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  • Named Range Breaks Code

    - by Daniel
    I have one workbook with several sheets. I populate the listboxes (pulling static data from cells) on the 2nd sheet, click a button and it runs fine. When I populate the listboxes with a named range, the listbox populates the way I want, but I get an error because the code thinks that I didn't select anything in the listbox, even though I did. So it passes through "" instead of "title". Is this a common issue? The named range isn't a problem because it passes through the data to the listbox and I know it's selecting data because as soon as the listbox loses focus, it spits out the contents of the cell into cell A1. What's even stranger is that I have the contents of the listbox set to Msg1. So A1 gets populated with Msg1 (what I actually selected in the listbox). But when I try and use Msg1 in the code, it tells me that Msg1 is "". Again, this only happens when I use the dynamic named range, not with static data in cells K1:K9. Private Function strEndSQL1 As String Dim strSQL As String strSQL = "" 'Create SQL statement strSQL = "FROM (SELECT * FROM dbo.Filter WHERE ID = " & TextBox1.Text & " And Source IN (" & Msg1 & ")) a FULL OUTER JOIN " strSQL = strSQL & "(SELECT * FROM dbo.Filters WHERE ID = " & TextBox2.Text & " And Source IN (" & Msg1 & ")) b " strSQL = strSQL & "ON a.Group = b.Group strEndSQL = strSQL End Function

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  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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  • How can I use a value of JSP in Javascript code?

    - by novellino
    Hello, I have a list of elements, each of them appeared in my page through jsp. So I have this: <div id="title"><%= list.get(ind).getTitle() %></div> When I display the elements, as this tag is in for loop, I get everything right. Now I what to place a button for deleting each of this elements. What I have done is: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="deleteNewsFunction();" id="submit_btn"/> In the deleteNewsFunction() I just want to print the data. <script> function deleteNewsFunction(){ var item = $('#title').val(); alert(item); } </script> The problem is that the title var gets always the first item even if I am clicking on the button of the second item. I was thinking that maybe a solution is to add the "list.get(ind).getTitle()" as a parameter in the function like deleteNewsFunction(<%=list.get(ind).getTitle()%) but then it did not work at all. Does anyone know how to help me? Thanks a lot!

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  • Making a visual bar timer for iPhone

    - by Ohmnastrum
    I've looked up all results for progress bars and changing the width of an image but it only refers to scaling, and the progress bars aren't customizable so that they fit other functions or design schemes... unless I missed that part. I'm trying to make a bar timer that crops off of the right over a period of time. I tried using an NStimer so that it would subtract from a value each time its function is called. the Timerbar function gets called as a result of another timer invalidating and it works. What doesn't work is that the width isn't changing just the position. further more I keep getting values like Inf and 0 for power and pwrBarWidth I was sure that the changes would occur when Mult was plugged into the equation. it seems like casting mult as an int is causing problems but i'm not sure exactly how. int pwrBarMaxWidth = 137; int pwrBarWidth 0; int limit = 1; float mult; float power = 0; -(void) Timerbar:(NSTimer *)barTimer { if(!waitForPlayer) { [barTimer invalidate]; } if(mult > 0.0) { mult -= 0.001 * [colorChoices count]; if(mult < 0.0) { mult = 0.0; } } power = (mult * 10) / pwrBarMaxWidth; pwrBarWidth = (int)power % limit; // causes the bar to repeat after it reaches a certain point //At this point however the variable Power is always "inf" and PwrBarWidth is always 0. [powerBar setBounds:CGRectMake(powerBar.frame.origin.x, powerBar.frame.origin.y,pwrBarWidth,20)]; //supposed to change the crop of the bar } Any reason why I'm getting inf as a value for power, 0 as a value for pwrBarWidth, and the bar itself isn't cropping? if this question is a bit vague i'll provide more information as needed.

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  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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  • PHP: Opening/closing tags & performance?

