Search Results

Search found 9696 results on 388 pages for 'proxy authentication'.

Page 354/388 | < Previous Page | 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361  | Next Page >

  • rails 3 actionmailer cannot send email

    - by lkahtz
    I am following Ryan Bates's tutorial on Rails 3 ActionMailer. I generate the mailer in terminal and then establish a setup_mail.rb under config/initializers. I keyed in the following code: ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings={ :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domail => "gmail.com", :user_name => "my_account_at_gmail", :password => "my_password", :authentication => "plain" , :enable_starttls_auto => true } My user_mailer.rb file goes like: class UserMailer < ActionMailer::Base default :from => "[email protected]" def registration_confirmation(user) mail(:to => user.email,:subject => "registered") end end I tested in rails console: u=User.first UserMailer.registration_confirmation(u).deliver it displays: #<Mail::Message:2194479560, Multipart: false, Headers: <Date: Sat, 26 Feb 2011 14:42:06 +0800>, <From: [email protected]>, <To: [email protected]>, <Message-ID: <[email protected]>>, <Subject: registered>, <Mime-Version: 1.0>, <Content-Type: text/plain>, <Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit>> BUT I never received the email here... Why? How can I solve this? I guess it is some problem on send_mail.rb file..

    Read the article

  • Error in FireFox Loading Images

    - by Brian
    Hello, Details of the app are: ASP.NET project, local web server, hosted in IIS locally, using latest FireFox, uses forms authentication. I'm getting a logon user name/pwd box when trying to access my local web server. Using the net panel in firebug, I see the issue is with an animated GIF, showing up as 401 unauthorized. I check the details and this is what I see for this URL: http://localhost/<virtual>/Images/loading.gif I'm getting the following: Response Headers: Server Microsoft-IIS/5.1 Date Thu, 17 Jun 2010 19:02:58 GMT WWW-Authenticate Negotiate NTLM Connection close Content-Length 4046 Content-Type text/html Request headers: Host localhost User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 ( .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET4.0E) Accept image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Referer <correct referer> Cookie ASP.NET_SessionId=ux4bt345qjz4p3u1wm1zgmez; .ASPXFormsAuth=33F12B444040827B8ABF154EE4EDE43B6CA532432EB846987B355097E00256DF0955C76A37BC593EAA961747BF1CC1D8949FF63C6F2CA69D77213EB15B4EDFAF57A83D9E1F88AB8D821C3A09C07EA2EE; .ASPROLES=qTFrGteJydYAE3118WGXbhJthTDdjdtuQ06t4bYVrM1BwIfcEHU1HhnEcs7TqSOaV-fIN5MH3uO57oNVWXDvrhkZ8gQuURuUk_K0TpoR-DEFXuF953Gl9aIilKAdV211jutMNQmhkt2rdPE2tEhHs3pz953fADxjAOyZl7K-AqNvMk3yqJshhKHhJIf-ALMhWIYlrrKy0WsYznUwh3WCtPfzEBD5XzmXU8HVMJ2-ArLjBISuegvSmxvK1PuXBPhoMRMi9Ynaw6xi9ypGk-R6uN0ljOMCGkB2-20WUlFuP0xWTfac_zCTDT00pbpnyjtygnM-LShOXTrZ_mhoRuXfKYEYSodNihwD6SRr19Nm-8uZ5BQ-W81svM17S2C0vc0FaxtiuAcN_vHcsN1OEJeCuVfRjeqzo9xWEViupP3Vh6aOcCm6yrftgw5x94piuCJO7tCfXjJAw5RVUWDBBWv5gmid171F0k-_XZ0CSv7Gm2Eai1BRfogAqQ_MV3tyPv7XVEyJXRXqYGlf1JpkfTW8S8On4E05v9gx9RcdnKHZebiOZwbP1_ho9nG7pMwXysbhjxtxwZ-zLx-v11_rhZw_i5m7iNcLtt4BbFU-sb_crzMpCKGywHIc452Zp1E0kx1Rfx-2eUnaiLiCfGed-QqelO88NYTpJHttGKEfhFrDgmaIXZPJRtuZ-GrS6t3Vla-8qDAVb1p6ovPwoVT4z4BhQyFsk542gDx-uQDw6D0B6zo7lXfcOjtolUxDcLbETsNlYsexZaxFpRSbw7M1ldwL_k92P9wLPlv9mw4NtyhXKJesMu7GjquZuoBN3hO00AqJEe1tKFFtfrvbE5ZH7uNu7myNdtlxRPe3WZe7qukbqHo1 Pragma no-cache Cache-Control no-cache Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

