparently the backward-compatibility methods used for other features do not work with Core Data. The app crashes before app delegate's applicationDidFinishLaunching gets called. Here's the debugger log: [Session started at 2010-05-25 20:17:03 -0400.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1119) (Thu May 14 05:35:37 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "--host=i386-apple-darwin --target=arm-apple-darwin".tty /dev/ttys001 Loading program into debugger… sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all warning: Unable to read symbols from "MessageUI" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreData" (not yet mapped into memory). Program loaded. target remote-mobile /tmp/.XcodeGDBRemote-12038-42 Switching to remote-macosx protocol mem 0x1000 0x3fffffff cache mem 0x40000000 0xffffffff none mem 0x00000000 0x0fff none run Running… [Switching to thread 10755] [Switching to thread 10755] Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 1 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 2 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 3 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 4 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 5 (gdb) continue warning: Unable to read symbols for ""/Users/alex/iPhone Projects/AppName/build/Debug-iphoneos"/AppName.app/AppName" (file not found). dyld: Symbol not found: _OBJC_CLASS_$_NSPredicate Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/456F243F-468A-4969-9BB7-A4DF993AE89C/AppName.app/AppName Expected in: /System/Library/Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Foundation (gdb)

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Can't contravariance be solved with interfaces?

- by Sir Psycho

Hi, I'm at the point where I'm starting to grasp contravariance, although I'm trying to work out what the advantage is when an interface can be used instead. Obviously I'm missing something. Here is the c#4 example class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } Action<Animal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<Dog> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); Same example which works in earlier versions on c# class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal : IAnimal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } interface IAnimal { void Walk(); } Action<IAnimal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<IAnimal> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); These may not be the best examples, but I still can't seem to 'get it'. Is the in keywork defined on the action delegate simply a short hand syntax way like lamda is to delegates?

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Flex (Lex, not actionscript or w/e) Error

- by incrediman

I'm totally new to flex. I'm getting a build error when using flex. That is, I've generated a .c file using flex, and, when running it, am getting this error: 1>lextest.obj : error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "int __cdecl isatty(int)" (?isatty@@YAHH@Z) 1>C:\...\lextest.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals here is the lex file I'm using (grabbed from here): /*** Definition section ***/ %{ /* C code to be copied verbatim */ #include <stdio.h> %} /* This tells flex to read only one input file */ %option noyywrap %% /*** Rules section ***/ /* [0-9]+ matches a string of one or more digits */ [0-9]+ { /* yytext is a string containing the matched text. */ printf("Saw an integer: %s\n", yytext); } . { /* Ignore all other characters. */ } %% /*** C Code section ***/ int main(void) { /* Call the lexer, then quit. */ yylex(); return 0; } As well, why do I have to put a 'main' function in the lex syntax code? What I'd like is to be able to call yylex(); from another c file.

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Best way to pass image to server?

- by Chris

I have an SL3 application that needs to be able to pass an image to the server, and then the server will generate a PDF file with the image in it, and display it to the user. What I already have in place are the following: (1) Code to convert image to byte array (2) Code to generate PDF file with image The main problem that I am running into is the following: In order to bypass the pop-up blocker, which is a requirement for my application, I am using the following code: var button = new NavigationButton(); button.NavigateUri = new Uri("http://localhost:3616/PrintReport.aspx?ReportIndex=11&ActionType=Get&ReportIdentifier=" + reportIdentifier.ToString() + ""); button.TargetName = "_blank"; button.PerformClick(); Initially, I would pass the image to a WCF web service (as a byte array), and then "navigate" to the ASP.NET page that would display the report. However, if I do this, then I can not use my custom HyperlinkButton class, and, certain browsers, including Safari, will block a new window from opening up. Therefore, it appears that the only option is to use the HyperlinkButton class. What I need to be able to do is to somehow pass the image, as a byte array or some other data type, to the server, such that it can temporarily store the image, even if it is in a server variable, and then immediately retrieve it when I navigate to the PrintReport.aspx page. If I upload the image to an ASP.NET form and then use the HyperlinkButton class to navigate to the PrintReport page, it doesn't work, as the app navigates to the PrintReport page before the system has finished uploading the image. I can't pass it to a web service, as that would require that I navigate to the PrintReport.aspx page in the callback code of the web method that I would be passing the image to, and the HyperlinkButton will not allow that, based on security rules. Any help or ideas would be appreciated. Thanks. Chris

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Python c_types .dll functions (pari library)

