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  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

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  • SharpDevelop WIX project: MSBuild Configurations

    - by chezy525
    Using SharpDevelop, I wrote a windows service with a WIX setup project to install/auto-start it. For testing purposes, I've done a number of things I don't want to do in the release version (i.e. add an uninstall shortcut to the desktop). So, my question really boils down to this; how do you handle build configurations within a WiX project? I think I've solved most of my problems after I found this question Passing build parameters to .wxs file to dynamicaly build wix installers. And thus far I've done the following: Added a property that checks the Configuration variable <Product> ... <Property Id="DEBUG">$(var.Configuration) == 'Debug'</Property> ... Separated all of the debug files into unique components and setup as a separate feature with a condition checking the DEBUG property. <Product> ... <Feature> ... <Feature Id="DebugFiles" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="UninstallShortcutComponent" /> <Condition Level="0">DEBUG</Condition> </Feature> ... Then, finally, pointing to the correct file based on the configuration, using the Configuration variable <Directory> ... <Component> <File Source="..\mainProject\bin\$(var.Configuration)\main.exe" /> </Component> ... So, now my question is simplified to how to handle files that may not exist under certain build configurations (like .pdb files). Using all of the above (including pointing the file source to the ...\bin\Release\*.pdb, which I know isn't expected to exist) I get a LGHT0103 compiler error, it can't find the file.

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  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

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  • JPA joined column allow every value...

    - by Fabio Beoni
    I'm testing JPA, in a simple case File/FileVersions tables (Master/Details), with OneToMany relation, I have this problem: in FileVersions table, the field "file_id" (responsable for the relation with File table) accepts every values, not only values from File table. How can I use the JPA mapping to limit the input in FileVersion.file_id only for values existing in File.id? My class are File and FileVersion: FILE CLASS @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="FILE_ID") private Long id; @Column(name="NAME", nullable = false, length = 30) private String name; //RELATIONS ------------------------------------------- @OneToMany(mappedBy="file", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) private Collection <FileVersion> fileVersionsList; //----------------------------------------------------- FILEVERSION CLASS @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="VERSION_ID") private Long id; @Column(name="FILENAME", nullable = false, length = 255) private String fileName; @Column(name="NOTES", nullable = false, length = 200) private String notes; //RELATIONS ------------------------------------------- @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="FILE_ID", referencedColumnName="FILE_ID", nullable=false) private File file; //----------------------------------------------------- and this is the FILEVERSION TABLE CREATE TABLE `JPA-Support`.`FILEVERSION` ( `VERSION_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `FILENAME` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `NOTES` varchar(200) NOT NULL, `FILE_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`VERSION_ID`), KEY `FK_FILEVERSION_FILE_ID` (`FILE_ID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1

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  • Working with Decimal fields in SSIS

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm using SQL Server 2008 w/SP2. I've got an incoming decimal(9,2) field incoming through my OLE DB transformation to my recordset destination transformation. It's like it's reading it as something other than a decimal? I don't know..I'm not an SSIS guru. So continuing on...the problem I have starts here with me trying to stuff the value into a variable for this decimal field. In a foreach loop, I have a variable to represent this decimal field so I can work with it. The first problem that I believe is pretty well known is SSIS variables do not have a decimal type. And from my own testing and what I've read out there, people are using type object for the variable to make SSIS "happy" with decimal values? It makes mine happy. But, then in my foreach loop, I have a for loop. And inside that I'm using an E*xecute SQL Task transformation*. In it, I need to create a parameter mapping to my variable so I can work with that decimal field in my T-SQL call in here. So now I see a type decimal for the parameter and use it and set that to point to my variable. When I run SSIS and it hits my SQL call, I get this in my output window.: The type is not supported.DBTYPE_DECIMAL So I am hitting a wall here. All I wanna do is work with a decimal!!!

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  • Can I get consistent CSS colors across browsers?

    - by Trevor Burnham
    I'm testing a new site, and I have a div with background-color: #bbf6bb; That seems innocuous enough to me. And yet, on my MacBook Pro, the color looks very different in Firefox 3.6 vs. Safari 4. In Safari, it's the color I'd expect from the hex value: a pale green. In Firefox, there's a definite bluish tint, making the color turquoise. I'm aware of color inconsistencies that result from different treatment of images across browsers, but in pure CSS? Really? I'm guessing that Firefox trying to correct for my display in hopes of delivering better consistency with print, but I'd much rather have my site look the same hue to my users regardless of their choice of browser. Any ideas? Can someone confirm that Firefox is the culprit here? [Update: This seems to have been a fluke. Specifically, it's a narrow issue with Firefox—see my answer below. I'm puzzled, but relieved.]