    Read the article

  • Mono Text Based Web Browser

    - by powerbox
    Hi guys, is there any public text based web browser implementation for C# or on mono base api that I can use to fill up web forms automatically? I'll be using it to automate some web task that does not require any image authentication. I'm currently using a web browser control available on .Net Framework and waits for the event WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler to fire after a page is successfully loaded and invoke some actions like Submit or simulating a mouse click on some links. It actually does the job but I can't process bulk transactions since I needed to wait for the whole page to be loaded together with the images and other stuff. It is easy to use HttpWebRequest to fill up some forms , provide some data and then submit. But on some occasions I only need to simulate a mouse click to a certain link which I don't know how to do with HttpWebRequest. By the way using HttpWebRequest will still download all the images of a web page that I see pointless since I only need to provide correct data back to the server. I hope someone can pinpoint me the correct way of doing this kind of automation and thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) - am I missing something here?

    - by David Semeria
    I was reading about CORS (https://developer.mozilla.org/en/HTTP_access_control) and I think the implementation is both simple and effective. However, unless I'm missing something, I think there's a big part missing from the spec. As I understand, it's the foreign site that decides, based on the origin of the request (and optionally including credentials), whether to allow access to its resources. This is fine. But what if malicious code on the page wants to POST a user's sensitive information to a foreign site? The foreign site is obviously going to authenticate the request. Hence, again if I'm not missing something, CORS actually makes it easier to steal sensitive information. I think it would have made much more sense if the original site could also supply an immutable list of servers its page is allowed to access. So the expanded sequence would be: 1) Supply a page with list of acceptable CORS servers (abc.com, xyz.com, etc) 2) Page wants to make an XHR request to abc.com - the browser allows this because it's in the allowed list and authentication proceeds as normal 3) Page wants to make an XHR request to malicious.com - request rejected locally (ie by the browser) because the server is not in the list. I know that malicious code could still use JSONP to do its dirty work, but I would have thought that a complete implementation of CORS would imply the closing of the script tag multi-site loophole. I also checked out the official CORS spec (http://www.w3.org/TR/cors) and could not find any mention of this issue.

    Read the article

  • Pipelining String in Powershell

    - by ChvyVele
    I'm trying to make a simple PowerShell function to have a Linux-style ssh command. Such as: ssh username@url I'm using plink to do this, and this is the function I have written: function ssh { param($usernameAndServer) $myArray = $usernameAndServer.Split("@") $myArray[0] | C:\plink.exe -ssh $myArray[1] } If entered correctly by the user, $myArray[0] is the username and $myArray[1] is the URL. Thus, it connects to the URL and when you're prompted for a username, the username is streamed in using the pipeline. Everything works perfectly, except the pipeline keeps feeding the username ($myArray[0]) and it is entered as the password over and over. Example: PS C:\Users\Mike> ssh xxxxx@yyyyy login as: xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: FATAL ERROR: Server sent disconnect message type 2 (protocol error): "Too many authentication failures for xxxxx" Where the username has been substituted with xxxxx and the URL has been substituted with yyyyy. Basically, I need to find out how to stop the script from piping in the username ($myArray[0]) after it has been entered once. Any ideas? I've looked all over the internet for a solution and haven't found anything.

