Search Results

Search found 10904 results on 437 pages for 'named entity recognition'.

Page 367/437 | < Previous Page | 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374  | Next Page >

  • Cocoa Core data: cannot save Created Items in NSTableview

    - by Paul Rostorp
    Hello, I'm am a beginner in mac os x development and am trying to get started with all this. Here is my problem : I've create a non-document based cocoa app using core data as storage. I've added an entity and attributes to the xdatamodel. In IB i've created an NSArrayController and linked it properly. I've created an nstableview binded to the nsarraycontroller. Next I added a button linked to nsarraycontroller with the " add: " method. When I try it out, I can add and edit the items in the table. Here comes the problem: Core data is supposed to save everything automatically, but to make sure i linked the "save" button in the menu to the appdelegate and to the " file's owner" , first responder, application... everything possible ( with both " save :" and " saveaction:" methods ). And still it doesn't save when clicking save: when I restart the cell created ( and renamed ) are gone. And also, I didn't even edit the source code yet; core data for such simple tasks is supposed to only need Interface builder. Please help me for this, I haven't found any threads resolving this problem. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • viewstack causing error 1065 variable not defined issue?

    - by jason
    I've got an flex application where I have a left side TREE control and a viewstack on the right and when someone selects the tree it loads the named viewstack based on the hidden node value of the XML of the tree. But it's throwing a error 1065 variable not defined on a viewstack which worked on the last browser refresh/reload. It's not related to a particular viewstack from what I can tell it just seems to throw the error on certain render events. I've tried to use creationpolicy="all" on the viewstack but it seems to not be of any help. public function treeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem as XML; //trace(selectedNode.@hidden); //Alert.show([email protected]() + " *"); if([email protected]() == '' || [email protected]() == null){ //Alert.show("NULL !"); return; } mainviewstack.selectedChild = Container(mainviewstack.getChildByName([email protected]())); //Container(mainviewstack.getChildByName(selectedNode.@hidden)); If I add in an alert box before the getchildbyname option the viewstack has time to render and everything works fine, so it leads me to believe the app is not giving it enough time to load the viewstack?

    Read the article

  • Android: Can not send http post

    - by jpartogi
    Hi all, I've been banging my head trying to figure out how to send a post method in Android. This is how my code look like: public class HomeActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private TextView textView; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); textView = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.text); Button button = (Button)findViewById(R.id.button); button.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View view) { HttpPost httpMethod = new HttpPost("http://www.example.com/"); httpMethod.addHeader("Accept", "text/html"); httpMethod.addHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); AndroidHttpClient client = AndroidHttpClient.newInstance("Android"); String result = null; try { HttpResponse response = client.execute(httpMethod); textView.setText(response.toString()); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); Log.i(HomeActivity.class.toString(), result); textView.setText("Invoked webservice"); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e(HomeActivity.class.toString(), e.getMessage()); textView.setText("Something wrong:" + e.getMessage()); } } } What am I doing wrong here? Is there anything that I may need to configure from the Android emulator to get this working? Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • what does this asp.net mvc compile time error states?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I have a repository class and it has this, using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using CrMVC.BusinessObjects; namespace CrMVC.Models { public class ConstructionRepository { private CRDataContext db = new CRDataContext(); public IQueryable<MaterialsObj> FindAllMaterials() { var materials = from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id select new MaterialsObj() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; return materials; } } } And My MaterialsObj class is under CrMVC.BusinessObjects namespace and i using it in my repository class.... namespace CrMVC.BusinessObjects { public class MaterialsObj { //My logic here } } But when i compile this i get this error c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\19360d4c\3d21e226\App_Web_materials.aspx.7d2669f4.a8f-zsw5.0.cs(148): error CS0426: The type name 'Materials' does not exist in the type 'CrMVC.Models.ConstructionRepository' Am i missing something any suggestion.... Edit: There is no class named Materials in my repository class then why i get this error..