- by silinter

Alright, so a couple days ago I decided to try and write a primitive wrapper for the PARI library. Ever since then I've been playing with ctypes library in loading the dll and accessing the functions contained using code similar to the following: from ctypes import * libcyg=CDLL("<path/cygwin1.dll") #It needs cygwin to be loaded. Not sure why. pari=CDLL("<path>/libpari-gmp-2.4.dll") print pari.fibo #fibonacci function #prints something like "<_FuncPtr object at 0x00BA5828>" So the functions are there and they can potentially be accessed, but I always recieve an access violation no matter what I try. For example: pari.fibo(5) #access violation pari.fibo(c_int(5)) #access violation pari.fibo.argtypes=[c_long] #setting arguments manually pari.fibo.restype=long #set the return type pari.fibo(byref(c_int(5))) #access violation reading 0x04 consistently and any variation on that, including setting argtypes to receive pointers. The Pari .dll is written in C and the fibonacci function's syntax within the library is GEN fibo(long x) (docs @http://pari.math.u-bordeaux.fr/dochtml/html/Arithmetic_functions.html#fibonacci, I need more rep it seems). Could it be the return type that's causing these errors, as it is not a standard int or long but a GEN type, which is unique to the PARI library? Any help would be appreciated. If anyone is able to successfully load the library and use ANY function from within python, please tell; I've been at this for hours now.

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WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

- by PaN1C_Showt1Me

Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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Jquery validations on form with no fields

- by jcovert

I have a table (in a form) populated with radio buttons (with a button for each value in a collection). If the collection is empty, nothing shows up in the table (which is fine). (I'm using Struts2) My trouble comes when validating that the user has selected one of these radio buttons when the submit button is clicked. I'm using JQUERY validations, and it works quite well UNLESS there are no radio buttons to select (collection is empty). $('#startProcessForm').validate({ rules: { selectedProcess: { required: true } }, messages: { selectedProcess: "Please select a process to start." } }); If the list IS empty, then there are no fields (radio button or otherwise) named "selectedProcess". So my question is this: How can I make "selectedProcess" exist AND fail the 'required:true' validation if there's nothing in the collection? I was thinking I could create an empty tag of the same name (selectedProcess) if the collection is empty? Here's what I'd guess would work but doesn't seem to: <s:if test="processes != null && !processes.isEmpty()"> <s:iterator value="processes" status="processesStatus"> <tr> <td><s:radio name="selectedProcess" list="{name}"></s:radio></td> </tr> </s:iterator> </s:if> <s:else> <tr> <td><a name="selectedProcess"></a></td> </tr> </s:else> Thanks!

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Open Source CMS (.Net vs Java)

- by CmsAndDotNetKindaGuy

I must say up-front that this is not a strictly programming-related question and a very opinionated one. I am the lead developer of the dominant .Net CMS in my country and I don't like my own product :). Managerial decisions over what is important or not and large chunks of legacy code done before I joined gives me headache every day I go for work. Anyway, having a vast amount of experience in web industry and a very good grasp of C# and programming practices I'm designing my own CMS the past few months. Now the problem is that I'm an open source kinda guy so I have a dilemma. Should I use C# and .Net which has crippled multi-platform support or should I drop .Net entirely and start learning Java where I can create a truly open-source and cross-platform CMS? Please don't answer that I should contribute to an existing open source CMS. I ruled that out after spending a great deal of time searching for something similar in structure to what I have in mind. I am not a native speaker, so feel free to correct my syntax or rephrase my question.

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How do you concat multiple rows into one column in SQL Server?

- by Jason

I've searched high and low for the answer to this, but I can't figure it out. I'm relatively new to SQL Server and don't quite have the syntax down yet. I have this datastructure (simplified): Table "Users" | Table "Tags": UserID UserName | TagID UserID PhotoID 1 Bob | 1 1 1 2 Bill | 2 2 1 3 Jane | 3 3 1 4 Sam | 4 2 2 ----------------------------------------------------- Table "Photos": | Table "Albums": PhotoID UserID AlbumID | AlbumID UserID 1 1 1 | 1 1 2 1 1 | 2 3 3 1 1 | 3 2 4 3 2 | 5 3 2 | I'm looking for a way to get the all the photo info (easy) plus all the tags for that photo concatenated like CONCAT(username, ', ') AS Tags of course with the last comma removed. I'm having a bear of a time trying to do this. I've tried the method in this article but I get an error when I try to run the query saying that I can't use DECLARE statements... do you guys have any idea how this can be done? I'm using VS08 and whatever DB is installed in it (I normally use MySQL so I don't know what flavor of DB this really is... it's an .mdf file?)

