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  • How to print PDF on default network printer using GhostScript (gswin32c.exe) shell command

    - by Maciej
    I'd like to print PDF file(s) on windows' network printer via GhostScript. (I dont want to use Adobe Reader) I've read gswin32c.exe which can do the job. I experimented with many commands and coudn't find the way how to force gs to print PDF on my (windows default) network drive. I don't need point exact network printer- default can be used. But if there is no such option I'm happy to pass printer name as well. (I've tried with param -SDevice="\server_IP\printer_name" but this didnt work as well...) Command working under Windows cmd: gswin32c -dPrinted -dBATCH -dNOPAUSE -dNOSAFER -q -dNumCopies=1 -sDEVICE=ljet4 -sOutputFile="\\spool\\\Server_Name\Printer_name" "C:\test.pdf" Method created base on above - doesnt work and thorws exception. (Error code = 1) /// <summary> /// Prints the PDF. /// </summary> /// <param name="ghostScriptPath">The ghost script path. Eg "C:\Program Files\gs\gs8.71\bin\gswin32c.exe"</param> /// <param name="numberOfCopies">The number of copies.</param> /// <param name="printerName">Name of the printer. Eg \\server_name\printer_name</param> /// <param name="pdfFileName">Name of the PDF file.</param> /// <returns></returns> public bool PrintPDF (string ghostScriptPath, int numberOfCopies, string printerName, string pdfFileName) { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.Arguments = " -dPrinted -dBATCH -dNOPAUSE -dNOSAFER -q -dNumCopies=" + Convert.ToString(numberOfCopies) + " -sDEVICE=ljet4 -sOutputFile=\"\\\\spool\\" + printerName + "\" \"" + pdfFileName + "\""; startInfo.FileName = ghostScriptPath; startInfo.UseShellExecute = false; Process process = Process.Start(startInfo); return process.ExitCode == 0; } Any idea how to make it working under C#?

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  • How can I access master page text box from jquery file?

    - by stackuser1
    In my master page i've a textbox. <asp:TextBox ID="SearchTextBox" runat="server" class="searchtxtbox" onfocus="HideSearchWaterMark();" Text="Search" onblur="ShowSearchWaterMark(this);" /> I added jquery references in code behind. TextBox SearchTextBox = this.FindControl("SearchTextBox") as TextBox; StringBuilder objStringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); objStringBuilder.Append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"javascript\">\n"); objStringBuilder.AppendFormat("var searchTextBox = '{0}';\n", SearchTextBox.ClientID); objStringBuilder.Append("</script>\n"); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), "RegisterVariables", objStringBuilder.ToString()); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/Search.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/TagsScripts/jquery.autocomplete.js")); in Search.js i've the following methods to access the text box of master page: $(document).ready(function () { $("#" + searchTextBox).autocomplete("Handlers/GenericHandler.ashx?tgt=12", { multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ";", mustMatch: false, autoFill: true }); }); function HideSearchWaterMark() { var control = $("#" + searchTextBox); if (control[0].className == "searchtxtbox ac_input") control[0].value = ""; control[0].className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } function ShowSearchWaterMark(tagsTextBox) { if (searchTextBox.value.length == 0) { searchTextBox.value = "Search"; searchTextBox.className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } When i run my application i'm getting object reference not set error. Please tell me where i need to change my code.

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  • WCF InProcFactory error

    - by Terence Lewis
    I'm using IDesign's ServiceModelEx assembly to provide additional functionality over and above what's available in standard WCF. In particular I'm making use of InProcFactory to host some WCF services within my process using Named Pipes. However, my process also declares a TCP endpoint in its configuration file, which I host and open when the process starts. At some later point, when I try to host a second instance of this service using the InProcFactory through the named pipe (from a different service in the same process), for some reason it picks up the TCP endpoint in the configuration file and tries to re-host this endpoint, which throws an exception as the TCP port is already in use from the first hosting. Here is the relevant code from InProcFactory.cs in ServiceModelEx: static HostRecord GetHostRecord<S,I>() where I : class where S : class,I { HostRecord hostRecord; if(m_Hosts.ContainsKey(typeof(S))) { hostRecord = m_Hosts[typeof(S)]; } else { ServiceHost<S> host; if(m_Singletons.ContainsKey(typeof(S))) { S singleton = m_Singletons[typeof(S)] as S; Debug.Assert(singleton != null); host = new ServiceHost<S>(singleton,BaseAddress); } else { host = new ServiceHost<S>(BaseAddress); } string address = BaseAddress.ToString() + Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); hostRecord = new HostRecord(host,address); m_Hosts.Add(typeof(S),hostRecord); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(I),Binding,address); if(m_Throttles.ContainsKey(typeof(S))) { host.SetThrottle(m_Throttles[typeof(S)]); } // This line fails because it tries to open two endpoints, instead of just the named-pipe one host.Open(); } return hostRecord; }

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  • Oracle rownum in db2 - Java data archiving

    - by HonorGod
    I have a data archiving process in java that moves data between db2 and sybase. FYI - This is not done through any import/export process because there are several conditions on each table that are available on run-time and so this process is developed in java. Right now I have single DatabaseReader and DatabaseWriter defined for each source and destination combination so that data is moved in multiple threads. I guess I wanted to expand this further where I can have Multiple DatabaseReaders and Multiple DatabaseWriters defined for each source and destination combination. So, for example if the source data is about 100 rows and I defined 10 readers and 10 writer, each reader will read 10 rows and give them to the writer. I hope process will give me extreme performance depending on the resources available on the server [CPU, Memory etc]. But I guess the problem is these source tables do not have primary keys and it is extremely difficult to grab rows in multiple sets. Oracle provides rownum concept and i guess the life is much simpler there....but how about db2? How can I achieve this behavior with db2? Is there a way to say fetch first 10 records and then fetch next 10 records and so on? Any suggestions / ideas ? Db2 Version - DB2 v8.1.0.144 Fix Pack Num - 16 Linux

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  • MPI hypercube broadcast error

    - by luvieere
    I've got a one to all broadcast method for a hypercube, written using MPI: one2allbcast(int n, int rank, void *data, int count, MPI_Datatype dtype) { MPI_Status status; int mask, partner; int mask2 = ((1 << n) - 1) ^ (1 << n-1); for (mask = (1 << n-1); mask; mask >>= 1, mask2 >>= 1) { if (rank & mask2 == 0) { partner = rank ^ mask; if (rank & mask) MPI_Recv(data, count, dtype, partner, 99, MPI_COMM_WORLD, &status); else MPI_Send(data, count, dtype, partner, 99, MPI_COMM_WORLD); } } } Upon calling it from main: int main( int argc, char **argv ) { int n, rank; MPI_Init (&argc, &argv); MPI_Comm_size (MPI_COMM_WORLD, &n); MPI_Comm_rank (MPI_COMM_WORLD, &rank); one2allbcast(floor(log(n) / log (2)), rank, "message", sizeof(message), MPI_CHAR); MPI_Finalize(); return 0; } compiling and executing on 8 nodes, I receive a series of errors reporting that processes 1, 3, 5, 7 were stopped before the point of receiving any data: MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 1, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (1, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (1, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (1, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 3, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (3, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (3, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (3, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 5, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (5, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (5, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (5, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 7, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (7, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (7, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (7, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() Where do I go wrong?

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  • multithreading in c#

    - by Lalit Dhake
    Hi, I have console application. In that i have some process that fetch the data from database through different layers ( business and Data access). stores the fetched data in respective objects. Like if data is fetched for student then this data will store (assigned ) to Student object. same for school. and them a delegate call the certain method that generates outputs as per requirement. This process will execute many times say 10 times. Ok? I want to run simultaneously this process. not one will start, it will finish and then second will start. I want after starting 1'st process, just 2'nd , 3rd....10'th must be start. Means it should be multithreading. how can i achieve this ? is that will give me error while connection with data base open and close ? I have tried this concept . but when thread 1'st is starting then data will fetched for thread 1 will stored in its respective (student , school) objects. ok? when simultaneous 2'nd thread starts , but the data is changing of 1'st object ,while control flowing in program. What have to do?

