Search Results

Search found 9696 results on 388 pages for 'proxy authentication'.

Page 351/388 | < Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >

  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically invoke web service at runtime

    - by Ulrik Rasmussen
    So, our application needs support for dynamically calling web services which are unknown at compile time. The user should therefore be able to specify a URL to a WSDL, and specify some data bindings for the request and reply parameters. When Googling for answers, it seems like the way to do this is by actually compiling a web service proxy class at runtime, loading it, and invoking the methods using reflection. I think this seems like a rather clunky approach, given that I don't really need a strongly typed set of classes when I'm going to cast my data dynamically anyway. Dynamically compiling code for doing something that simple also just seems like The Wrong Way To Do It. Restricting ourself to the SOAP protocol, is there any library for C# that implements this protocol for dynamic use? I can imagine that it would be possible to generate runtime key/value data structures from the WSDL, which could be used to specify the request messages, as well as reading the replies. The library should then be able to send well-formed SOAP messages to the server, and parse the replies, without the programmer having to generate the XML manually (at least not the headers and other plumbing). I can't seem to find any library that actually does this. Is what I want to do really that esoteric, or have I just searched the wrong places? Thanks, Ulrik

    Read the article

  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

    Read the article

  • Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

    - by NXT
    Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Help needed to write input for .net web services

    - by MaheshBabu
    Hi folks, i am new to iphone web services. I need to get data from .net web server for that my soap message is NSString *xml = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo><PhoneNumber>919703661366</PhoneNumber></MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo>"]; NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\n" "<soap:Body>\n" "<GenericAndroidMethod xmlns=\"Mortgage\">\n" "<methodName>MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo</methodName>" "<xmlParam>%@</xmlParam>" "</GenericAndroidMethod>\n" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>\n",xml ]; But i did n't get response. While i am checking in charles web debugging proxy it will show like this. But i need to pass <MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo><PhoneNumber>919703661366</PhoneNumber></MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo> as a single string. How can i done this pls help me. Thank u in advance.

    Read the article

  • Gdata JavaScript Authsub continues redirect

    - by Krustal
    I am using the JavaScript Google Data API and having issues getting the AuthSub script to work correctly. This is my script currently: google.load('gdata', '1'); function getCookie(c_name){ if(document.cookie.length>0){ c_start=document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if(c_start!=-1){ c_start=c_start + c_name.length+1; c_end=document.cookie.indexOf(";",c_start); if(c_end==-1) c_end=document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } function main(){ var scope = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/'; if(!google.accounts.user.checkLogin(scope)){ google.accounts.user.login(); } else { /* * Retrieve all calendars */ // Create the calendar service object var calendarService = new google.gdata.calendar.CalendarService('GoogleInc-jsguide-1.0'); // The default "allcalendars" feed is used to retrieve a list of all // calendars (primary, secondary and subscribed) of the logged-in user var feedUri = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/default/allcalendars/full'; // The callback method that will be called when getAllCalendarsFeed() returns feed data var callback = function(result) { // Obtain the array of CalendarEntry var entries = result.feed.entry; //for (var i = 0; i < entries.length; i++) { var calendarEntry = entries[0]; var calendarTitle = calendarEntry.getTitle().getText(); alert('Calendar title = ' + calendarTitle); //} } // Error handler to be invoked when getAllCalendarsFeed() produces an error var handleError = function(error) { alert(error); } // Submit the request using the calendar service object calendarService.getAllCalendarsFeed(feedUri, callback, handleError); } } google.setOnLoadCallback(main); However when I run this the page redirects me to the authentication page. After I authenticate it send me back to my page and then quickly sends me back to the authenticate page again. I've included alerts to check if the token is being set and it doesn't seem to be working. Has anyone has this problem?

    Read the article

  • Nginx , Apache , Mysql , Memcache with server 4G ram. How optimize to enoigh of memory?

    - by TomSawyer
    i have 1 dedicated server with Nginx proxy for Apache. Memcache, mysql, 4G Ram. These day, my visitor on my site wasn't increased, but my server get overload always in some specified time. (9AM - 15PM) Ram in use is increased second by second to full. that's moment, my server will get overload. i have to kill all apache , mysql service and reboot it to get free memory. and it'll full again. that's the terrible circle. here is my ram in use at the moment 160(nginx) 220(apache) 512(memcache) 924(mysql) here's process number 4(nginx) 14(apache) 5(memcache) 20(mysql) and here's my my.cnf config. someone can help me to optimize it? [mysqld] datadir=/var/lib/mysql socket=/var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock user=mysql skip-locking skip-networking skip-name-resolve # enable log-slow-queries log-slow-queries = /var/log/mysql-slow-queries.log long_query_time=3 max_connections=200 wait_timeout=64 connect_timeout = 10 interactive_timeout = 25 thread_stack = 512K max_allowed_packet=16M table_cache=1500 read_buffer_size=4M join_buffer_size=4M sort_buffer_size=4M read_rnd_buffer_size = 4M max_heap_table_size=256M tmp_table_size=256M thread_cache=256 query_cache_type=1 query_cache_limit=4M query_cache_size=16M thread_concurrency=8 myisam_sort_buffer_size=128M # Disabling symbolic-links is recommended to prevent assorted security risks symbolic-links=0 [mysqldump] quick max_allowed_packet=16M [mysql] no-auto-rehash [isamchk] key_buffer=256M sort_buffer=256M read_buffer=64M write_buffer=64M [myisamchk] key_buffer=256M sort_buffer=256M read_buffer=64M write_buffer=64M [mysqlhotcopy] interactive-timeout [mysql.server] user=mysql basedir=/var/lib [mysqld_safe] log-error=/var/log/mysqld.log pid-file=/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.pid

    Read the article

  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Why would certain browsers request all pages on my ASP.Net Web site twice?