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  • How to get application context path in spring-ws?

    - by Dhaliwal
    I am using Spring-WS to create a webservice. In my project, I have created a Helper class to reads sample response and request xml file which are located in my /src/main/resource folder. When I am unit-testing my webservice application 'locally', I use the System.getProperty("user.dir") to get the application context folder. The following is a method that I created in the Helper class to help me retrieve the file that I am interested in my resource folder. public static File getFileFromResources(String filename) { System.out.println("Getting file from resource folder"); File request = null; String curDir = System.getProperty("user.dir"); String contextpath = "C:\\src\\main\\resources\\"; request = new File(curDir + contextpath + filename); return request; } However, after 'publishing' the compiled WAR file to the ../webapps folder to the Apache Tomcat directory, I realise that System.getProperty("user.dir") no longer returns my application context path. Instead, it is returning the Apache Tomcat root directory as shown C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\src\main\resources\SampleClientFile I cant seem to find any information about getting the root folder of my webservice. I have seen examples on Spring web application where I can retrieve the context path by using the following : request.getSession().getServletContext().getContextPath() But in this case, I am using a Spring web application where there is a servlet context in the request. But the Spring-WS, my entry point is an endpoint. How can I get the context path of my webservice application. I am expecting a context path of something like C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\clientWebService\WEB-INF\classes Could someone suggest a way to achieve this?

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  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

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  • PHPMailer with GMail: SMTP Error

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am making use of PHPMailer to send mail through GMail. The code I use is straight from a tutorial and it works perfectly on my laptop. However, testing this on a Windows 2003 Server - it seems to always return an SMPT error: SMTP Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. Mailer Error: SMTP Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. Here is the settings I use in PHPMailer: include("phpmailer/class.phpmailer.php"); $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->IsSMTP(); $mail->SMTPAuth = true; // enable SMTP authentication $mail->SMTPSecure = "ssl"; // use ssl $mail->Host = "smtp.gmail.com"; // GMAIL's SMTP server $mail->Port = 465; // SMTP port used by GMAIL server Can I say with confidence that this isn't a port issue, since I am connecting to another server on port 465 and it is sending mail. If not, please explain. How can I resolve this issue? Thanks all for any help

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  • Debugging a Google Web Toolkit application that has an error when deployed on Google App Engine

    - by gerdemb
    I have a Google Web Toolkit application that I am deploying to Google App Engine. In the deployed application, I am getting a JavaScript error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'f' of null. This sounds like the JavaScript equivalent of a Java NullPointerException. The problem is that the GWT JavaScript is obfuscated, so it's impossible to debug in the browser and I can't reproduce the same problem in hosted mode where I could use the Java debugger. I think the reason I'm only seeing the error on the deployed application is that the database I'm using on the GAE server is triggering something differently than the test database I'm using during testing and development. So, any ideas about the best way to proceed? I've thought of the following things: Deploy a non-obsfucated version of my application. Despite a lot of Googling, I can't figure out how to do this using the automatic deploy script provided with the Google Eclipse Plugin. Does anyone know? Download and copy my GAE data to the local server Somehow point my development code to use the GAE server for data instead of the local test database. This seems like the best idea... Can anyone suggest how to proceed here? Finally, is there a way to catch these JavaScript errors on the production server and log them somewhere? Without logging, I won't have anyway to know if my users are having errors that don't occur on the server. The GWT.log() function is automatically stripped out of the production code...

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  • code to ping websites works sometimes ...

    - by trustfundbaby
    I'm testing out a piece of code to ping a bunch of websites I own on a regular basis, to make sure they're up. I'm using rails and so far I have this hideous test action that I'm using to try it out (see below). The problem though, is that sometimes it works, and other times it won't ... sometimes it runs through the code just fine, other times, it seems to completely ignore the begin/rescue block ... a. I need help figuring out what the problem is b. And refactoring this to make it look respectable. Your help is much appreciated. require 'net/http' require 'uri' def ping @sites = NewsSource.all @sites.each do |site| if site.uri and !site.uri.empty? uri = URI.parse(site.uri) response = nil path = uri.path.blank? ? '/' : uri.path path = uri.query.blank? ? path : "#{path}?#{uri.query}" begin Net::HTTP.start(uri.host, uri.port) {|http| http.open_timeout = 30 http.read_timeout = 30 response = http.head(path) } if response.code.eql?('200') or response.code.eql?('301') or response.code.eql?('302') site.up = true else site.up = false end site.up_check_msg = response.message site.up_check_code = response.code rescue Errno::EBADF rescue Timeout::Error site.up = false site.up_check_msg = 'timeout' site.up_check_code = '408' end site.up_check_time = 0.seconds.ago site.save end end end

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  • Could my forms be hacked.

    - by Mike Sandman
    Hi there, I posted a question yesterday, which I intend to get back to today however I wrote some JavaScript as a first line of prevention against XSS. However when testing this on my live server I catch some invalid input as the javascript catches the php section. My form uses post and php isn't in my form items (i haven't typed it in). Could this be picking up the form action or something? I'm baffeled, Any ideas Here is my code, it is triggered on the submit button. function validateForBadNess(){ var theShit = new Array("*","^", "$", "(",")","{", "}","[", "]","\", "|", "'","/","?",",","=","","gt","lt", "<","script","`","´","php"); var tagName = new Array(); tagName[0] = "input"; tagName[1] = "select"; tagName[2] = "textbox"; tagName[3] = "textarea"; for (ms=0;ms // loop through the elements of the form var formItems = document.getElementsByTagName(tagName[ms]); for (var xs=0;xs var thisString = formItems[xs].value; // loop through bad array for (zs in theShit){ //alert(thisString + " " + thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs])) if(thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs]) >= 0){ alert("Sorry but the following character: " + theShit[zs] + " is not permitted. Please omit it from your input.\nIf this is part of your password please contact us to heave your password reset.") return false; } } // loop for formitems } // tagName toop } // original condition }

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  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

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  • MySql too many connections

    - by MichaelMcCabe
    I hate to bring up a question which is widely asked on the web, but I cant seem to solve it. I started a project a while back and after a month of testing, I hit a "Too many connections" error. I looked into it, and "Solved" it by increasing the max_connections. This then worked. Since then more and more people started to use it, and it hit again. When I am the only user on the site, i type "show processlist" and it comes up with about 50 connections which are still open (saying "Sleep" in the command). Now, I dont know enough to speculate why these are open, but in my code I tripple checked and every connection I open, I close. ie. public int getSiteIdFromName(String name, String company)throws DataAccessException,java.sql.SQLException{ Connection conn = this.getSession().connection(); Statement smt = conn.createStatement(); ResultSet rs=null; String query="SELECT id FROM site WHERE name='"+name+"' and company_id='"+company+"'"; rs=smt.executeQuery(query); rs.next(); int id=rs.getInt("id"); rs.close(); smt.close(); conn.close(); return id; } Every time I do something else on the site, another load of connections are opened and not closed. Is there something wrong with my code? and if not, what could be the problem?

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  • Have to login twice. PHP sessions and login troubles with Chrome and Opera.

    - by Robert
    The problem I am encountering is that for my login form I have to login twice for the session to register properly, but only in Chrome (my version is 4.0.249.89) and Opera (my version is 10.10). Here is the stripped down code that I am testing on: Login Page: session_start(); $_SESSION['user_id'] = 8; $_SESSION['user_name'] = 'Jim'; session_write_close(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Home Page: session_start(); if ( isset($_SESSION['user_id']) ) { echo "You are logged in!"; } else { echo "You are NOT logged in!"; } Logout Page: session_start(); session_unset(); session_destroy(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Currently, under a fresh load with no cookies, if I go to my-domain-name.com/login/ it will redirect to the home page and say "You are NOT logged in!" but if I go there again it will say "You are logged in!". Any ideas? Thanks for your help.

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  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

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  • Calculate posterior distribution of unknown mis-classification with PRTools in MATLAB

    - by Samuel Lampa
    I'm using the PRTools MATLAB library to train some classifiers, generating test data and testing the classifiers. I have the following details: N: Total # of test examples k: # of mis-classification for each classifier and class I want to do: Calculate and plot Bayesian posterior distributions of the unknown probabilities of mis-classification (denoted q), that is, as probability density functions over q itself (so, P(q) will be plotted over q, from 0 to 1). I have that (math formulae, not matlab code!): P(q|k,N) = Posterior * Prior / Normalization constant = P(k|q,N) * P(q|N) / P(k|N) The prior is set to 1, so I only need to calculate the posterior and normalization constant. I know that the posterior can be expressed as (where B(N,k) is the binomial coefficient): P(k|q,N) = B(N,k) * q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ... so the Normalization constant is simply an integral of the posterior above, from 0 to 1: P(k|N) = B(N,k) * integralFromZeroToOne( q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ) (The Binomial coefficient ( B(N,k) ) can be omitted thoughappears in both the posterior and normalization constant, so it can be omitted.) Now, I've heard that the integral for the normalization constant should be able to be calculated as a series ... something like: k!(N-k)! / (N+1)! Is that correct? (I have some lecture notes from with this series, but can't figure out if it is for the normalization constant integral, or for the posterior distribution of mis-classification (q)) Also, hints are welcome as how to practically calculate this? (factorials are easily creating truncation errors right?) ... AND, how to practically calculate the final plot (the posterior distribution over q, from 0 to 1).

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  • Method works on Emulator but no on Microsoft Surface unit?

    - by Roflcoptr
    I have the following code. The StartRecord method trows an error on the Microsoft Surface Unit. But when I'm testing it on the emulator, it all works great. Any hints how 1) to find the exception that is thrown on the Microsoft Surface Unit? 2) to find the error in the code? any assumptions? private void StartRecord(object sender, ContactEventArgs e) { isRecording = true; StartButton.IsEnabled = false; recordTimer = new Timer(10); recordTimer.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(recordTimer_Elapsed); PlaybackRoot.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed; EllapsedRecord.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; InputLevel.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; long time = DateTime.Now.Ticks; String fileName = Convert.ToString(time) + ".wav"; Console.WriteLine(fileName); startTime = DateTime.UtcNow; recordTimer.Start(); record = new AudioRecording(fileName); record.getSampleAggregator().MaximumCalculated += new EventHandler<MaxSampleEventArgs>(AudioControl_MaximumCalculated); record.start(); }

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  • POST xml to php with apache2

    - by Berry
    I'm working on an application that receives XML data via POST, processes it with a PHP script, and returns an XML response. I'm getting the XML with this PHP code: $requestStr = file_get_contents('php://input'); $requests = simplexml_load_string($requestStr); which works fine on the Linux-based product hardware using nginx as the server. However, for testing I'd like to be able to run it on my MacBook Pro, so I can avoid the "build image, install on product, reboot product, wait, test change" loop while I do targeted development on this XML processor. I enabled "web sharing" which starts up Apache, added a rewrite rule to point a convenient URI at my development source directory and used curl to send a request to my PHP script thus: curl -H "Content-Type:text/xml" -d @request.xml http://localhost/test/path/testscript "testscript" is handled by the PHP script fine, but when it goes to read "php:://input" I get nothing -- the empty string. Anyone have a clue why this would work under Linux with nginx and not under MacOS with Apache? I've googled and searched stackoverlow.com to no avail. Thanks for any answers. UPDATE: I've discovered that at least in this configuration, reading from php://stdin will work fine, while php://input will not. Who knew?

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  • Python 3.3 Webserver restarting problems