    Read the article

  • Can I use php SESSIONS in spotify apps?

    - by user1593846
    since PHP can't be used in Spotify apps directly I am using it on my server only, but I am having problems getting the sessions to work, is it possible to use sessions even? I want to use it to see if a user is registered in my database or not so I am doing it like this: session_start(); $query="SELECT * FROM user WHERE facebookID = {$fbid}"; $result = mysql_query($query) or die(mysql_error()); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $num_results = mysql_num_rows($result); if ($num_results > 0) { echo"THERE IS A USER!"; $row['facebookID'] = $_SESSION[fid]; } else { echo"THERE IS NO USER!"; } the authentication to the server works fine but the session does not seem to be working, on another PHP page witch is being called after the above code has been called with some ajax code I simply wanted to try this: session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['fid'])) { echo"SESSION EXIST"; } else { echo"NO SESSION"; } anyways is there a special way to do this in Spotify apps or do I have to do this in some other way?

    Read the article

  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Debug website on host from virtual machine

    - by Luchaguate
    I have a Windows 7 machine hosting a Windows 7 virtual machine. I am developing a web application using visual studio 2010 on my host machine. I want to run the application in debug mode and access my localhost server from a browser on the virtual machine. (The purpose of this is to be able to debug an application that uses Windows Authentication using different users without having to log off and on for different users on my host machine...) I am using a bridged connection for the virtual machine. I googled how to solve this problem and most of the threads that I found said that if I was using a bridged connection, I could access the server on the host machine by just entering the IP address of my host machine into the url in the browser of the virtual machine. I have tried some different urls using the IP but none of them have worked. As an example, suppose I run my web application in visual studio on my host machine and its url is http://localhost:62789/MyPage.aspx Assume also that I ran ipconfig in CommandPrompt on my host machine and found out that the IP address for my host machine is xxx.xxx.xxx.x. What url should I enter on the virtual machine to access my web application? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • On android how would I go about creating a prompt for an app that requires a user to enter a username before fully launching the app?

    - by racl101
    I'll preface this with I'm really new to working on Android. So I have to work on an existing app and create a screen that prompts the user for a username if one isn't entered then it won't launch the currently existing main activity (i.e. it won't fully launch the app. Instead it will just sit on that screen until a username is entered.) I suppose that it's tantamount to a web app login page in that it will not let a user past that page if the user is not authenticated and authorized. However, there's no authentication nor authorization in this app. Instead, on first run a user must simply register with a username and that username gets saved to the database and for any subsequent runs the app's main activity will just start because a user has registered to that phone. In fact, the app will not prompt the user for their name again unless the app gets deleted with all its data and reinstalled again. This implicitly means that I have to save the user's name in the database or some other kind of storage. So I was wondering what would be the best way of doing this in an app with an existing main activity? Should I try to accomplish this on that existing main activity or create a new activity to display this prompt screen and, in effect, block the main activity from running until the user enters their name? Any tutorials or links would be helpful and thank you in advance for any help.

    Read the article

  • Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

    - by Raghu Dodda
    There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

    Read the article

  • Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

    - by Sotirios Delimanolis
    I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

    Read the article

  • Socket select() Handling Abrupt Disconnections

    - by Genesis
    I am currently trying to fix a bug in a proxy server I have written relating to the socket select() call. I am using the Poco C++ libraries (using SocketReactor) and the issue is actually in the Poco code which may be a bug but I have yet to receive any confirmation of this from them. What is happening is whenever a connection abruptly terminates the socket select() call is returning immediately which is what I believe it is meant to do? Anyway, it returns all of the disconnected sockets within the readable set of file descriptors but the problem is that an exception "Socket is not connected" is thrown when Poco tries to fire the onReadable event handler which is where I would be putting the code to deal with this. Given that the exception is silently caught and the onReadable event is never fired, the select() call keeps returning immediately resulting in an infinite loop in the SocketReactor. I was considering modifying the Poco code so that rather than catching the exception silently it fires a new event called onDisconnected or something like that so that a cleanup can be performed. My question is, are there any elegant ways of determining whether a socket has closed abnormally using select() calls? I was thinking of using the exception message to determine when this has occured but this seems dirty to me.

    Read the article

  • Synfony2 validation changes invalid integer to 0

    - by Craig
    I've added validation to a form and found that in some cases it is losing the invalid data I am feeding it and saving 0s instead. The output at the bottom shows that if I post the latitude as 'zzzzzz' (clearly not a number nor between -90 and 90) the form is declared as valid and saved with the value 0 How can that happen given that I have declared the input must be a number? ProxyType.php buildForm() $builder ->add('siteName', null, array('label' => 'Site name')) .... ->add('latitude', 'number', array('label' => 'Latitude')) ->add('longitude', 'number', array('label' => 'Longitude')) .... ; ProxyController.php createAction .... $postData = $request->request->get('niwa_pictbundle_proxytype'); $this->get('logger')->info('Posted latitude = '.$postData['latitude']); $form = $this->createForm(new ProxyType(), $entity); $form->bindRequest($request); if ($form->isValid()) { $this->get('logger')->info('Form declared valid : latlong ('.$entity->getLatitude().','.$entity->getLongitude().')'); .... validation.yml Acme\PictBundle\Entity\Proxy: properties: longitude: - Min: { limit: -180 } - Max: { limit: 180 } latitude: - Max: { limit: 90 } - Min: { limit: -90 } Output [2012-09-28 02:05:30] app.INFO: Posted latitude = zzzzzz [] [] [2012-09-28 02:05:30] app.INFO: Form declared valid : latlong (0,0) [] []

    Read the article

  • Django Getting RequestContext in custom tag

    - by greggory.hz
    I'm trying to create a custom tag. Inside this custom tag, I want to be able to have some logic that checks if the user is logged in, and then have the tag rendered accordingly. This is what I have: class UserActionNode(template.Node): def __init__(self): pass def render(self, context): if context.user.is_authenticated(): return render_to_string('layout_elements/sign_in_register.html'); else: return render_to_string('layout_elements/logout_settings.html'); def user_actions(parser, test): return UserActionNode() register.tag('user_actions', user_actions) When I run this, I get this error: Caught AttributeError while rendering: 'Context' object has no attribute 'user' The view that renders this looks like this: return render_to_response('start/home.html', {}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Why doesn't the tag get a RequestContext object instead of the Context object? How can I get the tag to receive the RequestContext instead of the Context? EDIT: Whether or not it's possible to get a RequestContext inside a custom tag, I'd still be interested to know the "correct" or best way to determine a user's authentication state from within the custom tag. If that's not possible, then perhaps that kind of logic belongs elsewhere? Where?

    Read the article

  • Sending a password securely using gwt and app engine?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I set up session handling on a google app project. This is supposed to allow my users to login and maintain state across pages. I just dumped it into the default greeting service to try it out: public class GreetingServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements GreetingService { public void sessionTest(String username) { HttpSession session = getThreadLocalRequest().getSession(false); session.setAttribute("username", username); } } then attempting to pull it out in my landing project.jsp page: <% String username = null; HttpSession mysession = request.getSession(false); if (mysession.getAttribute("username") != null) { username = (String)mysession.getAttribute("username"); } else { username = "(not logged in yet)"; } <p>You are: <%= username %> </p> %> It works, but I don't know how to send the data in sessionTest() securely. If I were sending the user's password in there too, it would be in the clear. This would be ok (I think) if I was using https, but google app engine does not allow you to use https under custom domains (like www.mysite.com), they have to be under the (mysite.appspot.com) domain. I'm kind of stuck here - how do we send passwords securely? If I was using php, I think I could use digest authentication (I'm not too experienced here) - can we do something like that with gwt + gae? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