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  • LogonUser -> CreateProcessAsUser from a system service

    - by Josh K
    I've read all the posts on Stack Overflow about CreateProcessAsUser and there are very few resolved questions, so I'm not holding my breath on this one. But it seems like I'm definitely missing something, so it might be easy. The target OS is Windows XP. I have a service running as "Local System" from which I want to create a process running as a different user. For that user, I have the username and password, so LogonUser goes fine and I get a token for the user (in this case, an Administrator account.) I then try to use that token to call CreateProcessAsUser, but it fails because that token does not come with SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege - however, it does have SeIncreaseQuotaPrivilege. (I used GetTokenInformation to dump all the privileges associated with that token.) According to the MSDN page for CreateProcessAsUser, you need both privileges in order to call CreateProcessAsUser successfully. It also says you don't need the SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege if the token you pass in to CreateProcessAsUser() is a "restricted version of the calling process' primary token", which I can create with CreateRestrictedToken(), but then it will be associated with the Local System user and not the target user I'm trying to run the process as. So how would I create a logon token that is both a restricted version of the calling process' primary token, AND is associated with a different user? Thanks! Note that there is no need for user interaction in here - it's all unattended - so there's no need to do stuff like grabbing WINSTA0, etc.

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  • Google Chrome, IE problem with adjusting style before AJAX

    - by orokusaki
    When I'm using AJAX, I typically do something before each request to let the user know that they'll be waiting for a second. This is usually done by just adding an animated loading gif. When I do this, Firefox does what you'd expect and adds the gif before moving control to the next line (where the AJAX is called). In Chrome, it locks the browser and doesn't make any DOM changes at all (let alone load an image), including even changing the color of something, until the AJAX is done. This isn't just AJAX though. It's anything that holds control, and it never makes DOM changes until the control is given back to the window. Example (using jQuery): function submit_order() { $('#my_element').css('color', '#FF0000'); // Make text red before calling AJAX $.getJSON('/api/', my_callback) // Note, in IE and Chrome #my_element isn't turned red until the AJAX finishes and my_callback is run } Why does this happen, and how can I solve it? I can't use ASYNC because of the nature of the data (it would be a big mess). I experimented with using window.setTimeout(myajaxfunc, 150) after setting the style, to see if it would set the style, then do the timeout, but it appears it isn't an issue with just AJAX, but rather the control of the script in general (I think, hence the title making mention to AJAX because this is the only time I ever run into this problem). This doesn't have anything to do with it being in a function BTW.

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  • Delphi: Alternative to using Assign/ReadLn for text file reading

    - by Ian Boyd
    i want to process a text file line by line. In the olden days i loaded the file into a StringList: slFile := TStringList.Create(); slFile.LoadFromFile(filename); for i := 0 to slFile.Count-1 do begin oneLine := slFile.Strings[i]; //process the line end; Problem with that is once the file gets to be a few hundred megabytes, i have to allocate a huge chunk of memory; when really i only need enough memory to hold one line at a time. (Plus, you can't really indicate progress when you the system is locked up loading the file in step 1). The i tried using the native, and recommended, file I/O routines provided by Delphi: var f: TextFile; begin Assign(filename, f); while ReadLn(f, oneLine) do begin //process the line end; Problem withAssign is that there is no option to read the file without locking (i.e. fmShareDenyNone). The former stringlist example doesn't support no-lock either, unless you change it to LoadFromStream: slFile := TStringList.Create; stream := TFileStream.Create(filename, fmOpenRead or fmShareDenyNone); slFile.LoadFromStream(stream); stream.Free; for i := 0 to slFile.Count-1 do begin oneLine := slFile.Strings[i]; //process the line end; So now even though i've gained no locks being held, i'm back to loading the entire file into memory. Is there some alternative to Assign/ReadLn, where i can read a file line-by-line, without taking a sharing lock? i'd rather not get directly into Win32 CreateFile/ReadFile, and having to deal with allocating buffers and detecting CR, LF, CRLF's. i thought about memory mapped files, but there's the difficulty if the entire file doesn't fit (map) into virtual memory, and having to maps views (pieces) of the file at a time. Starts to get ugly. i just want Assign with fmShareDenyNone!

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  • VB.NET - Object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by Daniel
    I need some help with my program. I get this error when I run my VB.NET program with a custom DayView control. ***** Exception Text ******* System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at SeaCow.Main.DayView1_ResolveAppointments(Object sender, ResolveAppointmentsEventArgs args) in C:\Users\Daniel\My Programs\Visual Basic\SeaCow\SeaCow\SeaCow\Main.vb:line 120 at Calendar.DayView.OnResolveAppointments(ResolveAppointmentsEventArgs args) at Calendar.DayView.OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintWithErrorHandling(PaintEventArgs e, Int16 layer) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmPaint(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) According to the error code, the 'for each' loop below is causing the NullReferenceException error. At default, the 'appointments' list is assigned to nothing and I can't find where the ResolveAppointments function is being called at. Private Sub DayView1_ResolveAppointments(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal args As Calendar.ResolveAppointmentsEventArgs) Handles DayView1.ResolveAppointments Dim m_Apps As New List(Of Calendar.Appointment) For Each m_App As Calendar.Appointment In appointments If (m_App.StartDate >= args.StartDate) AndAlso (m_App.StartDate <= args.EndDate) Then m_Apps.Add(m_App) End If Next args.Appointments = m_Apps End Sub Anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Preventing Processes From Spawning Using .NET Code

    - by Matt
    I remember coming across an article on I think CodeProject quite some time ago regarding an antivirus or antimalware some guy was writing where he hooked into the Windows API to be able to catch whenever a new process was started and was prompting he user before allowing the process to start. I can no longer find the article, and would actually like to be able to implement something like this. Currently, we have a custom browser built on Gecko that we've integrated access restrictions to sites based on our internal employee security levels, etc. We prevent any other browser from running with a timer and a call to Process.GetProcessesByName() from a list of the browsers we don't allow. What we want to accomplish is, instead of just blocking these browsers, where there is a small delay between the other browser starting and it being killed by our service, we'd like to be able to display a dialog instead of the process launching at all, explaining that the program isn't in the allowed list. This way, we can generate a list of "allowed" processes and just block everything else (we haven't yet had a problem with outside apps being installed, but you can never be too careful). Unfortunately, we don't do much Windows API programming from C#, so I'm not sure where to begin looking for what calls we need to hook. Even just a starting point of what to read up on would be helpful.

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  • How to make Processes Run Parallel in Erlang?

    - by Ankit S
    Hello, startTrains() -> TotalDist = 100, Trains = [trainA,trainB ], PID = spawn(fun() -> train(1,length(Trains)) end), [ PID ! {self(),TrainData,TotalDist} || TrainData <- Trains], receive {_From, Mesg} -> error_logger:info_msg("~n Mesg ~p ~n",[Mesg]) after 10500 -> refresh end. so, I created Two Processes named trainA, trainB. I want to increment these process by 5 till it gets 100. I made different processes to make each of the train (process) increments its position parallely. But I was surprised to get the output sequentially i.e process trainA ends then process trainB starts. But I want to increment themselves at simultaneously. I want to run processes like this trainA 10 trainB 0 trainA 15 trainB 5 .... trainA 100 trainB 100 but I m getting trainA 0 .... trainA 90 trainA 95 trainA 100 trainA ends trainB 0 trainB 5 trainB 10 ..... trainB 100 How to make the processes run parallel/simultaneously? Hope you get my Q's. Please help me.

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  • jQuery Ajax / .each callback, next 'each' firing before ajax completed

    - by StuR
    Hi the below Javascript is called when I submit a form. It first splits a bunch of url's from a text area, it then: 1) Adds lines to a table for each url, and in the last column (the 'status' column) it says "Not Started". 2) Again it loops through each url, first off it makes an ajax call to check on the status (status.php) which will return a percentage from 0 - 100. 3) In the same loop it kicks off the actual process via ajax (process.php), when the process has completed (bearing in the mind the continuous status updates), it will then say "Completed" in the status column and exit the auto_refresh. 4) It should then go to the next 'each' and do the same for the next url. function formSubmit(){ var lines = $('#urls').val().split('\n'); $.each(lines, function(key, value) { $('#dlTable tr:last').after('<tr><td>'+value+'</td><td>Not Started</td></tr>'); }); $.each(lines, function(key, value) { var auto_refresh = setInterval( function () { $.ajax({ url: 'status.php', success: function(data) { $('#dlTable').find("tr").eq(key+1).children().last().replaceWith("<td>"+data+"</td>"); } }); }, 1000); $.ajax({ url: 'process.php?id='+value, success: function(msg) { clearInterval(auto_refresh); $('#dlTable').find("tr").eq(key+1).children().last().replaceWith("<td>completed rip</td>"); } }); }); }

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  • Adding custom valiadtion to ASP.NET controls

    - by Brian
    We're trying to build a simple asp control for some clients where they can just drop in a single block - i.e. <captcha:CaptchaControl ID="CaptchaControl1" runat="server" Server="http://localhost:51947/" /> and have it render the control. The catch is that I can't get this to include custom validation. Right now I'm using the RenderContents function to display the layout of the control itself as well as hook it up the to Javascript. The problem is that I don't know how to get custom validation to fire when used as part of a control. protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(@" <script type=""text/javascript"" src=""http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js""></script> <link rel=""stylesheet"" type=""text/css"" href=""/Layout/CaptchaLayout.css"" /> //etc <asp:Textbox id=""text1"" runat=""server"" text=""""></asp:Textbox> <asp:CustomValidator id=""CustomValidator2"" runat=""server"" ControlToValidate = ""text1"" ErrorMessage = ""You must enter at least 8 characters!"" ClientValidationFunction=""validateLength"" > </asp:CustomValidator>" ); } Any suggestions for a better way to do this?

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  • DataContext, DataBinding and Element Binding in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    I'm having one hell of a time trying to get my databinding to work correctly. I have reason to believe that what I'm trying to accomplish can't be done, but we'll see what answers I get. I've got a UserControl. This UserControl contains nothing more than a button. Now within the code behind, I've got a property name IsBookmarked. When IsBookmarked is set, code is run that animates the look of the button. The idea is that you click the button and it visually changes. We'll call this UserControl a Bookmark control. Now I have another control, which we'll call the FormControl. My FormControl contains a child Bookmark control. I've tried to do databinding on my Bookmark control, but it's not working. Here's some code to help you out. <UserControl ......> <q:Bookmark x:Name="BookMarkControl1" IsBookmarked="{Binding IsSiteBookmarked}" /> </UserControl> public void Control_Loaded(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataContext = new Employee { IsSiteBookmarked = True }; } public partial class Bookmark : UserControl { bool _IsSiteBookmarked= false; public bool IsSiteBookmarked { get {return _IsSiteBookmarked;} set { _IsSiteBookmarked= value; SwitchMode(value); } } }

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  • Silverlight: how to use a scroll viewer to wrap a list view without specifying height?

    - by John Nicholas
    I have a control that has a list that varies in length greatly. This control appears in various places meaning that i cannot calculate its position and desired height easily. Moreover all I want is for the scrollviewer to simply size itself according to its parent. currently it insists on sizing itself according to the content. currently when i have a list that exceeds the height of the screen the whole control extends off the bottom and the scrollviewer shows no bar (because it has stretched to the heigth of the contents and so thinks it is not required). I've not included code as the object graph is fairly deep. What i am looking for is a set of conditions that would cause the scrollviewer to resize itself according to its content rather than its parent. I have it working in a similar situation involving grids and datagrids, the unique part of this control is that there is a list containing controls. Any ideas? I would prefer solutions that don't require use of code behind - but im really not in a position to be choosey.

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  • wcf callback exception after updating to .net 4.0

    - by James
    I have a wcf service that uses callbacks with DualHttpBindings. The service pushes back a datatable of search results the client (for a long running search) as it finds them. This worked fine in .Net 3.5. Since I updated to .Net 4.0, it bombs out with a System.Runtime.FatalException that actually kills the IIS worker process. I have no idea how to even go about starting to fix this. Any recommendations appreciated. The info from the resulting event log is pasted below. An unhandled exception occurred and the process was terminated. Application ID: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT/CP Process ID: 5284 Exception: System.Runtime.FatalException Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage31(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.DispatchAndReleasePump(RequestContext request, Boolean cleanThread, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.HandleRequest(RequestContext request, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.AsyncMessagePump(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.ProcessDuplexMessage(WsrmMessageInfo info) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.HandleReceiveComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnReceiveCompletedStatic(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableChannelBinder1.InputAsyncResult1.OnInputComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.Runtime.IOThreadScheduler.ScheduledOverlapped.IOCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Runtime.Fx.IOCompletionThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(UInt32 error, UInt32 bytesRead, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) InnerException: * System.NullReferenceException* Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.Web.HttpApplication.ThreadContext.Enter(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.HttpApplication.OnThreadEnterPrivate(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallbackPossiblyUnderLock(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallback(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc)

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  • Problem with Binding Multiple Objects on WPF

    - by Diego Modolo Ribeiro
    Hi, I'm developing a user control called SearchBox, that will act as a replacer for ComboBox for multiple records, as the performance in ComboBox is low for this scenario, but I'm having a big binding problem. I have a base control with a DependencyProperty called SelectedItem, and my SearchControl shows that control so that the user can select the record. The SearchControl also has a DependencyProperty called SelectedItem on it, and it is being updated when the user selects something on the base control, but the UI, wich has the SearchControl, is not being updated. I used a null converter so that I could see if the property was updating, but it's not. Below is some of the code: This is the UI: <NectarControles:MaskedSearchControl x:Name="teste" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Height="21" ItemsSource="{Binding C001_Lista}" DisplayMember="C001_Codigo" Custom:CustomizadorTextBox.CodigoCampo="C001_Codigo" ViewType="{x:Type C001:C001_Search}" ViewModelType="{x:Type C001_ViewModel:C001_ViewModel}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=Instancia.C001_Holding, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, Converter={StaticResource DebuggingConverter}}"> </NectarControles:MaskedSearchControl> This is the relevante part of the SearchControl: Binding selectedItemBinding = new Binding("SelectedItem"); selectedItemBinding.Source = this.SearchControlBase; selectedItemBinding.Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay; selectedItemBinding.UpdateSourceTrigger = UpdateSourceTrigger.PropertyChanged; this.SetBinding(SelectedItemProperty, selectedItemBinding); ... public System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.IEntityWithKey SelectedItem { get { return (System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.IEntityWithKey)GetValue(SelectedItemProperty); } set { SetValue(SelectedItemProperty, value); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedItem")); } } Please someone help me... Tks...

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  • C# ErrorProvider Want to know if any are Active

    - by RcK
    I want to know if any ErrorProvider are active in my form. being able to find this out might help reduce my code.. I did find this thing here Counting ErrorProvider but incase someone knows a better way... so here goes. Ok so basically I have a WinForm which has many TextBoxes Now when user enters values I use Validating to perform validation and if it does not match Regex I set the ErrorProvider ON for that Control.. similarly if the user changes the value to a acceptable one I switch ErrorProvider OFF for that Control.. but when SAVE is clicked i have to do another check anyways incase the user did not listen to me and change the thing like he was supposed to and still clicked SAVE.. I dont want the thing crashing.. soo mm is there like a thing where I could say if ErrorProviders is not active then proceed with save else message box saying change it. [ANOTHER QUESTION] Umm When Validating it only Validates when the Control loses Focus... I kinda of want it to do validation when user stops typing.. I hope you get what I mean Like Email Address(textbox) when user is typing his/her name in I [DON'T] want it to do validation yet, but when user has finished entering is waiting for ErrorProvider to disappear(But it doesn't coz it only does that when control loses focus) 2 odd seconds after typing can i make the validation take place?

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  • How do I avoid repetition in Java ResourceBundle strings?

    - by Trejkaz
    We had a lot of strings which contained the same sub-string, from sentences about checking the log or how to contact support, to branding-like strings containing the company or product name. The repetition was causing a few issues for ourselves (primarily typos or copy/paste errors) but it also causes issues in that it increases the amount of text our translator has to translate. The solution I came up with went something like this: public class ExpandingResourceBundleControl extends ResourceBundle.Control { public static final ResourceBundle.Control EXPANDING = new ExpandingResourceBundleControl(); private ExpandingResourceBundleControl() { } @Override public ResourceBundle newBundle(String baseName, Locale locale, String format, ClassLoader loader, boolean reload) throws IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, IOException { ResourceBundle inner = super.newBundle(baseName, locale, format, loader, reload); return inner == null ? null : new ExpandingResourceBundle(inner, loader); } } ExpandingResourceBundle delegates to the real resource bundle but performs conversion of {{this.kind.of.thing}} to look up the key in the resources. Every time you want to get one of these, you have to go: ResourceBundle.getBundle("com/acme/app/Bundle", EXPANDING); And this works fine -- for a while. What eventually happens is that some new code (in our case autogenerated code which was spat out of Matisse) looks up the same resource bundle without specifying the custom control. This appears to be non-reproducible if you write a simple unit test which calls it with and then without, but it occurs when the application is run for real. Somehow the cache inside ResourceBundle ejects the good value and replaces it with the broken one. I am yet to figure out why and Sun's jar files were compiled without debug info so debugging it is a chore. My questions: Is there some way of globally setting the default ResourceBundle.Control that I might not be aware of? That would solve everything rather elegantly. Is there some other way of handling this kind of thing elegantly, perhaps without tampering with the ResourceBundle classes at all?