    Read the article

  • Can't create an OgreBullet Trimesh

    - by Nathan Baggs
    I'm using Ogre and Bullet for a project and I currently have a first person camera set up with a Capsule Collision Shape. I've created a model of a cave (which will serve as the main part of the level) and imported it into my game. I'm now trying to create an OgreBulletCollisions::TriangleMeshCollisionShape of the cave. The code I've got so far is this but it isn't working. It compiles but the Capsule shape passes straight through the cave shape. Also I have debug outlines on and there are none being drawn around the cave mesh. Entity *cave = mSceneMgr->createEntity("Cave", "pCube1.mesh"); SceneNode *caveNode = mSceneMgr->getRootSceneNode()->createChildSceneNode(); caveNode->setPosition(0, 10, 250); caveNode->setScale(10, 10, 10); caveNode->rotate(Quaternion(0.5, 0.5, -0.5, 0.5)); caveNode->attachObject(cave); OgreBulletCollisions::StaticMeshToShapeConverter *smtsc = new OgreBulletCollisions::StaticMeshToShapeConverter(); smtsc->addEntity(cave); OgreBulletCollisions::TriangleMeshCollisionShape *tri = smtsc->createTrimesh(); OgreBulletDynamics::RigidBody *caveBody = new OgreBulletDynamics::RigidBody("cave", mWorld); caveBody->setStaticShape(tri, 0.1, 0.8); mShapes.push_back(tri); mBodies.push_back(caveBody); Any suggestions are welcome. To clarify. It compiles but the Capsule shape passes straight through the cave shape. Also I have debug outlines on and there are none being drawn around the cave mesh

    Read the article

  • Generating equals / hashcode / toString using annotation

    - by Bruno Bieth
    I believe I read somewhere people generating equals / hashcode / toString methods during compile time (using APT) by identifying which fields should be part of the hash / equality test. I couldn't find anything like that on the web (I might have dreamed it ?) ... That could be done like that : public class Person { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; @Identity private String firstName, lastName; @Identity private Date dateOfBirth; //... } For an entity (so we want to exlude some fields, like the id). Or like a scala case class i.e a value object : @ValueObject public class Color { private int red, green, blue; } Not only the file becomes more readable and easier to write, but it also helps ensuring that all the attributes are part of the equals / hashcode (in case you add another attribute later on, without updating the methods accordingly). I heard APT isn't very well supported in IDE but I wouldn't see that as a major issue. After all, tests are mainly run by continuous integration servers. Any idea if this has been done already and if not why ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • iPhone: addAnnotation not working when called from another view

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have two views, the first view has an MKMapView on it named ridesMap. The second view is just a view with a UITableView in it. When you click the save button in the second view, it calls a method from the first view: // Get my first views class MyRidesMapViewController *rideMapView = [[MyRidesMapViewController alloc] init]; // Call the method from my first views class that removes an annotation [rideMapView addAnno:newRidePlacemark.coordinate withTitle:rideTitle.text withSubTitle:address]; This correctly calls the addAnno method, which looks like: - (void)addAnno:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)anno withTitle:(NSString *)annoTitle withSubTitle:(NSString *)subTitle { Annotation *ano = [[[Annotation alloc] init] autorelease]; ano.coordinate = anno; ano.title = annoTitle; ano.subtitle = subTitle; if ([ano conformsToProtocol:@protocol(MKAnnotation)]) { NSLog(@"YES IT DOES!!!"); } [ridesMap addAnnotation:ano]; }//end addAnno This method creates an annotation which does conform to MKAnnotation, and it suppose to add that annotation to the map using the addAnnotation method. But, the annotation never gets added. I NEVER get any errors when the annotation does not get added. But it never appears when the method is called. Why would this be? It seems that I have done everything correctly, and that I am passing a correct MKAnnotation to the addAnnotation method. So, I don't get why it never drops a pin? Could it be because I am calling this method from another view? Why would that matter?

    Read the article

  • showing null rows using join

    - by Pradyut Bhattacharya
    Hi, In mysql i m selecting from a table shouts having a foreign key to another table named "roleuser" with the matching column as user_id Now the user_id column in the shouts table for some rows is null (not actually null but with no inserts in mysql) How to show all the rows of the shouts table either with user_id null or not I m executing the sql statement SELECT s.*, r.firstname, r.lastname FROM shouts s left join roleuser r where r.user_id = s.user_id limit 50; which does not executes and shows You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'where r.user_id = s.user_id limit 50' at line 2 but using inner join the sql executes which shows rows which only have user_id values in the shouts table. the nulls are not shown. SELECT s.*, r.firstname, r.lastname FROM shouts s inner join roleuser r where r.user_id = s.user_id limit 50; How can i show all the rows from the shouts table and null values in the firstname and lastname columns where the user_id is null in the shouts table. If not at all possible with sql may be using stored procedures... Thanks Pradyut

    Read the article

  • Filter entities that match all pairs

    - by Jon
    I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there?

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate get collection by ICriteria

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at getting my entity. MApping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> </class> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } I want get query such as SELECT * FROM sales s INNER JOIN sales_users su on su.sales_id=s.id WHERE su.user_id=:N How can i do this through ICriterion object? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • F# passing an operator with arguments to a function

    - by dan
    Can you pass in an operation like "divide by 2" or "subtract 1" using just a partially applied operator, where "add 1" looks like this: List.map ((+) 1) [1..5];; //equals [2..6] // instead of having to write: List.map (fun x-> x+1) [1..5] What's happening is 1 is being applied to (+) as it's first argument, and the list item is being applied as the second argument. For addition and multiplication, this argument ordering doesn't matter. Suppose I want to subtract 1 from every element (this will probably be a common beginners mistake): List.map ((-) 1) [1..5];; //equals [0 .. -4], the opposite of what we wanted 1 is applied to the (-) as its first argument, so instead of (list_item - 1), I get (1 - list_item). I can rewrite it as adding negative one instead of subtracting positive one: List.map ((+) -1) [1..5];; List.map (fun x -> x-1) [1..5];; // this works too I'm looking for a more expressive way to write it, something like ((-) _ 1), where _ denotes a placeholder, like in the Arc language. This would cause 1 to be the second argument to -, so in List.map, it would evaluate to list_item - 1. So if you wanted to map divide by 2 to the list, you could write: List.map ((/) _ 2) [2;4;6] //not real syntax, but would equal [1;2;3] List.map (fun x -> x/2) [2;4;6] //real syntax equivalent of the above Can this be done or do I have to use (fun x -> x/2)? It seems that the closest we can get to the placeholder syntax is to use a lambda with a named argument.

    Read the article

  • JVM/CLR Source-compatible Language Options

    - by Nathan Voxland
    I have an open source Java database migration tool (http://www.liquibase.org) which I am considering porting to .Net. The majority of the tool (at least from a complexity side) is around logic like "if you are adding a primary key and the database is Oracle use this SQL. If database is MySQL use this SQL. If the primary key is named and the database is Postgres use this SQL". I could fork the Java codebase and covert it (manually and/or automatically), but as updates and bug fixes to the above logic come in I do not want to have to apply it to both versions. What I would like to do is move all that logic into a form that can be compiled and used by both Java and .Net versions naively. The code I am looking to convert does not contain any advanced library usage (JDBC, System.out, etc) that would vary significantly from Java to .Net, so I don't think that will be an issue (at worst it can be designed around). So what I am looking for is: A language in which I can code common parts of my app in and compile it into classes usable by the "standard" languages on the target platform Does not add any runtime requirements to the system Nothing so strange that it scares away potential contributors I know Python and Ruby both have implementations on for the JVM and CLR. How well do they fit my requirements? Has anyone been successful (or unsuccesful) using this technique for cross-platform applications? Are there any gotcha's I need to worry about?

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate auto mapping: map property from another table's column

    - by queen3
    I'm trying to use S#arp architecture... which includes Fluent NHibernate I'm newbie with (and with NHibernate too, frankly speaking). Auto mapping is used. So I have this: public class UserAction : Entity { public UserAction() { } [DomainSignature] [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string Name { get; set; } [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string TypeName { get; private set; } } public class UserActionMap : IAutoMappingOverride<UserAction> { public void Override(AutoMap<UserAction> mapping) { mapping.WithTable("ProgramComponents", m => m.Map(x => x.TypeName)); } } Now, table UserActions references table ProgramComponents (many to one) and I want property UserAction.TypeName to have value from db field ProgramComponents.TypeName. However, the above code fails with NHibernate.MappingException: Duplicate property mapping of TypeName found in OrderEntry3.Core.UserAction As far as I understand the problem is that TypeName is already auto-mapped... but I haven't found a way to remove the automatic mapping. Actually I think that my WithTable/Map mapping has to replace the automatic TypeName mapping, but seems like it does not. I also tried different mapping (names are different but that's all the same): mapping.WithTable("ProgramComponents", m => m.References<ProgramComponent>( x => x.Selector, "ProductSelectorID" ) and still get the same error. I can overcome this with mapping.HasOne<ProgramComponent>(x => x.Selector); but that's not what I exactly wants to do. And I still wonder why the first two methods do not work. I suspect this is because of WithTable.

    Read the article

  • Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

    - by Shahriar
    I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Please explain JSONP

    - by Cheeso
    I don't understand jsonp. I understand JSON. I don't understand JSONP. Wikipedia is the top search result for JSONP. It says JSONP or "JSON with padding" is a JSON extension wherein a prefix is specified as an input argument of the call itself. Huh? What call? That doesn't make any sense to me. JSON is a data format. There's no call. The 2nd search result is from some guy named Remy, who writes JSONP is script tag injection, passing the response from the server in to a user specified function. I can sort of understand that, but it's still not making any sense. What is JSONP, why was it created (what problem does it solve), and why would I use it? Addendum: I've updated Wikipedia with a clearer and more thorough description of JSONP, based on jvenema's answer. Thanks, all.

    Read the article

  • ibatis problem using <isNull> whilst iterating over a List

    - by onoma
    Hi, I'm new to iBatis and I'm struggling with the and elements. I want to iterate over a List of Book instances (say) that are passed in as a HashMap: MyParameters. The list will be called listOfBooks. The clause of the overall SQL statement will therefore look like this: <iterate prepend="AND" property="MyParameters.listOfBooks" conjunction="AND" open="(" close=")"> ... </iterate> I also need to produce different SQL within the iterate elements depending on whether a property of each Book instance in the 'listOfBooks' List is null, or not. So, I need a statement something like this: <iterate prepend="AND" property="MyParameters.listOfBooks" conjunction="AND" open="(" close=")"> <isNull property="MyParameter.listOfBooks.title"> <!-- SQL clause #1 here --> </isNull> <isNotNull property="MyParameter.listOfBooks.title"> <!-- SQL clause #2 here --> </isNotNull> When I do this I get an error message stating that there is no "READABLE" property named 'title' in my Book class. However, each Book instance does contain a title property, so I'm confused! I can only assuem that I have managled the syntax in trying to pinpoint the title of particular Book instance in listOfBooks. I'm struggling to find the correct technique for trying to achieve this. If anyone can advise a way forward I'd be grateful. Thanks

    Read the article

  • ActiveRecord table inheritence using set_table_names

    - by Jinyoung Kim
    Hi, I'm using ActiveRecord in Ruby on Rails. I have a table named documents(Document class) and I want to have another table data_documents(DataDocument) class which is effectively the same except for having different table name. In other words, I want two tables with the same behavior except for table name. class DataDocument < Document #set_table_name "data_documents" self.table_name = "data_documents" end My solution was to use class inheritance as above, yet this resulted in inconsistent SQL statement for create operation where there are both 'documents' table and 'data_documents' table. Can you figure out why and how I can make it work? >> DataDocument.create(:did=>"dd") ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: Mysql::Error: Unknown column 'data_documents.did' in 'where clause': SELECT `documents`.id FROM `documents` WHERE (`data_documents`.`did` = BINARY 'dd') LIMIT 1 from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract_adapter.rb:212:in `log' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/mysql_adapter.rb:320:in `execute' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/mysql_adapter.rb:595:in `select' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:7:in `select_all_without_query_cache' from /Users/lifidea/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/query_cache.rb:62:in `select_all'

    Read the article

  • What is the fastest, most efficient way to get up to speed on a new technology?

    - by SLC
    My current job involves working with a huge number of technologies, most of which are very niche and unheard of. In some cases I have to write something about the technology, or with the technology, such as some lessons, examples, or tutorials, on behalf of the developer of that technology or someone that is backing it. When I get told to learn about a new technology, my first port of call is to check our internal library, and then look on amazon for a book on the subject. Failing that, or if the project is too small to warrant a purchase, I hit up google and youtube. However the results of randomly googling what I want to learn are hit and miss. Some days, I can find everything I want to know in a series of lessons or videos, and it's no problem. Other times, I can find almost nothing, and I really have to piece together things from sites. The result is that there are various resources out there, videos, interactive lessons, tutorials, books etc. but when I need to learn something fast, I often don't know the best way to go about it. It's not about fun, because I don't always have the luxury of working my way through a 600 page textbook named "A Complete Guide To Technology X", I have to deliver results quickly. One of the examples I'd like to use is ASP.NET MVC 2 which is something I have been told to learn. I grabbed a book on MVC 1 to refresh my knowledge, but googling it does't produce much useful information. I've seen a ton of ScottGu's tutorials on it, but they are mostly feature presentations, and some date back almost a year. The same applies to channel 9 and there are no books out yet on amazon. My question therefore has two parts, the first asks, "Where are the best places to look to get the information needed to learn a new technology?" and the second asks "What is the most efficient way to use such resources to learn a new technology?"

    Read the article

  • General N-Tier Architecture Question

    - by whatispunk
    In an N-Tier app you're supposed to have a business logic layer and a data access layer. Is it bad to simply have two assemblies: BusinessLogicLayer.dll and DataAccessLayer.dll to handle all this logic? How do you actually represent these layers. It seems silly, the way I've seen it, to have a BusinessLogic class library containing classes like: CustomerBusinessLogic.cs, OrderBusinessLogic.cs, etc. each calling their appropriately named cousin in the DataAccessLayer class library, i.e. CustomerDataAccess.cs, OrderDataAccess.cs. I want to create a web app using MVP and it doesn't seem so cut and dry as this. There are lots of opinions about where the business logic is supposed to be put in MVP and I'm not sure I've found a really great answer yet. I want this project to be easily testable, and I am trying to adhere to TDD methodologies as best I can. I intend to use MSTest and Rhino Mocks for testing. I was thinking of something like the following for my architecture: I'd use LINQ-To-SQL to talk to the database. WCF services to define data contract interfaces for the business logic layer. Then use MVP with ASP.NET Forms for the UI/BLL. Now, this isn't the start of this project, most of the LINQ stuff is already done, so its stuck. The WCF service would replace the existing DataAccessLayer assembly and the UI/BLL would replace the BusinessLogicLayer assembly etc. This sort of makes sense in my head, but its getting really late. Anyone that's traveled down this path have any guidance? Good links? Warnings? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • UTL_FILE.FOPEN() procedure not accepting path for directory ?

    - by Vineet
    I am trying to write in a file stored in c:\ drive named vin1.txt and getting this error .Please suggest! > ERROR at line 1: ORA-29280: invalid > directory path ORA-06512: at > "SYS.UTL_FILE", line 18 ORA-06512: at > "SYS.UTL_FILE", line 424 ORA-06512: at > "SCOTT.SAL_STATUS", line 12 ORA-06512: > at line 1 HERE is the code create or replace procedure sal_status ( p_file_dir IN varchar2, p_filename IN varchar2) IS v_filehandle utl_file.file_type; cursor emp Is select * from employees order by department_id; v_dep_no departments.department_id%TYPE; begin v_filehandle :=utl_file.fopen(p_file_dir,p_filename,'w');--Opening a file utl_file.putf(v_filehandle,'SALARY REPORT :GENERATED ON %s\n',SYSDATE); utl_file.new_line(v_filehandle); for v_emp_rec IN emp LOOP v_dep_no :=v_emp_rec.department_id; utl_file.putf(v_filehandle,'employee %s earns:s\n',v_emp_rec.last_name,v_emp_rec.salary); end loop; utl_file.put_line(v_filehandle,'***END OF REPORT***'); UTL_FILE.fclose(v_filehandle); end sal_status; execute sal_status('C:\','vin1.txt');--Executing

    Read the article

  • Play multiple audio files using AVAudioPlayer

    - by inScript09
    Hi all, I am planning on releasing 10 of my song recordings for free but bundled in an iphone app. They are not available on web or itunes or anywhere as of now. I am new to iphone sdk (latest) as you can imagine, so I have been going through the developer documentation, various forums and stackoverflow to learn. Apple's avTouch sample application was a great start. But I want my app to play all the 10 tracks one by one. All the songs are added to resources folder and are named as track1, track2...track10. In the avTouch app code I can see the following 2 parts which is where I think I need to make changes to achieve what I am looking for. But I am lost. // Load the array with the sample file NSURL *fileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"sample" ofType:@"m4a"]]; - (void)audioPlayerDidFinishPlaying:(AVAudioPlayer *)player successfully:(BOOL)flag { if (flag == NO) NSLog(@"Playback finished unsuccessfully"); [player setCurrentTime:0.]; [self updateViewForPlayerState]; } can anyone please help me on 1. how to load the array with all the 10 tracks which are added to resources folder 2. and when I hit play, player should start the first track. when the 1st track ends 2nd track should start and so on for the remaining tracks. Thank You

    Read the article

  • Hibernate : Opinions in Composite PK vs Surrogate PK

    - by Albert Kam
    As i understand it, whenever i use @Id and @GeneratedValue on a Long field inside JPA/Hibernate entity, i'm actually using a surrogate key, and i think this is a very nice way to define a primary key considering my not-so-good experiences in using composite primary keys, where : there are more than 1 business-value-columns combination that become a unique PK the composite pk values get duplicated across the table details cannot change the business value inside that composite PK I know hibernate can support both types of PK, but im left wondering by my previous chats with experienced colleagues where they said that composite PK is easier to deal with when doing complex SQL queries and stored procedure processes. They went on saying that when using surrogate keys will complicate things when doing joining and there are several condition when it's impossible to do some stuffs when using surrogate keys. Although im sorry i cant explain the detail here since i was not clear enough when they explain it. Maybe i'll put more details next time. Im currently trying to do a project, and want to try out surrogate keys, since it's not getting duplicated across tables, and we can change the business-column values. And when the need for some business value combination uniqueness, i can use something like : @Table(name="MY_TABLE", uniqueConstraints={ @UniqueConstraint(columnNames={"FIRST_NAME", "LAST_NAME"}) // name + lastName combination must be unique But im still in doubt because of the previous discussion about the composite key. Could you share your experiences in this matter ? Thank you !