    - by Deane
    Firefox is issuing duplicate requests to my ASP.Net web site. It will request a page, get the response, then immediately issue the same request again (well, almost the same -- see below). This happens on every page of this particular Web site (but not any others). IE does not do this, but Chrome also does this. I have confirmed that there is no Location header in the response, and no Javascript or meta tag in the page which would cause the page to be re-requested (if any of these were true, IE would be re-requesting pages as well). I have confirmed this behavior on multiple Firefox installs on multiple machines. Versions vary, but all are 3.x. The only difference between the two requests is the Accepts header. For the first request, it looks like this: Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 For the second request, it looks like this: Accept: */* The Content-Type response header in all cases is: Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Something else odd -- even though Firefox requests the page twice, it uses the first response and discards the second. I put a counter on a page that increments with every request. I can watch the responses come back (via the Charles proxy). Firefox will get a "1" the first time, and a "2" the second time. Yet it will display the "1," for some reason. Chrome exhibits this exact same behavior. I suspect it's a protocol-level issue, given the difference in Accepts header, but I've never seen this before.

    Read the article

  • Can't decrypt after encrypting with blowfish Java

    - by user2030599
    Hello i'm new to Java and i have the following problem: i'm trying to encrypt the password of a user using the blowfish algorithm, but when i try to decrypt it back to check the authentication it fails to decrypt it for some reason. public static String encryptBlowFish(String to_encrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_encrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while encrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } public static String decryptBlowFish(String to_decrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_decrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while decrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } When i call the decrypt function it gives me the following error: java.security.InvalidKeyException: Parameters missing Any ideas? Thank you

    Read the article

  • ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

    - by birdus
    I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

    Read the article

  • Axis2 SOAP Envelope Header Information

    - by BigZig
    I'm consuming a web service that places an authentication token in the SOAP envelope header. It appears (through looking at the samples that came with the WS WSDL) that if the stub is generated in .NET, this header information is exposed through a member variable in the stub class. However, when I generate my Axis2 java stub using WSDL2Java it doesn't appear to be exposed anywhere. What is the correct way to extract this information from the SOAP envelope header? WSDL: http://www.vbar.com/zangelo/SecurityService.wsdl C# Sample: using System; using SignInSample.Security; // web service using SignInSample.Document; // web service namespace SignInSample { class SignInSampleClass { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // login to the Vault and set up the document service SecurityService secSvc = new SecurityService(); secSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/SecurityService.asmx"; secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Security.SecurityHeader(); secSvc.SignIn("Administrator", "", "Vault"); DocumentServiceWse docSvc = new DocumentServiceWse(); docSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/DocumentService.asmx"; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Document.SecurityHeader(); docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId; } } } The sample illustrates what I'd like to do. Notice how the secSvc instance has a SecurityHeaderValue member variable that is populated after a successful secSvc.SignIn() invocation. Here's some relevant API documentation regarding the SignIn method: Although there is no return value, a successful sign in will populate the SecurityHeaderValue of the security service. The SecurityHeaderValue information is then used for other web service calls.

    Read the article

  • "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

    - by JackLocke
    Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

    Read the article

  • How do common web frameworks (Django, Rails, Symfony, etc) handle multiple instances of the same plu

    - by Steven Wei
    Do any of the popular web frameworks solve this problem well? Here's an example: suppose you're running one of these web frameworks and you want to install a blog plugin. Except instead of a single blog, you need to run two separate instances of the blog plugin, and you want to keep them segregated. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a user authentication plugin, because you want to segregate your administrative users from your customer user accounts. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a wiki plugin for different parts of your site, or multiple instances of a comments plugin, or whatever else. It seems to me that at the basic level, each instance of plugin would need to be able to configured with a different set of database tables, and would need to be 'installed' at a different URL path. My experience is mostly with Django and Symfony, and I haven't seen a clean solution to this problem in either of them. They both tend to assume that each plugin (or app, in Django's case) is only ever going to be installed once. I'm curious if the Rails folks have figured out a clean solution to this problem, or any other framework authors (in any language). And if you were going to design a solution to this problem, what would it look like?