    - by DZittersteyn
    I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

    Read the article

  • Implimenting Zend MVC for my existing site-first step?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, OK-newbie question here. I'll try not to bombard SO with lots of questions-and hopefully this first one will show me the method I'll need to follow for subsequent conversions. I have a web-based calendar system that I developed, but it was coded for me procedurally (using PHP). I'm now working on learning OO and wanting to integrate this site into my localhost Zend Framework and slowly start converting parts to OO and the Zend Framework MVC process in particular. As I've said before, I understand that this will be a slow process, and when I'm done, I still probably won't have anything as OO friendly as if I had rewritten it from scratch, but I'd like to use this as a learning experience. So, I have dropped the whole site into my localhose/zend/Public folder, and everything is showing up great and linking to the database, etc. My question is-what would be the easiest first component to switch over to the MVC model? This site has a bit of everything-forms, login, authentication, some jQuery, etc. Can anyone point to a tutorial that would address what I'm trying to do? If indeed, a form would be one of the simpler things to switch, can someone walk me through those changes? Another idea is changing over all the header info, etc? Thanks for any pointers on where to start! EDIT: Also, I understand that SO is mainly for specific coding questions-I'm happy to share specific code, once I have an idea about which section to tackle first...

    Read the article

  • C++ private inheritance and static members/types

    - by WearyMonkey
    I am trying to stop a class from being able to convert its 'this' pointer into a pointer of one of its interfaces. I do this by using private inheritance via a middle proxy class. The problem is that I find private inheritance makes all public static members and types of the base class inaccessible to all classes under the inheriting class in the hierarchy. class Base { public: enum Enum { value }; }; class Middle : private Base { }; class Child : public Middle { public: void Method() { Base::Enum e = Base::value; // doesn't compile BAD! Base* base = this; // doesn't compile GOOD! } }; I've tried this in both VS2008 (the required version) and VS2010, neither work. Can anyone think of a workaround? Or a different approach to stopping the conversion? Also I am curios of the behavior, is it just a side effect of the compiler implementation, or is it by design? If by design, then why? I always thought of private inheritance to mean that nobody knows Middle inherits from Base. However, the exhibited behavior implies private inheritance means a lot more than that, in-fact Child has less access to Base than any namespace not in the class hierarchy!

    Read the article

  • Allow login from another site

    - by tunmise fasipe
    I have web application where I store users' password and username. If you logon to this site, you can login with the password and username to have access to your profile. There is another option that requires you to login to my site from your site and have your profile within your site. This is because you might already have a site that your clients know you with. This latter part is what I don't know to implement. I have these ideas: Have a fixed IFrame within your site to contain my site: but I am concerned about size/layout since different clients have different layout/size for their content section. I am thinking of how to maintain session too A webservice: I don't know how feasible this is since the Password and ID are on my server. You may have to send them back and forth. It means client would have to code with my API. But I am not just returning data, I have to show them a page that contains the profile details OpenID, Single-SignOn: Just guessing - but the authentication and data resides on my server. there is nothing to access on your side in this case Any other methods/better approach Examples: like login into facebook within my site and still be able to do post updates, receive notifications Facebook implement some of these with IFrame e.g. the Like button

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't this short php script send email?

    - by RoryG
    I can't seem to get my php script to send email. <?php echo "Does this page work?"; mail('my email address', 'test subject', 'test message'); ?> First, I have set the mail function settings in the php.ini file as follows: I checked my email account settings on outlook. It does not require authentication, its port is 25, and its type of encrypted connection is 'Auto'. Given this I configured my php.ini file accordingly: SMTP = ssl://smtp1.iis.com smtp_port = 25 Then I set: sendmail_from: my email address The echo statement prints out in the browser, so I know the php file is recognized and processed. But the browser also shows the following error: Warning: mail() [function.mail]: "sendmail_from" not set in php.ini or custom "From:" header missing in C:\xampp\htdocs\mailtest.php on line 3 I have clearly set the sendmail_from so I don't know what else to do. I have also tried removing the 'ssl://' part from the SMTP setting in the php.ini file, and configuring the php5.ini file. Which of these .ini files should I be configuring anyways?