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  • Does anyone know how to detect whether a Windows Service is running through Java

    - by GKelly
    There's plenty of information on running Java apps as services, but I need to know how to detect whether a windows service is running or not. Does anyone know how??? At the DOS prompt, I can run: tasklist /svc|findstr "NonRunningService" echo Return code for N onRunningService is %ERRORLEVEL% tasklist /svc|findstr "RunningService" echo Return code for RunningService is %ERRORLEVEL% I get the following: Return code for NonRunningService is 1 Return code for RunningService is 0 In code, I have: int retCode = Runtime.getRuntime.exec("tasklist /svc|findstr \"NonRunningService\"").waitFor(); System.out.println("Return code for NonRunningService is " + retCode); retCode = Runtime.getRuntime.exec("tasklist /svc|findstr \"RunningService\"").waitFor(); System.out.println("Return code for RunningService is " + retCode); I get the following output Return code for NonRunningService is 1 Return code for RunningService is 1 According to the JavaDocs, the waitFor() should block until the process finishes, and give me the exit value of the process. I've also tried using the Process/ProcessBuilder command line calls: //'tasklist /nh /fi "SERVICES eq RunningService"' will return a line for // each running service of the requested type. Process p1 = new ProcessBuilder("tasklist", "/nh", "/fi" "SERVICES eq RunningService").start(); p1.waitFor(); BufferedReader is = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p1.getInputStream())); String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Service - " + line); System.out.println("Running? ", (line==null?"No":"Yes"); gives: Service - Running? No even when I get lines in the output at the command line!

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  • CssClass and default images in ServerContol

    - by Jeff Dege
    I'm writing a ServerControl in ASP.NET 3.5, and I'm exposing CssClass, so the user can manipulate the visual appearance of the control. My problem is that I want to establish reasonable defaults, so that the user doesn't have to configure CSS unless he wants to change the defaults. My specific problem is that my control is emitting html divs, that need to display background images. I want the user to be able to specify a different image in CSS, but I want to display a default background image, and I can't make that work. The entire server control is emitted as a div, with a class name set to the value the user provided in CssClass. The div that needs the background image is enclosed within this outer div, with a class name of its own. I am currently setting the background image in CSS on the page that contains the control: <style type="text/css"> .cssClass .innerDiv { background-image: url("http://...."); } </style> With this the proper image is drawn. But if it's not there, no image is drawn. What I want is for the ServerControl to emit some CSS that will define these image urls, that would be over-ridden by any css that was added by the user, and for that default CSS to include URLs to images embedded in the ServerControl's assembly. And I'm not sure of how to do either. Nor, for that matter, am I sure this is the best approach. Any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET Event delegation between user controls

    - by Ishan
    Give the following control hierarchy on a ASP.NET page: Page HeaderControl       (User Control) TitleControl       (Server Control) TabsControl       (User Control) other controls I'm trying to raise an event (or some notification) in the TitleControl that bubbles to the Page level. Then, I'd like to (optionally) register an event handler at the Page codebehind that will take the EventArgs and modify the TabsControl in the example above. The important thing to note is that this design will allow me to drop these controls into any Page and make the entire system work seamlessly if the event handler is wired up. The solution should not involve a call to FindControl() since that becomes a strong association. If no handler is defined in the containing Page, the event is still raised by TitleControl but is not handled. My basic goal is to use event-based programming so that I can decouple the user controls from each other. The event from TitleControl is only raised in some instances, and this seemed to be (in my head) the preferred approach. However, I can't seem to find a way to cleanly achieve this. Here are my (poor) attempts: Using HttpContext.Current.Items Add the EventArgs to the Items collection on TitleControl and pick it up on the TabsControl. This works but it's fundamentally hard to decipher since the connection between the two controls is not obvious. Using Reflection Instead of passing events, look for a function on the container Page directly within TitleControl as in: Page.GetType().GetMethod("TabControlHandler").Invoke(Page, EventArgs); This will work, but the method name will have to be a constant that all Page instances will have to defined verbatim. I'm sure that I'm over-thinking this and there must be a prettier solution using delegation, but I can't seem to think of it. Any thoughts?

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  • Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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