    - by Tom
    Hi, This may be a silly question, but as someone relatively new to PHP, I'm wondering if there are any performance-related issues to frequently opening and closing PHP tags in HTML template code, and if so, what might be best practices in terms of working with php tags? My question is not about the importance/correctness of closing tags, or about which type of code is more readable than another, but rather about how the document gets parsed/executed and what impact it might have on performance. To illustrate, consider the following two extremes: Mixing PHP and HTML tags: <?php echo '<tr> <td>'.$variable1.'</td> <td>'.$variable2.'</td> <td>'.$variable3.'</td> <td>'.$variable4.'</td> <td>'.$variable5.'</td> </tr>' ?> // PHP tag opened once Separating PHP and HTML tags: <tr> <td><?php echo $variable1 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable2 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable3 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable4 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable5 ?></td> </tr> // PHP tag opened five times Would be interested in hearing some views on this, even if it's just to hear that it makes no difference. Thanks.

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  • At what point is it worth using a database?

    - by radix07
    I have a question relating to databases and at what point is worth diving into one. I am primarily an embedded engineer, but I am writing an application using QT to interface with our controller. We are at an odd point where we have enough data that it would be feasible to implement a database (around 700+ items and growing) to manage everything, but I am not sure it is worth the time right now to deal with. I have no problems implementing the GUI with files generated from excel and parsed in, but it gets tedious and hard to track even with VBA scripts. I have been playing around with converting our data into something more manageable for the application side with Microsoft Access and that seems to be working well. If that works out I am only a step (or several) away from using an SQL database and using the QT library to access and modify it. I don't have much experience managing data at this level and am curious what may be the best way to approach this. So what are some of the real benefits of using a database if any in this case? I realize much of this can be very application specific, but some general ideas and suggestions on how to straddle the embedded/application programming line would be helpful. Thanks

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  • HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

    - by caerphilly
    I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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  • How can one enforce calling a base class function after derived class constructor?

    - by Mike Elkins
    I'm looking for a clean C++ idiom for the following situation: class SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeLibraryClass() { /* start initialization */ } void addFoo() { /* we are a collection of foos */ } void funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() { /* Making sure this is called is the issue */ } }; class SomeUserClass : public SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeUserClass() { addFoo(); addFoo(); addFoo(); // SomeUserClass has three foos. } }; class SomeUserDerrivedClass : public SomeUserClass { public: SomeUserDerrivedClass() { addFoo(); // This one has four foos. } }; So, what I really want is for SomeLibraryClass to enforce the calling of funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos at the end of the construction process. The user can't put it at the end of SomeUserClass::SomeUserClass(), that would mess up SomeUserDerrivedClass. If he puts it at the end of SomeUserDerrivedClass, then it never gets called for SomeUserClass. To further clarify what I need, imagine that /* start initialization */ acquires a lock, and funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() releases a lock. The compiler knows when all the initializations for an object are done, but can I get at that information by some nice trick?

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  • Applying drop shadows to divs

    - by CJD
    Hi everyone, I need a bit of help applying a drop shadow image to a range of DIV elements. The elements in question already have a background image so I am wrapping another DIV around them. Things get complicated further because I'm also using the 960gs CSS framework. This is my current HTML for a content box type display: <div class="grid_12 boxout-shadow-920"> <div class="boxout"> <p>planetCJD.co.uk is the personal site and blog of CJD. The site is still a work-in-progress but please do have a look around and let me know what you think! </p> </div> </div> Boxout CSS: .boxout { background:url("../images/overlay.png") repeat-x scroll 0 0 #EEEEEE; -moz-border-radius:4px 4px 4px 4px; border:1px solid #DDDDDD; margin-bottom:15px; padding:5px; } boxout-shadow-920 CSS: .boxout-shadow-920 { background:url("../images/box-shadow-920.png") no-repeat scroll 50% 101% transparent; } Now this works to a degree. The boxshadow image shows at the bottom of the content box which is what I would like. However as I'm using a fixed percentage of 101%, if the content box height is too small, not much of the drop shadow image gets shown, and if the content box is too big, whitespace starts to appear between the box and the shadow image. So anyway, what I'm looking for is a cross-browser CSS based solution for doing this properly. I'm sure there is an easy answer to this - any help is appreciated!

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  • Visual Studio internal project references not always working

    - by Chris
    I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

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  • How do i close a socket after a timeout in node.js?

    - by rramsden
    I'm trying to close a socket after a connection times out after 1000ms. I am able to set a timeout that gets triggered after a 1000ms but I can't seem to destroy the socket... any ideas? var connection = http.createClient(80, 'localhost'); var request = connection.request('GET', '/somefile.xml', {'host':'localhost'}); var start = new Date().getTime(); request.socket.setTimeout(1000); request.socket.addListener("timeout", function() { request.socket.destroy(); sys.puts("socket timeout connection closed"); }); request.addListener("response", function(response) { var responseBody = []; response.setEncoding("utf8"); response.addListener("data", function(chunk) { sys.puts(chunk); responseBody.push(chunk); }); response.addListener("end", function() { }); }); request.end(); returns socket timeout connection closed node.js:29 if (!x) throw new Error(msg || "assertion error"); ^ Error: assertion error at node.js:29:17 at Timer.callback (net:152:20) at node.js:204:9

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  • threading in Python taking up too much CPU

    - by KevinShaffer
    I wrote a chat program and have a GUI running using Tkinter, and to go and check when new messages have arrived, I create a new thread so Tkinter keeps doing its thing without locking up while the new thread goes and grabs what I need and updates the Tkinter window. This however becomes a huge CPU hog, and my guess is that it has to do somehow with the fact that the Thread is started and never really released when the function is done. Here's the relevant code (it's ugly and not optimized at the moment, but it gets the job done, and itself does not use too much processing power, as when I run it not threaded, it doesn't take up much CPU but it locks up Tkinter) Note: This is inside of a class, hence the extra tab. def interim(self): threading.Thread(target=self.readLog).start() self.after(5000,self.interim) def readLog(self): print 'reading' try: length = len(str(self.readNumber)) f = open('chatlog'+str(myport),'r') temp = f.readline().replace('\n','') while (temp[:length] != str(self.readNumber)) or temp[0] == '<': temp = f.readline().replace('\n','') while temp: if temp[0] != '<': self.updateChat(temp[length:]) self.readNumber +=1 else: self.updateChat(temp) temp = f.readline().replace('\n','') f.close() Is there a way to better manage the threading so I don't consume 100% of the CPU very quickly?

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  • Get parent attribute within new child form?

    - by dannymcc
    I have a simple Rails 3 application and I am trying to create a new record that belongs to it's owner. It's working by passing the id to a hidden field in the new form of the child record. This works well and once the new child form submitted it correctly gets associated in the child/parent relationship. What I am trying to do, is lookup values form the parent within the new child form. The problem is that the child relationship is not yet created. Is there anyway I can use a .where lookup in the view? Or, is there a better way of doing this? At the moment I am passing the animal_id though to the new Claim form and it's inserted into a hidden field labelled animal_id. What I am trying to do: <%= @animal.where(:animal_id => params[:animal_id]).id %> The above would ideally get the animal ID from the soon-to-be-associated animal. Is there any sort of before_filter or anything that could take the passed params from the URL and temporarily create the relationship just for the new form view and then permanently create the relationship once the form is submitted? I've tried adding the following to my Claims controller and then called @animal.AnimalName in the view but I get NoMethodError: before_filter :find_animal protected def find_animal if params[:animal_id] Animal.find(params[:animal_id]) end end The URL of the new claim is correctly showing the animal ID so I'm not sure why it's not finding it: http://localhost:3000/claims/new?animal_id=1 The model relations are as follows: animal has_many claims animal has_one exclusion claim has_one animal exception has_one animal

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  • Windows Azure Worldwide availability

    - by Insomniac
    Hi, I've been reviewing Windows Azure platform for some time, and can't find answer to one very important question. If I deploy my application within a cloud, how it will be reached from different places worldwide? For example if I have a web application with a database and want it to be accessible to users in UK, US, China and etc. Can I be sure that any user in the world will get almost the same request processing time? I think of it this way. 1. User sends request (navigates in browser to my web site) 2. This request gets in a cloud in a nearest location (closest to user MS Data Center?) 3. It is processed by an instance of my web application (in nearest location, with request to my centralized DB which can be far away but SQL request goes via MS internal network, which I believe should be very fast). 4. Response sent to user. Please let me know if I'm wrong. Thanks.

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  • What's the *right* way to handle a POST in FP?

    - by Malvolio
    I'm just getting started with FP and I'm using Scala, which may not be the best way, since I can always fall back to an imperative style if the going gets tough. I'd just rather not. I've got a very specific question that points to a broader lacuna in my understanding of FP. When a web application is processing a GET request, the user wants information that already exists on the web-site. The application only has to process and format the data in some way. The FB way is clear. When a web application is processing a POST request, the user wants change the information held on the site. True, the information is not typically held in application variables, it's in a database or a flat-file, but still, I get the feeling I'm not grokking FP properly. Is there a pattern for handling updates to static data in an FP language? My vague picture of this is that the application is handed the request and the then-current site state. The application does its thing and returns the new site-state. If the current site-state hasn't changed since the application started, the new state becomes the current state and the reply is sent back to the browser (this is my dim image of Clojure's style); if the current state has been changed (by another thread, well, something else happens ...

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  • What's a good way to write batch scripts in C#?

    - by Scott Bilas
    I would like to write simple scripts in C#. Stuff I would normally use .bat or 4NT .btm files for. Copying files, parsing text, asking user input, and so on. Fairly simple but doing this stuff right in a batch file is really hard (no exceptions for example). I'm familiar with command line "scripting" wrappers like AxScript so that gets me part of the way there. What I'm missing is the easy file-manipulation framework. I want to be able to do cd(".."), copy(srcFile, destFile) type functionality. Tools I have tried: NANT, which we use in our build process. Not a good scripting tool. Insanely verbose XML syntax and to add a simple function you must write an extension assembly. Can't do it inline. PowerShell. Looks great, but I just haven't been able to switch over to this as my primary shell. Too many differences from 4NT. Whatever I do needs to run from an ordinary command prompt and not require a special shell to run it through. Can PowerShell be used as a script executor? Perl/Python/Ruby. Really hate learning an entirely new language and framework just to do batch file operations. Haven't been able to dedicate the time I need to do this. Plus, we're a 99% .NET shop for our toolchain and I really want to leverage our existing experience and codebase. Are there frameworks out there that are trying to solve this problem of "make a batch file in C#" that you have used? I want the power of C#/.NET with the immediate-mode type functionality of a typical cmd.exe shell language. Am I alone in wanting something like this?

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  • jQuery selectable with a single element deselected by clicking

    - by BerggreenDK
    I would like to be able to deselect a selected item by clicking or using lasso, just like in Photoshop where I keep another key down to "deselect" parts of an existing selection. Is this possible? As I understand "jQuery UI selectable". There is only "single click" with or without CTRL to add multiple and then the quick lasso. I am trying to see how it would be possible to deselect, one or two elements of a whole selection by clicking them off again. Eg, you drag the lasso and get 30 elements but finds that 1 does not need to be part of this selection. You click it and deselects it. So something that reacts to the existing selection and removes the choosen element. Or with the lasso, you make a lasso selection. Gets 30 elements. Then you draw a new lasso, this time starting on an already selected element, now it default deselects and so does the rest of the group marked. I believe this should be customizable behaviour for the jQueryUI if anything. But is the "single deselect" possible with a simple jQuery hack or will it demand a lot of code?

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  • jQuery innerHTML does not work properly (!)

    - by Kayes
    I was trying to build an <a> tag and set it in a <td> of a table. The string is built perfectly but when I set this as the innerHTML using jQuery, the string gets broken. I can't figure out why this is happening? Any clues? Here's the string I want to set in the <td>: <a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65', '498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1')'>Edit</a> But here is how it looks after setting as innerHTML: <A onclick="return EditIssueItemBatch(" ?498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1?)? 1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65?,>Edit</A> And the following is my code-snippet.. var tr = $("#itemIssueBatchListTable > tbody:last").children()[data.Index + 1]; ... ... var strBuff = []; strBuff.push("<a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.ItemCode_FK); strBuff.push("', '"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.StockDetCode_FK); strBuff.push("')'>Edit</a>"); tr.cells[9].innerHTML = strBuff.join(""); ... ...

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  • How can I pivot these key+values rows into a table of complete entries?

    - by CodexArcanum
    Maybe I demand too much from SQL but I feel like this should be possible. I start with a list of key-value pairs, like this: '0:First, 1:Second, 2:Third, 3:Fourth' etc. I can split this up pretty easily with a two-step parse that gets me a table like: EntryNumber PairNumber Item 0 0 0 1 0 First 2 1 1 3 1 Second etc. Now, in the simple case of splitting the pairs into a pair of columns, it's fairly easy. I'm interested in the more advanced case where I might have multiple values per entry, like: '0:First:Fishing, 1:Second:Camping, 2:Third:Hiking' and such. In that generic case, I'd like to find a way to take my 3-column result table and somehow pivot it to have one row per entry and one column per value-part. So I want to turn this: EntryNumber PairNumber Item 0 0 0 1 0 First 2 0 Fishing 3 1 1 4 1 Second 5 1 Camping Into this: Entry [1] [2] [3] 0 0 First Fishing 1 1 Second Camping Is that just too much for SQL to handle, or is there a way? Pivots (even tricky dynamic pivots) seem like an answer, but I can't figure how to get that to work.

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  • CMD For Loop does not hold set /a value

    - by Bob Hope
    Didn't know how to explain this well, so here is the code @echo off set test=0 for /f %%a in (textfile.txt) do ( rem loops five times(5 lines in textfile.txt) set /a test=test+1 rem Adds 1 to Test echo %%a rem Echo's correct line in file echo %test% rem Echo's whatever X was before the loop ) echo %test% rem Displays the correct value of X pause this is just an example of where I am finding the problem, txtfile.txt has 5 lines, so the for loop goes 5 times, each time, test gets +1 to it, and the /a displays the correct value of X, but the last echo on the for loop displays 0, which is what test is set to before the loop. The value of test is not changing until the loop is finished... is there any way to fix this? Here is what I want to accomplish, as there may be an easier way: I want to run a for loop that findstr's all rtf's in a series of sub folders, and copies them all to a all directory with a new name, 1.rtf,2.rtf,3.rtf, etc. The reason I need to rename them on the transfer is they all have the same name.

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  • Computer Science taxonomy

    - by Bakhtiyor
    I am developing web application where users have collection of tags. I need to create a suggestion list for users based on the similarity of their tags. For example, when a user logs in to the system, system gets his tags and search these tags in the DB of users and showing users who have similar tags. For instance if User 1 has following tags [Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP] and User 2 has [Windows, IIS, PHP, MySQL] it says that User 2 matchs User 1 with a weight of 50%, because he has 2 similar tags(PHP and MySQL). But imagine the situation where User 1 has [ASP, IIS, MS Access] and User 2 has [PHP, Apache, MySQL]. In this situation my system doesn't suggest User 2 as a "friend" to User 1 or vice versa. But we now that these two users has similarity on the the field of work, both works on Web Technology (or Web Programming, etc). So, that is why I need kind of taxonomy of computer science (right now, but probably I would need taxonomy of other fields also, like medicine, physics, mathematics, etc.) where these concepts are categorized and so that when I search for similarity of ASP and PHP, for example, it can say that they have similarity and belong into one group(or category). I hope I described my problem clearly, but if something wrong explained would be happy for your corrections. Thanks

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  • Why would one want to use the public constructors on Boolean and similar immutable classes?