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Vertical-Align: A Full Explanation

- by Livvy Jeffs

I've been struggling with vertical alignments, a seemingly simple enough process that has a lot of idiosyncrasies throughout different languages and element types. I've done a lot of reading through stackexchange and can't seem to find a common thread of understanding. Here are the rules that I have been able to gather: 1) Vertical-align does not work in <\div>s, you have to set div {display: table-cell; vertical-align: middle} This seems like a big hassle, especially since table-cells override the height limitation even when overflow is set to hidden and expands to fit content, which means the vertical "center" is variable. I just read some source-code from Pinterest where button {vertical-align: middle}, but no other vertical-align commands seem to work. It seems as if button is by default aligned in the middle. Can someone provide a clear explanation for the vertical-align attribute? What html elements respond to vertical-align? Which html elements have default vertical-align attributes? Which html elements have non-overridable vertical-align attributes? And any clues as to understanding the idiosyncracies would help as well! Thanks in advance!

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Using $.get with jquery validation

- by Jimmy McCarthy

I'm trying to use the Jquery builtin validator on my page. The issue is that I have certain fields that only are required if the JobID (entered into another field) does not already exist in our database. I have a simple service which simply takes JobID and returns True or False based on whether the JobID exists, but I can't seem to get this information where I want it. Some sample code: $("#dep_form").validate({ rules: { JobID: { required: true, digits: true, minlength: 3 }, OrgName: { required: function(element) { //This field is required if the JobID is new. return $("#jobinfo").html().length==15; } } }, messages: { JobID: { required: "Enter a Job Number.", digits: "Only numbers are allowed in Job ID's.", minlength: "Job Number must be at least 3 digits" }, OrgName: { required: "Select a Practice from the dropdown list." } }, errorClass: "ui-state-error-input", errorLabelContainer: "#errorbox", errorElement: 'li', errorContainer: "#validation_errors", onfocusout: false, onkeyup: false, focusinvalid: false }; Currently, I'm using a lazy method to validate (shown above). However, I now have access to a service using the URL: var lookupurl = "/deposits/jobidvalidate/?q=" + $("#id_JobID").val() + "&t=" + new Date().getTime(); which is a page which will contain just the word True or False based on whether that given JobID exists. I've tried half a dozen different ways of setting variables and calling functions within functions and still cannot get a way to simply return the value of that page (which I've been trying to access with $.get() ) to my validator, so that required is set to true when the Job does not exist and false if the job already exists. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

- by Josh

http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

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In ParallelPython, a method of an object ( object.func() ) fails to manipulate a variable of an object ( object.value )

- by mehmet.ali.anil

With parallelpython, I am trying to convert my old serial code to parallel, which heavily relies on objects that have methods that change that object's variables. A stripped example in which I omit the syntax in favor of simplicity: class Network: self.adjacency_matrix = [ ... ] self.state = [ ... ] self.equilibria = [ ... ] ... def populate_equilibria(self): # this function takes every possible value that self.state can be in # runs the boolean dynamical system # and writes an integer within self.equilibria for each self.state # doesn't return anything I call this method as: Code: j1 = jobserver.submit(net2.populate_equilibria,(),(),("numpy as num")) The job is sumbitted, and I know that a long computation takes place, so I speculate that my code is ran. The problem is, i am new to parallelpython , I was expecting that, when the method is called, the variable net2.equilibria would be written accordingly, and I would get a revised object (net2) . That is how my code works, independent objects with methods that act upon the object's variables. Rather, though the computation is apparent, and reasonably timed, the variable net2.equilibria remains unchanged. As if PP only takes the function and the object, computes it elsewhere, but never returns the object, so I am left with the old one. What do I miss? Thanks in advance.

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What specific features of LabView are frustrating to you?

- by Underflow

Please bear with me: this isn't a language debate or a flame. It's a real request for opinions. Occasionally, I have to help educate a traditional text coder in how to think in LabVIEW (LV). Often during this process, I get to hear about how LV sucks. Rarely is this insight accompanied by rational observations other than "Language X is just so much better!". While this statement is satisfying to them, it doesn't help me understand what is frustrating them. So, for those of you with LabVIEW and text language experience, what specific things about LV drive you nuts? ------ Summaries ------- Thanks for all the answers! Some of the issues are answered in the comments below, some exist on other sites, and some are just genuine problems with LV. In the spirit of the original question, I'm not going to try to answer all of these here: check LAVA or NI's website, and you'll be pleasantly surprised at how many of these things can be overcome. Unintentional concurrency No access to tradition text manipulation tools Binary-only source code control Difficult to branch and merge Too many open windows Text has cleaner/clearer/more expressive syntax Clean coding requires a lot of time and manipulation Large, difficult to access API/palette system Mouse required File namespacing: no duplicate files with the same name in memory LV objects are natively by-value only Requires dev environment to view code Lack of zoom Slow startup Memory pig "Giant" code is difficult to work with UI lockup is easy to do Trackpads and LV don't mix well String manipulation is graphically bloated Limited UI customization "Hidden" primitives (yes, these exist) Lack of official metaprogramming capability (not for much longer, though) Lack of unicode support [1]: http://www.lavag.org LAVA

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Python minidom and UTF-8 encoded XML with hash references

- by Jakob Simon-Gaarde

Hi I am experiencing some difficulty in my home project where I need to parse a SOAP request. The SOAP is generated with gSOAP and involves string parameters with special characters like the danish letters "æøå". gSOAP builds SOAP requests with UTF-8 encoding by default, but instead of sending the special chatacters in raw format (ie. bytes C3A6 for the special character "æ") it sends what I think is called character hash references (ie. Ã¦). I don't completely understand why gSOAP does it this way as I can see that it has marked the incomming payload as being UTF-8 encoded anyway (Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8), but this is besides the question (I think). Anyway I guess gSOAP probably is obeying transport rules, or what? When I parse the request from gSOAP in python with xml.dom.minidom.parseString() I get element values as unicode objects which is fine, but the character hash references are not decoded as UTF-8 character codes. It unescapes the character hash references, but does not decode the string afterwards. In the end I have a unicode string object with UTF-8 encoding: So if the string "æble" is contained in the XML, it comes like this in the request: "Ã¦ble" After parsing the XML the unicode string in the DOM Text Node's data member looks like this: u'\xc3\xa6ble' I would expect it to look like this: u'\xe6ble' What am I doing wrong? Should I unescape the SOAP XML before parsing it, or is it somewhere else I should be looking for the solution, maybe gSOAP? Thanks in advance. Best regards Jakob Simon-Gaarde

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A problem with connected points and determining geometry figures based on points' location analysis

- by StolePopov

In school we have a really hard problem, and still no one from the students has solved it yet. Take a look at the picture below: http://d.imagehost.org/0422/mreza.gif That's a kind of a network of connected points, which doesn't end and each point has its own number representing it. Let say the numbers are like this: 1-23-456-78910-etc. etc.. (You can't see the number 5 or 8,9... on the picture but they are there and their position is obvious, the point in middle of 4 and 6 is 5 and so on). 1 is connected to 2 and 3, 2 is connected to 1,3,5 and 4 etc. The numbers 1-2-3 indicate they represent a triangle on the picture, but the numbers 1-4-6 do not because 4 is not directly connected with 6. Let's look at 2-3-4-5, that's a parallelogram (you know why), but 4-6-7-9 is NOT a parallelogram because the in this problem there's a rule which says all the sides must be equal for all the figures - triangles and parallelograms. Also there are hexagons, for ex. 4-5-7-9-13-12 is a hexagon - all sides must be equal here too. 12345 - that doesn't represent anything, so we ignore it. I think i explained the problem well. The actual problem which is given to us by using an input of numbers like above to determine if that's a triangle/parallelogram/hexagon(according to the described rules). For ex: 1 2 3 - triangle 11 13 24 26 -parallelogram 1 2 3 4 5 - nothing 11 23 13 25 - nothing 3 2 5 - triangle I was reading computational geometry in order to solve this, but i gave up quickly, nothing seems to help here. One friend told me this site so i decided to give it a try. If you have any ideas about how to solve this, please reply, you can use pseudo code or c++ whatever. Thank you very much.

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How can I 'transpose' my data using SQL and remove duplicates at the same time?

- by Remnant

I have the following data structure in my database: LastName FirstName CourseName John Day Pricing John Day Marketing John Day Finance Lisa Smith Marketing Lisa Smith Finance etc... The data shows employess within a business and which courses they have shown a preference to attend. The number of courses per employee will vary (i.e. as above, John has 3 courses and Lisa 2). I need to take this data from the database and pass it to a webpage view (asp.net mvc). I would like the data that comes out of my database to match the view as much as possible and want to transform the data using SQl so that it looks like the following: LastName FirstName Course1 Course2 Course3 John Day Pricing Marketing Finance Lisa Smith Marketing Finance Any thoughts on how this may be achieved? Note: one of the reasons I am trying this approach is that the original data structure does not easily lend itself to be iterated over using the typical mvc syntax: <% foreach (var item in Model.courseData) { %> Because of the duplication of names in the orignal data I would end up with lots of conditionals in my View which I would like to avoid. I have tried transforming the data using c# in my ViewModel but have found it tough going and feel that I could lighten the workload by leveraging SQL before I return the data. Thanks.

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GWT: Change padding of tree rows?

- by Epaga

A GWT tree looks roughly like this: <div class="gwt-Tree"> <div style="padding-top: 3px; padding-right: 3px; padding-bottom: 3px; margin-left: 0px; padding-left: 23px;"> <div style="display:inline;" class="gwt-TreeItem"> <table> ... </table> </div> </div> <div ...> </div> ... </div> My question is: how should I change the padding of the individual tree rows? I suppose I could do something along the lines of setting CSS rules for .gwt-Tree > div but that seems hacky. Is there a more elegant way?

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Generics and collections ... struggling with an implementation

- by mattruma

I am trying to figure out a way to leverage generics so I can make the property Value be an actual type that initialized (not sure if this is the correct way of saying it) when my collection class is created. I would like to have the syntax be something like: var list = new ListItemCollection<Guid>(parameters would go here); I have the following class: [Serializable] public class ListItem { public object Value { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } public object DataContext { get; set; } public Nullable<bool> Checked { get; set; } public ListItem() { this.Checked = false; } } I have the following collection: [Serializable] public class ListItemCollection : List<ListItem> { public ListItem this[object value] { get { foreach (var child in this) { if (child.Value.Equals(value)) return child; } return null; } } public bool Contains(object value) { foreach (var child in this) { if (child.Value.Equals(value)) return true; } return false; } public void Add(object value, string text) { this.Add(value, text, null); } public void Add(object value, string text, object dataContext) { var child = new ListItem(); child.Value = value; child.Text = text; child.DataContext = dataContext; this.Add(child); } public ListItemCollection() { } public ListItemCollection(IEnumerable items, string displayMember, string valueMember, bool showEmptyItem, string emptyItemText, object emptyItemValue) { if (showEmptyItem) { this.Add(emptyItemValue, emptyItemText); } foreach (object item in items) { object text = null; object value = null; text = item.GetType().GetProperty(displayMember).GetValue(item, null); value = item.GetType().GetProperty(valueMember).GetValue(item, null); // Add the item this.Add(value, text.ToString(), item); } } }

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Javascript/PHP and timezones

- by James

Hi, I'd like to be able to guess the user's timezone offset and whether or not daylight savings is being applied. Currently, the most definitive code that I've found for this is here: http://www.michaelapproved.com/articles/daylight-saving-time-dst-detect/ So this gives me the offset along with the DST indicator. Now, I want to use these in my PHP scripts in order to ouput the local date/time for the user....but what's best for this? I figure I have 2 options: a) Pick a random timezone which has the same offset and DST setting from the output of timezone_abbreviations_list(). Then call date_timezone_set() with this in order to apply the correct treatment to the time. b) Continue treating the date as UTC but just do some timestamp addition to add the appropriate number of hours on. My feeling is that option B is the best way. The reason for this is that with A, I could be using a timezone which although correct in terms of offset/dst, may have some obscur rules in place behind the scene that could give surprising results (I don't know of any but nonetheless I don't think I can rule it out). I'd then re-check the timezone using Javascript at the start of each session in order to capture when either the user's timezone changes (very unlikely) or they pass in to the DST period. Sorry for the brain dump - I'm really just after some sort of reassurance that the approaches above are valid. Thanks, James.

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How to get around the jslint error 'Don't make functions within a loop.'