    Read the article

  • Programmatical Creation of NSMappingModel

    - by enchilada
    I want to programmatically (without Lightweight Migration) create a mapping model between two models that are exactly the same, except one of the entities (there are a bunch of entities) has different attributes. Let's call this entity "Person". And let's say the destination model has 1) added a new attribute called "address" 2) deleted an attribute called "eyeColor" 3) kept (i.e. not done anything with) an attribute called "name" How would you create an NSMappingModel between these models programmatically? I happen to have some explicit questions that might help me do this by myself: Q1) Do I have to create NSEntityMapping objects for all of the entities other than "Person", even if they remain unchanged? Q2) How do I deal with the "address" attribute in "Person", which is a new one being created? Should I create an NSPropertyMapping for that somehow, that turns nothing into something ("address")? Q3) How do I deal with the "name" attribute in "Person"? Do I have to create an NSPropertyMapping for that, even though it simply stays the same? Q4) For the NSEntityMapping corresponding to "Person", is not creating any NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor" a proper way to get it deleted? Or should I create an NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor"? If yes, how would this object be created, i.e. what would determine that its purpose is to get rid of "eyeColor"? Thank you in advance, and I apologize not being able to answer these questions myself, as the documenation really has no good example of how to create NSMappingModels programmatically. Note again that I'm not allowed to use Lightweight Migration. I must do this manually.

    Read the article

  • How to install PySide v0.3.1 on Mac OS X?

    - by ivo
    I'm trying to install PySide v0.3.1 in Mac OS X, for Qt development in python. As a pre-requisite, I have installed CMake and the Qt SDK. I have gone through the documentation and come up with the following installation script: export PYSIDE_BASE_DIR="<my_dir>" export APIEXTRACTOR_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/apiextractor-0.5.1" export GENERATORRUNNER_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/generatorrunner-0.4.2" export SHIBOKEN_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/shiboken-0.3.1" export PYSIDE_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/pyside-qt4.6+0.3.1" export PYSIDE_TOOLS_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/pyside-tools-0.1.3" pushd . cd $APIEXTRACTOR_DIR cmake . cd $GENERATORRUNNER_DIR cmake -DApiExtractor_DIR=$APIEXTRACTOR_DIR . cd $SHIBOKEN_DIR cmake -DApiExtractor_DIR=$APIEXTRACTOR_DIR -DGeneratorRunner_DIR=$GENERATORRUNNER_DIR . cd $PYSIDE_DIR cmake -DShiboken_DIR=$SHIBOKEN_DIR/libshiboken -DGENERATOR=$GENERATORRUNNER_DIR . cd $PYSIDE_TOOLS_DIR cmake . popd Now, I don't know if this installation script is ok, but apparently everything works fine. Each component (apiextractor, generatorrunner, shiboken, pyside-qt and pyside-tools) gets compiled into its own directory. The problem is that I don't quite understand how PySide gets into the system's python environment. In fact, when I start a python shell, I cannot import PySide: >>> import PySide Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named PySide Note: I am aware of the Installing PySide - OSX question, but that question is not relevant anymore, because it is about a specific a dependency on the Boost libraries, but with version 0.3.0 PySide moved from a Boost based source code to a CPython one.

    Read the article

  • using JQuery and Prototype in the same page

    - by Don
    Hi, Several of my pages use both JQuery and Protoype. Since I upgraded to version 1.3 of JQuery this appears to be causing problems, because both libraries define a function named '$'. JQuery provides a function noConflict() which relinquishes control of $ to other libraries that may be using it. So it seems like I need to go through all my pages that look like this: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/prototype.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/jquery.js"></script> </head> and change them to look like this: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/prototype.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.noConflict(); var $j = jQuery; </script> </head> I should then be able to use '$' for Prototype and '$j' (or 'jQuery') for JQuery. I'm not entirely happy about duplicating these 2 lines of code in every relevant page, and expect that at some point somebody is likely to forget to add them to a new page. I'd prefer to be able to do the following Create a file jquery-noconflict.js which "includes" jquery.js and the 2 lines of code shown above Import jquery-noconflict.js (instead of jquery.js) in all my JSP/HTML pages However, I'm not sure if it's possible to include one JS file in another, in the manner I've described? Of course an alternate solution is simply to add the 2 lines of code above to jquery.js directly, but if I do that I'll need to remember to do it every time I upgrade JQuery. Thanks in advance, Don

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374  | Next Page >