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  • How to do logout functionality in C# smart device application?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developng Smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In this application I am using Login form to authenticate the users. Only authenticated users can login into the system. In this application I am calling java web services which resides on another machine. I am passing mobile number & password from mu application's login form to the java web services. The java web services returns the userid after successful authentication. I made this userid static so that it can be used frequently with other web services. I using statc variables in this application so that they can be used at application level. After deploying the application I can see that emulator provides the close button with multiplicaton symbol. In this way I can close my form as well as application. But I want to provde one logout link in my application. Can I provide logout functionality in C# window application ? If yes, how to do that ? Please make sure that all the functions of .net framework does not work with .net compact framwork? Can you provide me the code or link through which can resolve the above issue ?

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  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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  • Creating an API for an ASP.NET MVC site with rate-limiting and caching

    - by Maxim Z.
    Recently, I've been very interested in APIs, specifically in how to create them. For the purpose of this question, let's say that I have created an ASP.NET MVC site that has some data on it; I want to create an API for this site. I have multiple questions about this: What type of API should I create? I know that REST and oData APIs are very popular. What are the pros and cons of each, and how do I implement them? From what I understand so far, REST APIs with ASP.NET MVC would just be actions that return JSON instead of Views, and oData APIs are documented here. How do I handle writing? Reading from both API types is quite simple. However, writing is more complex. With the REST approach, I understand that I can use HTTP POST, but how do I implement authentication? Also, with oData, how does writing work in the first place? How do I implement basic rate-limiting and caching? From my past experience with APIs, these are very important things, so that the API server isn't overloaded. What's the best way to set these two things up? Can I get some sample code? Any code that relates to C# and ASP.NET MVC would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! While this is a broad question, I think it's not too broad... :) There are some similar questions to this one that are about APIs, but I haven't found any that directly address the questions I outlined here.

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  • firefox reading web page from local JS file -- access to restricted URI denied, code: 1012, nsresult

    - by macias
    My problem is -- I have a html file which is really JS program, which reads web pages and show them in customized manner (i.e. it displays the same content in a different way). Basically, I create XMLHttpRequest object and then req.open("GET", web_page_address, false); req.send(""); This gives me (in firefox) an error: Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012" nsresult: "0x805303f4 (NS_ERROR_DOM_BAD_URI)" I already googled, and looked at SO but all other issues are very similar with those two exceptions: the file I open in firefox is a local file, opened directly in browser -- I don't have www server running at localhost I don't have any control over the web pages I am reading stuff from So, several solutions I've seen so far (like adding PHP proxy, changing the way external server sends data) cannot be applied here. What else can be done in such case? Another story is I am wondering if such strict security for directly local file has any sense. Thank you in advance for tips/links/etc. Have a nice day!

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  • Routing trouble for RESTful API - Rails

    - by aressidi
    I'm building out an API for web app that I've been working on for some time. I've started with the User model. The user portion of the API will allow remote clients to a) retrieve user data, b) update user information and c) create new users. I've gotten all of this to work, but it doesn't seem like its setup correctly. Here are my questions: Should the API endpoint be users or user? What's the best practice? I have to add the action to the end, which I would expect to be picked up instead by the request type so I don't have to specify it explicitly. How do I get my routes setup properly as not to have to include the method for protected actions? Let me give some examples: Get request for show - want it to work without the "show" curl -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/show Put request for update - want it to work without the "update" curl -X put -F 'user[forum_notifications]=true' -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/update Create - works with or without 'create' which is what I want for all these actions curl -X post -F 'user[login]=mamafatta' -F 'user[email][email protected]' -F 'user[password]=12345678' http://twye.local/api/users/ How do I structure routes to not require the action name? Isn't that the common way to to RESTful APIs? Here is my route for the API now: map.namespace :api do |route| route.resources :users route.resources :weight end I'm using restful authentication which is handling the http auth in curl. Any guidance on the routes issues and best practice on singular versus plural would be really helpful. Thanks! -A

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  • Can't block capslock with CGEventTap

    - by Thor Frølich
    I'm using Quartz CGEventTap in an attempt to globally intercept capslock presses and block them (to have them do something useful instead). I succesfully detect capslock presses but have so far been unable to block them. My code (originating from this stackoverflow answer) is something like this: eventTap = CGEventTapCreate(kCGHIDEventTap, kCGTailAppendEventTap, kCGEventTapOptionDefault, eventMask, myCGEventCallback, &oldFlags); runLoopSource = CFMachPortCreateRunLoopSource(kCFAllocatorDefault, eventTap, 0); CFRunLoopAddSource(CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), runLoopSource, kCFRunLoopCommonModes); CGEventTapEnable(eventTap, true); CGEventRef myCGEventCallback(CGEventTapProxy proxy, CGEventType type, CGEventRef theEvent, void *refcon) { CGEventFlags *oldFlags = (CGEventFlags *)refcon; switch (type) { case kCGEventFlagsChanged: { CGEventFlags newFlags = CGEventGetFlags(theEvent); CGEventFlags changedFlags = *oldFlags ^ newFlags; *oldFlags = newFlags; if (changedFlags == 65536) { NSLog(@"Capslock pressed. Let's not return the event"); return NULL; } break; } default: break; } NSLog(@"Different modifier than capslock. Returning the event"); return theEvent; } If I understand correctly returning NULL should effectively block the keypress from propagating. Indeed it also does for "normal" keyup and -down events. However capslock toggles regardless. Any ideas why that is? Am I making incorrect assumptions? And/or how can I do things differently to achieve my goal? Thanks, Thor

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  • How to suppress/control logging of Wagon-FTP Maven extension?

    - by Vincenzo
    I'm deploying Maven site by FTP, using Wagon-FTP. Works fine, but output is full of FTP connection/authentication details, which effectively expose logins and passwords to everybody (especially if the project is open source and its CI protocols are publicly accessible): [...] [INFO] [INFO] --- maven-site-plugin:3.0-beta-3:deploy (default-deploy) @ rempl --- Reply received: 220---------- Welcome to Pure-FTPd [privsep] [TLS] ---------- 220-You are user number 1 of 50 allowed. 220-Local time is now 09:08. Server port: 21. 220 You will be disconnected after 15 minutes of inactivity. Command sent: USER **** Reply received: 331 User **** OK. Password required Command sent: PASS ******** Reply received: 230-User **** has group access to: *** 230 OK. Current restricted directory is / [...] Is it possible to suppress this logging? Or configure it... This is a section of my pom.xml, where Wagon-FTP is used: [...] <build> <extensions> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-7</version> </extension> </extensions> [...] </build> [...]

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  • Cookie add in the Global.asax warning in application log

    - by Ioxp
    In my Global.ASAX file i have the following: System.Web.HttpCookie isAccess = new System.Web.HttpCookie("IsAccess"); isAccess.Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1); isAccess.Value = ""; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(isAccess); So every time this method this is logged in the application events as a warning: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 5/25/2010 12:23:20 PM Event time (UTC): 5/25/2010 4:23:20 PM Event ID: c515e27a28474eab8d99720c3f5a8e90 Event sequence: 4148 Event occurrence: 332 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2100509645/Root-1-129192259222289896 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: <PathRemoved>\www\ Machine name: TIPPER Process information: Process ID: 6936 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: NullReferenceException Exception message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Request information: Request URL: Request path: User host address: User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at ASP.global_asax.Session_End(Object sender, EventArgs e) in <PathRemoved>\Global.asax:line 113 Any idea why this code would cause this error?