- by Ernelli

I am working on making all of our JS code pass through jslint, sometimes with a lot of tweaking with the options to get legacy code pass for now on with the intention to fix it properly later. There is one thing that jslint complains about that I do not have a workround for. That is when using constructs like this, we get the error 'Don't make functions within a loop.' for (prop in newObject) { // Check if we're overwriting an existing function if (typeof newObject[prop] === "function" && typeof _super[prop] === "function" && fnTest.test(newObject[prop])) { prototype[prop] = (function (name, func) { return function () { var result, old_super; old_super = this._super; this._super = _super[name]; result = func.apply(this, arguments); this._super = old_super; return result; }; })(prop, newObject[prop]); } This loop is part of a JS implementation of classical inheritance where classes that extend existing classes retain the super property of the extended class when invoking a member of the extended class. Just to clarify, the implementation above is inspired by this blog post by John Resig. But we also have other instances of functions created within a loop. The only workaround so far is to exclude these JS files from jslint, but we would like to use jslint for code validation and syntax checking as part of our continuous integration and build workflow. Is there a better way to implement functionality like this or is there a way to tweak code like this through jslint?

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Datagridview DateTime Format not using System Region settings

- by Nick

I've got a datagridview that is hooked up to a bindingsource on my main form. One of the columns and datamembers in the bindingsource is a DateTime object. When the datagridview shows this item it doesn't use Window's default region settings for displaying datetime. The weird thing is, I can access this same DateTime object and print it to a text box, or even pass it off to another form with another datagridview and binding source and it actually shows up properly in that table. So then, why does the datagridview on my main form not use the regional date/time settings when converting the DateTime object to a string? I've checked that there was no special formatting applied to the datagridview and so I'm running out of ideas to check. Do you guys know if there is any super secret way to get a datagridview to follow system regional format rules or not? Also, since I highly doubt that I did something different with this datagridview vs the others in my application, the next potential area for issue could be on application load: Perhaps since this comes up when the application loads, it's not getting the same cultureUI settings as the other datagridviews? Any Help?

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.post inside jQuery.validator.addMethod always returns false :(

- by abdullah kahraman

Hello! I am very new to jQuery and javascript programming. I have a program below that checks whether username is taken or not. For now, the PHP script always returns if(isset($_POST["username"]) )//&& isset($_POST["checking"])) { $xml="<register><message>Available</message></register>"; echo $xml; } Login function works, but username checking doesn't. Any ideas? Here is all of my code: $(document).ready(function() { jQuery.validator.addMethod("checkAvailability",function(value,element){ $.post( "login.php" , {username:"test", checking:"yes"}, function(xml){ if($("message", xml).text() == "Available") return true; else return false; }); },"Sorry, this user name is not available"); $("#loginForm").validate({ rules: { username: { required: true, minlength: 4, checkAvailability: true }, password:{ required: true, minlength: 5 } }, messages: { username:{ required: "You need to enter a username." , minlength: jQuery.format("Your username should be at least {0} characters long.") } }, highlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).fadeOut("fast",function() { $(element).fadeIn("slow"); }) }, success: function(x){ x.text("OK!") }, submitHandler: function(form){send()} }); function send(){ $("#message").hide("fast"); $.post( "login.php" , {username:$("#username").val(), password:$("#password").val()}, function(xml){ $("#message").html( $("message", xml).text() ); if($("message", xml).text() == "You are successfully logged in.") { $("#message").css({ "color": "green" }); $("#message").fadeIn("slow", function(){location.reload(true);}); } else { $("#message").css({ "color": "red" }); $("#message").fadeIn("slow"); } }); } $("#newUser").click(function(){ return false; }); });

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PageMethod with Custom Handler

- by Mister Cook

I have a page based web method which works fine, using [WebMethod], i.e [WebMethod] public static void DoSomethingOnTheServer() { } I also have a custom page handler to make SEO friendly URLs possible, e.g http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext = http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 I am using Server.Transfer in my ProcessRequest handler to achieve this. This all works fine. Also, my page method works fine when the user requests the URL such as: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx?id=1 However, when the user requests the custom handled URL, i.e. http://localhost/MySite/A_nice_url.ext The client reports that the PageMethod has been successfully completed, but it has not been called at all. I'm guessing it has something to do with my custom handler, so I have modified it to include PathInfo: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { // ... (code to determine id) ... // Transfer to the required page string actualPath = "~/page.aspx" + context.Request.PathInfo + "?id=" + determinedId; context.Server.Transfer(actualPath); } So now if a PageMethod is called, it will result in: http://localhost/MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer?id=1 I'm wondering if this is the correct syntax for calling a PageMethod. When I try Server.Transfer reports: Error executing child request for /MySite/page.aspx/DoSomethingOnTheServer I've experimented with HttpContext.RewritePath but not sure how to actually make it perform the request. This does not seem to work, any ideas?

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