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  • Array of Arrays - writing to File problem

    - by iFloh
    Hi, and again my array of arrays ... I try to improve my app performance by buffering arrays on file for later reuse. I have an NSMutableArray that contains about 30 NSMutableArrays with NSNumber, NSDate and NSString Objects. I try to write the file using this call: bool result = [myArray writeToFile:[fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]] atomically:NO]; = result = FALSE. The Path method is: + (NSString *) getFullPath:(NSString *)forFileName { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:forFileName]; } and the aDate call returns a shortDateString with ddMMyy. The NSLog NSLog(@"%@", [fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]]); on the path generation returns: /Users/me/Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/User/Applications/86729620-EC1D-4C10-A799-0C638BB27933/Documents/iEts010510.arr FURTHER: It must have something to do with the Array of Arrays, since I also write 3 further simple arrays (containing NSStrings) that all succeed. The Array of Arrays gets generated using the addObject method Any ideas what could cause the trouble?

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  • why does my <br> not work ?

    - by Vince
    I am returning a PHP array back to a JQuery call for appending into a div called "name-data". I want my array to be listed vertically, so I concatenate a br tag in the PHP however, when it gets to the HTML page the br is not being rendered, it just comes out as text. I have tried the various forms of br all without luck. I am new to JQuery - What am I doing wrong ? Many Thanks ! PHP: $result = mysqli_query($con,"SELECT FirstName FROM customer limit 5"); while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($result)) { echo $row['FirstName']."<br />"; } JQuery: $('input#name-submit').on('click',function(){ var name = $('input#name').val(); if($.trim(name) !=''){ $.post('search.php',{name:name}, function(data){ $('div#name-data').text(data); }); } }); HTML Name:<input type="text" id="name"> <input type="submit" id="name-submit" value="grab"> <div id="name-data"> </div>

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  • Pass object or id

    - by Charles
    This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

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  • How can data templates in generic.xaml get applied automatically?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I have a custom control that has a ContentPresenter that will have an arbitrary object set as it content. This object does not have any constraint on its type, so I want this control to display its content based on any data templates defined by application or by data templates defined in Generic.xaml. If in a application I define some data template(without a key because I want it to be applied automatically to objects of that type) and I use the custom control bound to an object of that type, the data template gets applied automatically. But I have some data templates defined for some types in the generic.xaml where I define the custom control style, and these templates are not getting applied automatically. Here is the generic.xaml : If I set an object of type 'PredefinedType' as the content in the contentpresenter, the data template does not get applied. However, If it works if I define the data template in the app.xaml for the application thats using the custom control. Does someone got a clue? I really cant assume that the user of the control will define this data template, so I need some way to tie it up with the custom control.

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  • Process data BEFORE a 301 Redirect?

    - by Jesse
    So, I've been working on a PHP link shortener (I know, just what the world needs). Basically when the page loads, php determines where it needs to go and sends a 301 Header to redirect the browser, like so... Header( "HTTP/1.1 301 Moved Permanently" ); header("Location: http://newsite.com"; Now, I'm trying to add some tracking to my redirects and insert some custom analytics data into a MySQL table before the redirect happen. It works perfectly if I don't specify the a redirect type and just use: header("Location: http://newsite.com"; But, of course as soon as you add in the 301 header, nothing else gets processed. Actually, on the first request, it sends the data to MySQL, but on any subsequent requests there's no communication with the database. I assume it's a browser caching issue, once it's seen the 301 it decides they're no reason to parse anything on future requests. But, does anyone know if there's any way to get around this? I'd really like to keep it as a 301 for SEO purposes (I believe if you don't specify it sends a 404 by default?). I thought about using .htaccess to prepend a file to the page that will do the MySQL work, but with the 301, wouldn't that just get ignored as well? Anyway, I'm not sure if there's any solution other than using a different type of redirect, but I'm ready to give up just yet. So, any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • zend-framework doctrine, and mvc pattern: what should connect data between models and forms?