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  • A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

    - by Tom
    I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

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  • Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

    - by user577229
    I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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  • cookie name is truncated in Servlet 3.0 HttpServletRequest (Glassfish V3)

    - by idplmal
    I'm porting our Web authentication/authorization middleware for use in containers implementing the new servlet 3.0 API (Glassfish V3 in this case). The middleware pulls cookies from the HttpServletRequest filtering on cookies with names of the form "DACS:FEDERATION::JURISDICTION:username". This works fine in the version 2.5 servlet API but is broken in 3.0. The cookie names in 3.0 are being truncated at the first ":" in the name. I understand that the servlet 3.0 implementation defaults to RFC 2109 cookies which are more restrictive about cookie names than the old Netscape spec (":" is among the characters not allowed in RFC 2109 cookie names). Digging into the servlet 3.0 source code, it appears that the use of RFC2109 names can be disabled by setting a System property "org.glassfish.web.rfc2109.cookie_names_enforced" to false. I've tried this to no avail. But besides that, the code that uses checks cookie names is in the constructor for Cookie, and it would appear that the truncation is occurring elsewhere. So - finally - the question. Have others bumped into such issues in the servlet 3.0 API and have you found a work around?

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • How to intercept, parse and compile?

    - by epitka
    This is a problem I've been struggling to solve for a while. I need a way to either replace code in the method with a parsed code from the template at compile time (PostSharp comes to mind) or to create a dynamic proxy (Linfu or Castle). So given a source code like this [Template] private string GetSomething() { var template = [%=Customer.Name%] } I need it to be compiled into this private string GetSomething() { MemoryStream mStream = new MemoryStream(); StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(mStream,System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); writer.Write(@"" ); writer.Write(Customer.Name); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(mStream); writer.Flush(); mStream.Position = 0; return sr.ReadToEnd(); } It is not important what technology is used. I tried with PostSharp's ImplementMethodAspect but got nowhere (due to lack of experience with it). I also looked into Linfu framework. Can somebody suggest some other approach or way to do this, I would really appreciate. My whole project depends on this.

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  • Are these settings correct for sending mail through Rails/Gmail?

    - by aressidi
    Hi there, I spend a good deal of time building an email system for my Rails app that uses Gmail to send bulk mail to a list of opt-in users. I realize a shortcomming of using Google Apps for my mail, namely a rate limit on the number of emails it will send out (i believe 500). Anyway, I have reached out to my users to see how many have received the email, and a lot of them have not, though some have. The list I tried sending to was about 540 users, so I would have expected more "yes, got it," then "nope, still waiting" responses. I have two questions: Do these settings look correct for outgoing bulk mailing through Gmail? Again, using google apps to manage my domain and i know some people (including myself) have received the mailer. This is in a mail.rb initializer in my app. ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :sendmail ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 25, :domain => "mydomain.com", :authentication => :login, :user_name => "[email protected]", :password => "mypass" } Is there any way I can test if the mail was delivered, or at least attempted to be delivered? I can't tell where in the list the mailer stops mailing! The way I generate the list is through a query which then passes the user info to a mailer worker which sends the emails out via Starling/Workling. Any advice here would be useful. Happy to post code, but want to make sure the method I'm using is sound. Thanks for the help!

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  • Nhibernate join on a table twice

    - by Zuber
    Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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  • PHP: Post ASPX form that uses 'WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions' with cUrl

    - by Oliver Cooper
    I am trying to post an ASPX form which uses SharePoint with PHP. Posting data works with standard forms, I just can't seem to get this form working. I did notice an onclick attribute on the submit button: onclick="javascript:WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions("ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask", "", true, "", "", false, false))" I have never used ASPX and have no idea what this is. It is not an authentication problem or something wrong with the url as it returns the webpage (which contains the form) fine. Here is my PHP code: function add($username, $password){ $data = array( 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl00' => 'https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl04' => '0', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateStart$DateStartDate' => '9/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateDue$DateDueDate' => '10/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$Title' => 'test again', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask' => 'OK', '__spText1' => '', '__spText2' => '' ); $curl_handle = curl_init(); $fullurl = "https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au/_layouts/StPeters.Keystone/MyTasks/MyTaskDetail.aspx?id=0&IsDlg=1"; // $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_ANY); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, "$username:$password"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $fullurl); $returned = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $returned; }

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

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  • What do I name this class whose sole purpose is to report failure?