    - by IPDGino
    I have made a simple webserver in python, and had some problems with it before as described here: Python (3.3) Webserver script with an interesting error In that question, the answer was to use a While True: loop so that any crashes or errors would be resolved instantly, because it would just start itself again. I've used this for a while, and still want to make the server restart itself every few minutes, but on Linux for some reason it won't work for me. On windows the code below works fine, but on linux it keeps saying Handler class up here ... ... class Server: def __init__(self): self.server_class = HTTPServer self.server_adress = ('MY IP GOES HERE, or localhost', 8080) global httpd httpd = self.server_class(self.server_adress, Handler) self.main() def main(self): if count > 1: global SERVER_UP_SINCE HOUR_CHECK = int(((count - 1) * RESTART_INTERVAL) / 60) SERVER_UPTIME = str(HOUR_CHECK) + " MINUTES" if HOUR_CHECK > 60: minutes = int(HOUR_CHECK % 60) hours = int(HOUR_CHECK // 60) SERVER_UPTIME = ("%s HOURS, %s MINUTES" % (str(hours), str(minutes))) SERVING_ON_ADDR = self.server_adress SERVER_UP_SINCE = str(SERVER_UP_SINCE) SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER = count - 1 print(""" SERVER INFO ------------------------------------- SERVER_UPTIME: %s SERVER_UP_SINCE: %s TOTAL_FILES_SERVED: %d SERVING_ON_ADDR: %s SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER: %s \n\nSERVER HAS RESTARTED """ % (SERVER_UPTIME, SERVER_UP_SINCE, TOTAL_FILES, SERVING_ON_ADDR, SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER)) else: print("SERVER_BOOT=1\nSERVER_ONLINE=TRUE\nRESTART_LOOP=TRUE\nSERVING_ON_ADDR:%s" % str(self.server_adress)) while True: try: httpd.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print("Shutting down...") break httpd.shutdown() httpd.socket.close() raise(SystemExit) return def server_restart(): """If you want the restart timer to be longer, replace the number after the RESTART_INTERVAL variable""" global RESTART_INTERVAL RESTART_INTERVAL = 10 threading.Timer(RESTART_INTERVAL, server_restart).start() global count count = count + 1 instance = Server() if __name__ == "__main__": global SERVER_UP_SINCE SERVER_UP_SINCE = strftime("%d-%m-%Y %H:%M:%S", gmtime()) server_restart() Basically, I make a thread to restart it every 10 seconds (For testing purposes) and start the server. After ten seconds it will say File "/home/username/Desktop/Webserver/server.py", line 199, in __init__ httpd = self.server_class(self.server_adress, Handler) File "/usr/lib/python3.3/socketserver.py", line 430, in __init__ self.server_bind() File "/usr/lib/python3.3/http/server.py", line 135, in server_bind socketserver.TCPServer.server_bind(self) File "/usr/lib/python3.3/socketserver.py", line 441, in server_bind self.socket.bind(self.server_address) OSError: [Errno 98] Address already in use As you can see in the except KeyboardInterruption line, I tried everything to make the server stop, and the program stop, but it will NOT stop. But the thing I really want to know is how to make this server able to restart, without giving some wonky errors.

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  • Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

    - by kevinjansz
    In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

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  • Payment gateways and XSS

    - by Rowan Parker
    Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

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  • SQL placeholder in WHERE IN issue, inserted strings fail.

    - by Alastair Pitts
    As part of my jobs, I need to writes SQL queries to connect to our PI database. To generate a query, I need to pass an array of tags (essentially primary keys), but these have to be inserted as strings. As this will be a modular query and used for multiple tags, a placeholder is being used. The query relies upon the use of the WHERE IN statement, which is where the placeholder is, like below: SELECT SUM(value * 5/1000) as "Hourly Flow [kL]" from piarchive..pitotal WHERE tag IN (?) AND time between ? and ? and timestep = '1d' and calcbasis = 'Eventweighted' and value <> '' The issue is the format in which the tags are to be passed in as. If I add them directly into the query (for testing), they go in the format (these are example numbers): '000000012','00000032','005050236','4560236' and the query looks like: SELECT SUM(value * 5/1000) as "Hourly Flow [kL]" from piarchive..pitotal WHERE tag IN ('000000012','00000032','005050236','4560236') AND time between ? and ? and timestep = '1d' and calcbasis = 'Eventweighted' and value <> '' which works. If I try and add the same tags into the placeholder, the query fails. If I only add 1 tag, with no quotes (using the placeholder), the query works. Why is this happening? Is there anyway around it?

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  • Xcode "Build and Archive" from command line

    - by Dan Fabulich
    Xcode 3.2 provides an awesome new feature under the Build menu, "Build and Archive" which generates an .ipa file suitable for Ad Hoc distribution. You can also open the Organizer, go to "Archived Applications," and "Submit Application to iTunesConnect." Is there a way to use "Build and Archive" from the command line (as part of a build script)? I'd assume that xcodebuild would be involved somehow, but the man page doesn't seem to say anything about this. UPDATE Michael Grinich requested clarification; here's what exactly you can't do with command-line builds, features you can ONLY do with Xcode's Organizer after you "Build and Archive." You can click "Share Application..." to share your IPA with beta testers. As Guillaume points out below, due to some Xcode magic, this IPA file does not require a separately distributed .mobileprovision file that beta testers need to install; that's magical. No command-line script can do it. For example, Arrix's script (submitted May 1) does not meet that requirement. More importantly, after you've beta tested a build, you can click "Submit Application to iTunes Connect" to submit that EXACT same build to Apple, the very binary you tested, without rebuilding it. That's impossible from the command line, because signing the app is part of the build process; you can sign bits for Ad Hoc beta testing OR you can sign them for submission to the App Store, but not both. No IPA built on the command-line can be beta tested on phones and then submitted directly to Apple. I'd love for someone to come along and prove me wrong: both of these features work great in the Xcode GUI and cannot be replicated from the command line.

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