    - by Skirmantas
    I am learning Zend Framework and Doctrine. I am wondering what is the best practice to connect forms to models and vice versa. I don't know where I should put my code. I have seen in Zendcast video tutorials where author creates methods like mapFormToRecord and mapRecordToForm in form class. Well I guess it is very handy when form is sophisticated and uses many records. Is it a good practice? I somehow believe that form-class should not need to know about data-records. And sometimes we might have model which is used in many forms. So It would be handy to have few functions in that model which would help to prepare data for forms. For example to give an array of id=name pairs so that it might be used in Zend_Form_Element_Select. However I would like to have a consistency. So I don't want to put this code nor in model nor in form because on different situations I act different. So only controller is what is left to deal it. However this will result in code duplication if one form will be used more than in one controller. Moreover controller gets bloated if form is not from the simple ones. Or maybe there is a consistent pattern in those data conversions between forms and models? I think that there is. At least in my simple cases. So maybe a separate class could be a solution? Where should I put such class and how should I name it? Another question: Zend_Form has validators and filter. Doctrine has validators and filters too. Which do we use and when? What is your way of dealing the connections between forms and models? (Sorry if it was hard for you to read my text. I don't have enough knowledge of English language to express myself freely)

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  • CodeModel help needed for right-hand singleton.getinstance() assignment.

    - by antarti
    I've been able to generate 99% of what I need with the CodeModel API, but I am stumped here... Using the various "directXX" methods does not add import statements to the generated code, and I can work without the "directXXX" type of methods except for one place in a generated class. Suppose I desire a generated method like: /** * Copies data from this Value-Obj instance, to the returned PERSON instance. * * @return PERSON * */ public PERSON mapVOToPERSON() throws MappingException { Mapper mapper = (com.blah.util.MapperSingleton.getMapperInstance()); return mapper.map(this, PERSON.class); } You can see the right hand of the Mapper assignment in parens. Emitting the entire package+class was the only way I could find to just declare "SomeSingleton.someMethod()" on the right hand side and have the generated code compile. Without the MapperSingleton being added to the object model, there is no import generated... Questions: 1) Is there a way to force an import to be generated? 2) How to declare an expression that gives me the right side of the Mapper assignment within the object model (so that an import of MapperSingleton gets generated. Any help appreciated...

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  • Jquery, how to escape quotes

    - by Sandro Antonucci
    I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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  • pthread_create followed by pthread_detach still results in possibly lost error in Valgrind.

    - by alesplin
    I'm having a problem with Valgrind telling me I have some memory possible lost: ==23205== 544 bytes in 2 blocks are possibly lost in loss record 156 of 265 ==23205== at 0x6022879: calloc (in /usr/lib/valgrind/vgpreload_memcheck-amd64-linux.so) ==23205== by 0x540E209: allocate_dtv (in /lib/ld-2.12.1.so) ==23205== by 0x540E91D: _dl_allocate_tls (in /lib/ld-2.12.1.so) ==23205== by 0x623068D: pthread_create@@GLIBC_2.2.5 (in /lib/libpthread-2.12.1.so) ==23205== by 0x758D66: MTPCreateThreadPool (MTP.c:290) ==23205== by 0x405787: main (MServer.c:317) The code that creates these threads (MTPCreateThreadPool) basically gets an index into a block of waiting pthread_t slots, and creates a thread with that. TI becomes a pointer to a struct that has a thread index and a pthread_t. (simplified/sanitized): for (tindex = 0; tindex < NumThreads; tindex++) { int rc; TI = &TP->ThreadInfo[tindex]; TI->ThreadID = tindex; rc = pthread_create(&TI->ThreadHandle,NULL,MTPHandleRequestsLoop,TI); /* check for non-success that I've omitted */ pthread_detach(&TI->ThreadHandle); } Then we have a function MTPDestroyThreadPool that loops through all the threads we created and cancels them (since the MTPHandleRequestsLoop doesn't exit). for (tindex = 0; tindex < NumThreads; tindex++) { pthread_cancel(TP->ThreadInfo[tindex].ThreadHandle); } I've read elsewhere (including other questions here on SO) that detaching a thread explicitly would prevent this possibly lost error, but it clearly isn't. Any thoughts?

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  • JQuery: Combine multiple pages into one

    - by k_wave
    I am developing an application by using phonegap and jQuery Mobile. Phonegap recommends a single document structure. As 5 divs or more in a document are pretty unclear, I'm trying to split up my pages (the div's) into multiple documents. As soon as phonegap loads the app, I want to insert these documents into the index.html. function loadPage(external_document) { var docname=external_document+".html"; $.get(docname, function(data) { console.log(docname+" loading"); $("body").append($(data).find("body")); $("head").append($(data).find("head")); console.log(docname+" loaded"); }); } document.addEventListener("deviceready", function(){ loadPage("DialogCredentials"); }, false); DialogCredentials.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/DialogCredentials.js"></script> </head> <body> <div data-role="page" id="dlg_credentials"> <div data-role="header"><h1>Login</h1></div> <div data-role="content"> ... </div> </div><!-- /page --> </body> </html> As soon as the loadPage gets executed there should be a <div id="dlg_credentials"… and the corresponding javascript tag in the dom of my main document. But it isn't. There are no errors shown in the web inspector. So what am I doing wrong here?

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  • DefaultStyledDocument.styleChanged(Style style) may not run in a timely manner?

    - by Paul Reiners
    I'm experiencing an intermittent problem with a class that extends javax.swing.text.DefaultStyledDocument. This document is being sent to a printer. Most of the time the formatting of the document looks correct, but once in a while it doesn't. It looks like some of the changes in the formatting have not been applied. I took a look at the DefaultStyledDocument.styleChanged(Style style) code: /** * Called when any of this document's styles have changed. * Subclasses may wish to be intelligent about what gets damaged. * * @param style The Style that has changed. */ protected void styleChanged(Style style) { // Only propagate change updated if have content if (getLength() != 0) { // lazily create a ChangeUpdateRunnable if (updateRunnable == null) { updateRunnable = new ChangeUpdateRunnable(); } // We may get a whole batch of these at once, so only // queue the runnable if it is not already pending synchronized(updateRunnable) { if (!updateRunnable.isPending) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(updateRunnable); updateRunnable.isPending = true; } } } } /** * When run this creates a change event for the complete document * and fires it. */ class ChangeUpdateRunnable implements Runnable { boolean isPending = false; public void run() { synchronized(this) { isPending = false; } try { writeLock(); DefaultDocumentEvent dde = new DefaultDocumentEvent(0, getLength(), DocumentEvent.EventType.CHANGE); dde.end(); fireChangedUpdate(dde); } finally { writeUnlock(); } } } Does the fact that SwingUtilities.invokeLater(updateRunnable) is called, rather than invokeAndWait(updateRunnable), mean that I can't count on my formatting changes appearing in the document before it is rendered? If that is the case, is there a way to ensure that I don't proceed with rendering until the updates have occurred?

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  • How do i find if an object is before or after a waypoint?

    - by BoMann Andersen
    Im working on a racing game for a school project. Using Visual studio 10 pro, and Irrlicht. Sorry for bad grammar ., and its my first question so not sure if its done right. How i want it to work is that i make waypoints at different points on the track, and then i run my waypoint check to see if a car is past its next waypoint (the next it "needs" to go past), if yes then it updates the next waypoint, else nothing. The way i hope this will work is, i make a vector from n to n+1, then find the vector that is perpendicular to the first vector at n. Then i see if the object is in front or behind that vector. I found a Gamedev.net forumpost that helped me make this function: void Engine::checkWaypoint(Vehicle* vehicle) { btVector3 vector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]; // n btVector3 nextVector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint + 1]; // n+1 vector = nextVector - vector; // First vector btVector3 pos = btVector3(vehicle->position.X,vehicle->position.Y,vehicle->position.Z); float product = vector.dot(pos - waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]); // positiv = before, negative = behind if(product < 0) vehicle->nextWaypoint += 1; } Current bugs with this is: Updates the nextwaypoint more then ones without going past a new point. When it gets to the end and resets, it stops triggering on the first waypoints. So my questions: Is this an good way to do this? Did i do it right?