    - by Blair Holloway
    In our system, we have a number of classes whose construction must happen asynchronously. We wrap the construction process in another class that derives from an IConstructor class: class IConstructor { public: virtual void Update() = 0; virtual Status GetStatus() = 0; virtual int GetLastError() = 0; }; There's an issue with the design of the current system - the functions that create the IConstructor-derived classes are often doing additional work which can also fail. At that point, instead of getting a constructor which can be queried for an error, a NULL pointer is returned. Restructuring the code to avoid this is possible, but time-consuming. In the meantime, I decided to create a constructor class which we create and return in case of error, instead of a NULL pointer: class FailedConstructor : public IConstructor public: virtual void Update() {} virtual Status GetStatus() { return STATUS_ERROR; } virtual int GetLastError() { return m_errorCode; } private: int m_errorCode; }; All of the above this the setup for a mundane question: what do I name the FailedConstructor class? In our current system, FailedConstructor would indicate "a class which constructs an instance of Failed", not "a class which represents a failed attempt to construct another class". I feel like it should be named for one of the design patterns, like Proxy or Adapter, but I'm not sure which.

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  • Service Bus / Request Forwarding

    - by codputer
    I'm doing some development with a thrid party that issues either a Get or POST to a public URL that I specify. What I would like to do is set up a Relay service on the Azure Service Bus that my dev machine can listen to. When the request comes in, I want to forward that request as if my web service was taking the request directly from the thrid party service. When I'm ready, I'll deploy the application to a public service, change the URL that the thrid party service is sending too, and viola I should be up and running. What I'm looking for looks exactly like this: Clemens the Master of Service Bus but it's from the 2009 CTP. I'm working at it, but haven't yet got it working using all the new bits in 2012 (a.ka. its over my head at the moment). Somebody want to help? Clemens also help somebody else create a Reverse Proxy using the Service Bus, but I can't seem to find it. Yes I've also tweeted Clemens, but I'm sure he is a busy man! p.s. I know about Application Request Routing, but my dev machine is not on a public URL, I need to rewrite the URL after my client listener on the service bus recieves the message that was relayed from the Server side endpoint.

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  • Silverlight 3 + Java WebService

    - by Heko
    Hello! I have a Silverlight 3 project, and I need to call a Java WebService - the bindings are ok (SOAP 1.1 and basicHttpBinding): ClientConfig File: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None"> <transport> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </transport> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="myAddress" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" contract="SkyInfoServiceReference.SkyinfoTestInterface" name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I call a method on client I get this Policy error: An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI '...'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. I know about those 2 policy XML filesbut Java EE service which I'm trying to call is hosted on a IBM WebSphere Process Server to which I don't have access. Does anybody know how to work around this policy exception?

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  • Cannot implicity convert type void to System.Threading.Tasks.Task<bool>

    - by sagesky36
    I have a WCF Service that contains the following method. All the methods in the service are asynchrounous and compile just fine. public async Task<Boolean> ValidateRegistrationAsync(String strUserName) { try { using (YeagerTechEntities DbContext = new YeagerTechEntities()) { DbContext.Configuration.ProxyCreationEnabled = false; DbContext.Database.Connection.Open(); var reg = await DbContext.aspnet_Users.FirstOrDefaultAsync(f => f.UserName == strUserName); if (reg != null) return true; else return false; } } catch (Exception) { throw; } } My client application was set to access the WCF service with the check box for the "Allow generation of asynchronous operations" and it generated the proxy just fine. I am receiving the above subject error when trying to call this WCF service method from my client with the following code. Mind you, I know what the error message means, but this is my first time trying to call an asynchronous task in a WCF service from a client. Task<Boolean> blnMbrShip = db.ValidateRegistrationAsync(FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cn.Value).Name); What do I need to do to properly call the method so the design time compile error disappears? Thanks so much in advance...

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  • Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

    - by Phil Nash
    We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

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  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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  • Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

    - by Scott Silvi
    Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

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