    Read the article

  • How to close and open access to SQL Server 2008 in Windows application?

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have a MS Access 97 application (but the question is general) working directly with SQL Server 2008 (without application server or anything). Numbers of users can be up to 1000. Windows Authentication is used. The question is: How to handle modes, so some users will be allowed to work in read-only mode some users won't have access to db for some time My versions: Using a table with a mode id for every group of users, that will work the same way. On Form Load application will query that table for mode id. Using trigger on the tables, that must work according to that mode. The trigger will query mode value and doesn't work if access is closed or it's in read-only mode I know these are not the best solutions, that's why I'm asking for your advice. There's one more point. If the mode is changed to "access-is-closed" for a group of users, that group must not be able to query to DB starting that moment. With first solution I wrote it won't work, because user can be in application at that moment and no form load event will work. How can I do this? Is there any optimal solution? Thank you. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I retrieve twitter xml for Flash site via php properly

    - by daidai
    Am I using TwitterScript to retrieve Twitter data for inside a Flash site. Due to Twitter's crossdomain policy, I need to setup a php proxy... Firstly I made a simple one <?php $url = $_GET['url']; readfile($url); ?> but I then get this error URL file-access is disabled in the server configuration which is only resolved by getting my host to turn fopen() on, which I don't want to do. Then I found this <?php function get_content($url) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); ob_start(); curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); $string = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $string; } #usage: $url = $_GET['url']; $content = get_content ($url); var_dump ($content); ?> which solves that problem but the data now is the correct XML but looks like: string(39950) "<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <statuses type="array"> <status> ... </statuses>" How do I get the XML data out of that string?

    Read the article

  • j_security_check to SSO in different module under Oracle App Server?

    - by thebearinboulder
    I have an existing j2ee application running on Oracle App Server. It is targeted towards paying customers so the content is secured and a SSO module properly intercepts all requests for secured content. Now the company is adding a unbranded public-facing module with a number of unsecured pages. At one point the user is expected to register for a free account and log in to proceed further. Think doctors adding a public-facing site with information for potential patients, or lawyers adding a public-facing site with information for potential clients. There's some information on the session and the usual approach would be to authenticate the user, persist the session information using the now-known user id, invalidate the existing session (to prevent certain types of attacks), the reload the session information before returning to the user. I can't just persist it under the session id since that's about to change. The glitch is that the existing application already has an SSO module and I get a 404 error every time I try to direct to j_security_check. I've tried that, /sso/j_security_check, even http://localhost/sso/j_security_check, all without success. I noticed that an earlier question said that tomcat requires access to a secured page before j_security_check is even visible. I don't know if that's the case with Oracle AS. Ideas? Or is the best approach to continue arguing that we have a different user base so it would be better to handle authentication in our own module anyway?

    Read the article

  • Reading PDF form field data from Flex 4 ( via php or coldfusion )

    - by Brian Russel Davis
    Been searching web for an answer for this for a MONTH. I am not an expert in Coldfusion. So supposedly this is easy in CF -- but the mark-up confuses the HECK out of me. So here I am. I have managed to import and read a PDF using the CF Proxy for Actionscript: http://forums.adobe.com/thread/754629?tstart=0 --- BUT --- After all my trouble there, the precious form filed information that I was looking for was not there in the PDF info object. GRRRR. So I am back to looking for a way to do this with CFC's or CFM's or PHP. All I want is this: Read the PDF from a Flex app. GET the form field information. WRITE a new PDF with the form field values. I have found so many close but no cigar options ... and I have tried so many that failed. There are so many free PDF this and that out there. But Adobe seems to reserve the real functionality for themselves. All the free options don't seem to have access to the form data? Anyways I am so exhausted with looking for ways to do this. I need help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361  | Next Page >