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  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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  • sendto is returning ENOBUF

    - by user338159
    Hi, I am currently running an old system on Tru64 which involves lots of UDP sockets using the sendto() function. The sockets are used in our code to send messages to/from various processes and then eventually on to a thick client app that is connected remotely. Occasionally the socket to the thick client gets stuck, this can cause some of these messages to get built up. My question is how can I determine the current buffer size, and how do I determine the maximum message buffer. The code below gives a snippet of how I set up the port and use the sendto function. /* need to adjust the maximum size we can send on this / / as it needs to be able to cope with the biggest / / messages we send / lenlen = sizeof(len) ; / allow double for when the system is under load */ len = 2 * C_MAX_MESSAGE_DATA_SIZE ; lpos_setsockopt(FATAL, msg_socket,SOL_SOCKET, SO_SNDBUF, &len, lenlen, &error_no) ; result = sendto( msg_socket, (char *)message, (int)message_len, flags, dest_addr, addrlen); Note. We have ported this application to Linux and the problem does not seem to appear there. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Regards

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  • Subversion unable to merge changes when using Dreamweaver

    - by neilc
    I've got a project running and we're using SVN as the version control. There are 3 devs on it. Dev1 = OSX + Textmate Dev2 = Windows 7 + Dreamweaver (plus tortoise svn) Dev3 = OSX + Coda Case 1 (expected): Dev1 and dev3 work on a file called signup.php. They work on different parts of the file. Dev1 commits it and dev3 updates their copy. signup.php is merged as expected. All good. Case 2 (not expected): Dev1 and dev2 work on a file called signup.php. They work on different parts of the file. Dev1 commits it and dev2 updates their copy. signup.php is always in conflict even though different parts of the file are worked on. This is not the expected behaviour experienced by dev1 and dev3. This works boths ways and each time dev1 updates dev2's changes he gets conflicts too. But never with dev3. Could this be down the way Dreamweaver is saving files ? Perhaps character encoding. We are all working in UTF8. These constant and unnecessary conflicts are becoming a massive distraction. Help !

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  • objective C underscore property vs self

    - by user1216838
    I'm was playing around with the standard sample split view that gets created when you select a split view application in Xcode, and after adding a few fields i needed to add a few fields to display them in the detail view. and something interesting happend in the original sample, the master view sets a "detailItem" property in the detail view and the detail view displays it. - (void)setDetailItem:(id) newDetailItem { if (_detailItem != newDetailItem) { _detailItem = newDetailItem; // Update the view. [self configureView]; } i understand what that does and all, so while i was playing around with it. i thought it would be the same if instead of _detailItem i used self.detailItem, since it's a property of the class. however, when i used self.detailItem != newDetailItem i actually got stuck in a loop where this method is constantly called and i cant do anything else in the simulator. my question is, whats the actual difference between the underscore variables(ivar?) and the properties? i read some posts here it seems to be just some objective C convention, but it actually made some difference.

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  • AsyncTask never finishes when other tasks are running

    - by rebeccamaher
    In my app, I show a menu screen immediately to the user and then use an AsyncTask to load some data from disk. Loading takes about 3 seconds if that's all the app had to do. When the user hits a menu option and the data hasn't loaded yet, a "Please wait, loading" screen appears. I have two problems: I recently added ads to my app and have found this is making my app hang sometimes because the AsyncTask never finishes loading. What seems to be happening is that the ad banner (I'm using admob and this happens when adsense ads are shown which admob do occasionally) is using resources by playing a simple animation and the AsyncTask never gets a chance to finish. I want to play a simple looping animation (e.g. making a view rotate) on my menu screen and this makes the AsyncTask take about 5 times longer to finish which renders the background loading pointless. How can I avoid situations where my background data never finishes loading or has such a low priority it takes a long time? I can't seem to find a way to increase the priority of an AsyncTask.

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  • Javascript not reading value from hidden textBox - JQuery C#

    - by Paul van Valkenburgh
    I'm a non-specialist with JavaScript / JQuery and I'm having trouble figuring out why my script doesn't work. When my C# page loads, I have a hidden textBox txtHiddenKeywordArray which gets dynamically filled with comma separated values like... horse, buggy, track I'm trying to use the highlight functionality in jquery.highlight-3.js where I have a label text field that will contain and highlight the words in the keywords list. I'm using the script <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var myString = document.getElementById('<%=txtHiddenKeywordArray.ClientID%>').val() myArray = myString.split(" "); $(document).ready(function () { for (i = 0; i < myArray.length; i++) $("p").highlight(myArray[i]) }); </script> Here is the textBox declaration : <asp:TextBox ID="txtHiddenKeywordArray" ClientIDMode="Static" runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:TextBox> It worked great when I hard coded the values of var myString. I've tried researching it and keep seeing the same example of the way I have it done. The page does use a MasterPage. Could this affect it? Any idea how I can get the script to see the values from the textbox? Do I need a RegisterStartUpScript or something? Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • Hibernate many-to-one - bad usage?

    - by DaveA
    Just trying out Hibernate (with Annotations) and I'm having problems with my mappings. I have two entity classes, AudioCD and Artist. @Entity public class AudioCD implements CatalogItem { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private int id; private String title; @ManyToOne(cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }, optional = false) private Artist artist; .... } @Entity @Table(uniqueConstraints = { @UniqueConstraint(columnNames = { "name" }) }) public class Artist { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private int id; @Column(nullable = false) private String name; ..... } I get AudioCD objects from an external source. When I try to persist the AudioCD the Artist gets persisted as well, just like I want to happen. If I try persisting another different CD, but Artist already exists I get errors due to constraint violations. I want Hibernate to recognise that the Artist already exists and shouldn't be inserted again. Can this be done via annotations? Or do I have to manage the persistence of the AudioCD and Artist seperately?

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  • Sql Alchemy Duplicated Commit

    - by PythonWolf
    Good Morning i'm currently facing a problem in my Cherrypy application. Im my own custom session module , anyway when performing session.add() The exact same object gets updated Twice. cherrypy.request.SessionManager.user_data = user try: db_session.add(cherrypy.request.SessionManager) db_session.commit() Will Return 2011-06-21 09:16:48,991 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL BEGIN (implicit) 2011-06-21 09:16:49,015 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL SELECT ..... FROM "Clients_Users" WHERE "Clients_Users".username = %(username_1)s AND "Clients_Users".password = %(password_1)s LIMIT 1 OFFSET 0 2011-06-21 09:16:49,015 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'password_1': '123', 'username_1': u'1'} 2011-06-21 09:16:49,047 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL UPDATE "SYS_Sessions" SET user_data=%(user_data)s WHERE "SYS_Sessions".id = %(SYS_Sessions_id)s 2011-06-21 09:16:49,067 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'SYS_Sessions_id': 92L, 'user_data': } 2011-06-21 09:16:49,071 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL COMMIT 2011-06-21 09:16:49,093 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL BEGIN (implicit) 2011-06-21 09:16:49,095 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL UPDATE "SYS_Sessions" SET user_data=%(user_data)s WHERE "SYS_Sessions".id = %(SYS_Sessions_id)s 2011-06-21 09:16:49,095 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'SYS_Sessions_id': 92L, 'user_data': } 2011-06-21 09:16:49,108 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL COMMIT As Anyone seen this before ? P.S This doesn't happen in the rest of the modules i have made.

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  • Android - Turn off display without triggering sleep/lock screen - Turn on with Touchscreen

    - by NebulaSleuth
    I have been trying to find a way to turn off the display, and wake up from the user touching the touch screen. The device is in an embedded environment where the device is a tablet and the user does not have access to anything except the touch screen (no buttons at all). It is connected to power so the battery won't be a problem, but when I detect no activity I want to turn off the screen so it isn't staring them in the face all day and doesn't reduce the life the LCD backlight. I maintain a wakelock permanently and decide when to sleep myself. The problem is that when I turn off the screen using : WindowManager.LayoutParams params = getWindow().getAttributes(); params.screenBrightness = 0; getWindow().setAttributes(params); The activity gets paused and stopped. And the unit does not respond to a touch to wake it up. You need to press the power button. At that point the "slide to unlock" shows up. I want to turn off the display, and then stay running so I can detect a touch screen event and turn the display back on. I also tried turning the display to a brightness of 0.1, which works on some devices, but the device I need it to work on, only "dims" the display. I also tried this: // First Remove my FULL wakelock //then aquire a partial wake lock (which should turn off the display) PowerManager.WakeLock wl = manager.newWakeLock(PowerManager.PARTIAL_WAKE_LOCK, "Your Tag"); wl.acquire(); however this method does not turn off the display.

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  • Split UInt32 (audio frame) into two SInt16s (left and right)?

    - by morgancodes
    Total noob to anything lower-level than Java, diving into iPhone audio, and realing from all of the casting/pointers/raw memory access. I'm working with some example code wich reads a WAV file from disc and returns stereo samples as single UInt32 values. If I understand correctly, this is just a convenient way to return the 32 bits of memory required to create two 16 bit samples. Eventually this data gets written to a buffer, and an audio unit picks it up down the road. Even though the data is written in UInt32-sized chunks, it eventually is interpreted as pairs of 16-bit samples. What I need help with is splitting these UInt32 frames into left and right samples. I'm assuming I'll want to convert each UInt32 into an SInt16, since an audio sample is a signed value. It seems to me that for efficiency's sake, I ought to be able to simply point to the same blocks in memory, and avoid any copying. So, in pseudo-code, it would be something like this: UInt32 myStereoFrame = getFramefromFilePlayer; SInt16* leftChannel = getFirst16Bits(myStereoFrame); SInt16* rightChannel = getSecond16Bits(myStereoFrame); Can anyone help me turn my pseudo into real code?

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  • Subquery with multiple results combined into a single field?

    - by Todd
    Assume I have these tables, from which i need to display search results in a browser: Table: Containers id | name 1 Big Box 2 Grocery Bag 3 Envelope 4 Zip Lock Table: Sale id | date | containerid 1 20100101 1 2 20100102 2 3 20091201 3 4 20091115 4 Table: Items id | name | saleid 1 Barbie Doll 1 2 Coin 3 3 Pop-Top 4 4 Barbie Doll 2 5 Coin 4 I need output that looks like this: itemid itemname saleids saledates containerids containertypes 1 Barbie Doll 1,2 20100101,20100102 1,2 Big Box, Grocery Bag 2 Coin 3,4 20091201,20091115 3,4 Envelope, Zip Lock 3 Pop-Top 4 20091115 4 Zip Lock The important part is that each item type only gets one record/row in the return on the screen. I accomplished this in the past by returning multiple rows of the same item and using a scripting language to limit the output. However, this makes the ui overly complicated and loopy. So, I'm hoping I can get the database to spit out only as many records as there are rows to display. This example may be a bit extreme because of the 2 joins needed to get to the container from the item (through the sale table). I'd be happy for just an example query that outputs this: itemid itemname saleids saledates 1 Barbie Doll 1,2 20100101,20100102 2 Coin 3,4 20091201,20091115 3 Pop-Top 4 20091115 I can only return a single result in a subquery, so I'm not sure how to do this.

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  • How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

    - by Alex Reisner
    I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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  • Named Range Breaks Code

    - by Daniel
    I have one workbook with several sheets. I populate the listboxes (pulling static data from cells) on the 2nd sheet, click a button and it runs fine. When I populate the listboxes with a named range, the listbox populates the way I want, but I get an error because the code thinks that I didn't select anything in the listbox, even though I did. So it passes through "" instead of "title". Is this a common issue? The named range isn't a problem because it passes through the data to the listbox and I know it's selecting data because as soon as the listbox loses focus, it spits out the contents of the cell into cell A1. What's even stranger is that I have the contents of the listbox set to Msg1. So A1 gets populated with Msg1 (what I actually selected in the listbox). But when I try and use Msg1 in the code, it tells me that Msg1 is "". Again, this only happens when I use the dynamic named range, not with static data in cells K1:K9. Private Function strEndSQL1 As String Dim strSQL As String strSQL = "" 'Create SQL statement strSQL = "FROM (SELECT * FROM dbo.Filter WHERE ID = " & TextBox1.Text & " And Source IN (" & Msg1 & ")) a FULL OUTER JOIN " strSQL = strSQL & "(SELECT * FROM dbo.Filters WHERE ID = " & TextBox2.Text & " And Source IN (" & Msg1 & ")) b " strSQL = strSQL & "ON a.Group = b.Group strEndSQL = strSQL End Function

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