    - by Robert J. Walker
    (For the purposes of this question, let us assume that one is intentionally not using auto(un)boxing, either because one is writing pre-Java 1.5 code, or because one feels that autounboxing makes it too easy to create NullPointerExceptions.) Take Boolean, for example. The documentation for the Boolean(boolean) constructor says: Note: It is rarely appropriate to use this constructor. Unless a new instance is required, the static factory valueOf(boolean) is generally a better choice. It is likely to yield significantly better space and time performance. My question is, why would you ever want to get a new instance in the first place? It seems like things would be simpler if constructors like that were private. For example, if they were, you could write this with no danger (even if myBoolean were null): if (myBoolean == Boolean.TRUE) It'd be safe because all true Booleans would be references to Boolean.TRUE and all false Booleans would be references to Boolean.FALSE. But because the constructors are public, someone may have used them, which means that you have to write this instead: if (Boolean.TRUE.equals(myBoolean)) But where it really gets bad is when you want to check two Booleans for equality. Something like this: if (myBooleanA == myBooleanB) ...becomes this: if ( (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanB == null) || (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanA.equals(myBooleanB)) ) I can't think of any reason to have separate instances of these objects which is more compelling than not having to do the nonsense above. What say you?

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  • How do I force all Tree itemrenderers to refresh?

    - by Richard Haven
    I have item renderers in an mx.controls.Tree that I need to refresh on demand. I have code in the updateDisplayList that fires for only some of the visible nodes no matter what I do. I've tried triggering a change that they should all be listening for; I have tried clearing and resetting the dataProvider and the itemRenderer properties. private function forceCategoryTreeRefresh(event : Event = null) : void { trace("forceCategoryTreeRefresh"); var prevDataProvider : Object = CategoryTree.dataProvider; CategoryTree.dataProvider = null; CategoryTree.validateNow(); CategoryTree.dataProvider = prevDataProvider; var prevItemRenderer : IFactory = CategoryTree.itemRenderer; CategoryTree.itemRenderer = null; CategoryTree.itemRenderer = prevItemRenderer as IFactory; _categoriesChangeDispatcher.dispatchEvent(new Event(Event.CHANGE)); } The nodes refresh properly when I scroll them into view (e.g. the .data gets set), but I cannot force the ones that already exist to refresh or reset themselves. Any ideas?

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  • em.createQuery keeps returning null

    - by Developer106
    I have this application which i use JSF 2.0 and EclipseLink, i have entities created for a database made in MySQL, Created these entities using netbeans 7.1.2, it gets created automaticly. Then i use session beans to work with these entities, the thing is the em.createQuery always returns a null, though I checked NamedQueries in the entities and they perfectly match a sample from the entities named queries:- @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findAll", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUserId", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.userId = :userId"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUsername", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.username = :username"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByEmail", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.email = :email"), notice how i use this findByEmail query in the session bean :- public Users findByEmail(String email){ em.getTransaction().begin(); String find = "Users.findByEmail"; Query query = em.createNamedQuery(find); query.setParameter("email", email); Users user = (Users) query.getSingleResult(); but it always returns null from this em.createNamedQuery, i tried using .createQuery first but it also was no good. the stacktrace of the exception Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.readme.entities.sessionBeans.UsersFacade.findByEmail(UsersFacade.java:48) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.checkAvailability(SignupBean.java:137) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.save(SignupBean.java:146) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:601) What Seems To Be The Problem Here ?

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