    Read the article

  • sql server mdf file database attachment

    - by jnsohnumr
    hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

    Read the article

  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Extjs - Loading Grid when call

    - by Oxi
    I have form and grid. the user must enter data in form fields then display related records in the grid. I want to implement a search form, e.g: user will type the name and gender of the student, then will get a grid of all students have the same name and gender. So, I use ajax to send form fields value to PHP and then creat a json_encode wich will be used in grid store. I am really not sure if my idea is good. But I haven't found another way to do that. The problem is when I set autoLoad to true in the store, the grid automatically filled with all data - not just what I asked for - So, I understand that I have to set autoLoad to false, but then the result not shown in the grid even it returned successfully in the firebug! I don't know what to do. My View: { xtype: 'panel', layout: "fit", id: 'searchResult', flex: 7, title: '<div style="text-align:center;"/>SearchResultGrid</div>', items: [ { xtype: 'gridpanel', store: 'advSearchStore', id: 'AdvSearch-grid', columns: [ { xtype: 'gridcolumn', dataIndex: 'name', align: 'right', text: 'name' }, { xtype: 'gridcolumn', dataIndex: 'gender', align: 'right', text: 'gender' } ], viewConfig: { id : 'Arr' ,emptyText: 'noResult' }, requires: ['MyApp.PrintSave_toolbar'], dockedItems: [ { xtype: 'PrintSave_tb', dock: 'bottom', } ] } ] }, My Store and Model: Ext.define('AdvSearchPost', { extend: 'Ext.data.Model', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'AdvSearch.php', reader: { type: 'json', root: 'Arr', totalProperty: 'totalCount' } }, fields: [ { name: 'name'}, { name: 'type_and_cargo'} ] }); Ext.create('Ext.data.Store', { pageSize: 10, autoLoad: false, model: 'AdvSearchPost', storeId: 'AdvSearchPost' });

    Read the article

  • WCF cross-domain policy security error

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

    Read the article

  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

    Read the article

  • Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

    - by Kelly Cline
    I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

    Read the article

  • Approaches for cross server content sharing?

    - by Anonymity
    I've currently been tasked with finding a best solution to serving up content on our new site from another one of our other sites. Several approaches suggested to me, that I've looked into include using SharePoint's Lists Web Service to grab the list through javascript - which results in XSS and is not an option. Another suggestion was to build a server side custom web service and use SharePoint Request Forms to get the information - this is something I've only very briefly looked at. It's been suggested that I try permitting the requesting site in the HTTP headers of the serving site since I have access to both. This ultimately resulted in a semi-working solution that had major security holes. (I had to include username/password in the request to appease AD Authentication). This was done by allowing Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * The most direct approach I could think of was to simply build in the webpart in our new environment to have the authors manually update this content the same as they would on the other site. Are any one of the suggestions here more valid than another? Which would be the best approach? Are there other suggestions I may be overlooking? I'm also not sure if WebCrawling or Content Scrapping really holds water here...

    Read the article

  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

    Read the article

  • How to make ActionController::Base.asset_host and Base.relative_url_root independent?

    - by GSP
    In our Intranet environment we have a decree that common assets (stylesheets, images, etc) should be fed from Apache root while Rails apps runs from from a "sub directory" (a proxy to a Mongrel cluster). In other words: <%= stylesheet_tag '/common' %> # <link href="http://1.1.1.1/stylesheets/common.css" /> <%= link_to 'Home', :controller=>'home', :action=>'index' %> # <a href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/" /> What I would like to do is define the assets and relative url in my configuration like this: ActionController::Base.asset_host=http://1.1.1.1 ActionController::Base.relative_url_root=/myapp But when I do this, the relative_url_root value gets appended to the asset_host value. (e.g. <link href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/stylesheets/common.css"> ) Is there a way to stop this? And, more importantly, is there a best practice for how to deploy a rails app to an environment like this? (BTW, I don't want to simply hard code my asset paths since the development environment does not match the test and production environments.) Environment: Rails 2.3.4 Ruby 1.8.7 RedHat Linux 5.4?

    Read the article

  • Using awk to return only certain chunks of data

    - by Koriar
    I'm not 100% certain how to phrase my question simply, so I apologize if this has been answered somewhere and I was just unable to find it. What I have are debug logs with authentication packets in them along with a bunch of other output. I need to search through about 2 million lines of logs to find every packet that contains a certain mac address. The packets look something like this (slightly censored): -----------------[ header ]----------------- Event: Authd-Response (1900) Sequence: -54 Timestamp: 1969-12-31 19:30:00 (0) ---------------[ attributes ]--------------- Auth-Result = Auth-Accept Service-Profile-SID = 53 Service-Profile-SID = 49 RADIUS-Access-Accept-Attr/WiMAX-Capability = 0x(numbers) Session-Timeout = 3600 Service-Profile-SID = 4 Service-Profile-SID = 29 Chargeable-User-Identity = "(Numbers)" User-Password = "(the MAC address I'm looking for)" -------------------------------------------- However there are about 10 different possible types with different possible lengths. They all start with the header line and end with the all-dashes line. I've had success using awk to get the code blocks themselves using this: awk '/-----------------\[ header \]-----------------/,/--------------------------------------------/' filename.txt But I was hoping to be able to use it to return only the packets which contain the MAC address that I need. I've been trying to figure this out for a few days now and I'm pretty stuck. I could try and write a bash script, but I could swear that I've used awk to do something like this before...

    Read the article

  • Credit Card storage solution

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >