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  • DO NOT BOTHER. THE PROBLEM IS NOT TRANSACTIONS. DUNNO HOW TO CLOSE / DELETE

    - by matti
    THE PROBLEM IS SOLVED. I DUNNO HOW TO CLOSE THIS QUESTION. ANOTHER SERVICE IS PROPABLY RUNNING AT ALMOST SAME SYNC THAT DOES THE THING. MY WORK "MATE" WILL HEAR A THING OR TWO IN THE MORNING. I have following code in windows service: data is in the dataset and it has been populated earlier and then rows are updated and inserted to dataset tables before calling code below. using (dataSetTxn = _cnctn.BeginTransaction()) { try { _somePlanAdptr.UpdateCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someLogAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someLinkAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someDataAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _log.WriteDebug("Updating SomePlanAction"); _somePlanAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomePlanAction"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Inserting {0} rows to SomeLog")); //error _someLogAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeLog"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Updating SomeLink with {0} rows", _ofDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Count)); _someLinkAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeLink"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Updating SomeData with {0} rows", _ofDataSet.Tables["SomeData"].Rows.Count)); _someDataAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeData"); _log.WriteDebug("Commiting all changes to database."); dataSetTxn.Commit(); } catch (Exception e) { _log.WriteError("Updating database failed -> rollback", e); if (dataSetTxn != null && _cnctn.State == ConnectionState.Open) dataSetTxn.Rollback(); throw e; } } so one of the lines causes an exception log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Inserting {0} rows to SomeLog")); //error still the first adapter's data is updated to database. when debugged the data is not yet updated until the method that calls all (including this bit) exits. The method that does all is timed with System.Threading.Timer. Thanks & BR -Matti

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  • Android: How to periodically check current location without draining the battery

    - by uyahalom
    I have a background service which works periodically by timer.scheduleAtFixedRate. It wakes up every amount of time (let's say 60 seconds for example) and checks for the location. The location is checked by locManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 60000, 5, listener); and the actual location is collected from the listener's onLocationChanged. Now, when the phone is outside and GPS reception is good, this works fine. But, if the phone is inside, the GPS is almost always active - looking for a signal, and the battery is drained rapidly. I created another thread using a Handler and a Runnable in order to conrol the GPS active time accurately: I used locManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 0, listener); and locManager.removeUpdates(listener); so I can open and close the GPS as I want. In this case, I can open the GPS for the exact amount of time, but found out that it doesn't lock in an area with good reception even after 10 seconds. So here I'm draining the battery again... I'm using API level 7, hence I cannot use locationManager.requestSingleUpdate. I have two questions: Is there any way to optimize this process? Will upgrading to API level 9 (and use locationManager.requestSingleUpdate) improve the process significantly? I mean, does it worth upgrading?

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  • jQuery $.ajax calls success handler when reuqest fails because of browser reloading

    - by Martin
    I have the following code: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, data: sendable, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { if(customprocessfunc) customprocessfunc(data); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ // error handler here } }); I have a timer which makes AJAX requests often. If I do not receive anything in 'data', I show an error message to the user - it means, something wnet bad on the server. The problem is when user reloads the page while the AJAX call is in progress. I can see in the firebug that the AJAX call fails (URL is colored red and no HTTP status is displayed) so I expect that jQuery will stop the reuqest or at least go to the error handler. But it goes to the success handler and passes null in the 'data' variable. As a result, when user reloads the page, sometimes he can see my big red message about unknown error (because data is null). Is there any way to make jQuery abort the request on complete reloading all at least not to call my success function? I have no way to know in the success handler why the data is null - did it came empty from the server or the call was aborted because of reload.

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  • Does playing a Program from VS2005 cause a program to work any different than the .exe file?

    - by Bryan
    There is a program where I work that works fine when running the .exe file but works differently from expected when opened in VS2005 and played from there. I am therefore asking on here if anyone knows of anything that would work in the .exe file but not the debug from VS? I am not able to post the code for the buttons I'm talking about but I'll try to explain the best I can. There is a receiver hooked up to the computer. When the button is pressed on the program, it shows a message and waits for a signal to be received. After the signal is heard the first message box is supposed to close and another is supposed to open. When using the .exe file this happens just fine. However when playing from the program from VS2005 (the same one from which the .exe was made) the second message doesn't come up when it is supposed to and when I can make it come up, the first box doesn't close. There is also a timer involved if that helps. Also, is there a fundamental difference between how the two operate when executing the program? If I need to make anything more clear or give more details please let me know.

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  • document.getElementById returns null for my drop-down select menu

    - by tucson
    I am trying to create a drop-down select menu with custom css (similar to the drop-down selection of language at http://translate.google.com/#). I have current html code: <ul id="Select"> <li> <select id="myId" onmouseover="mopen('options')" onmouseout="mclosetime()"> <div id="options" onmouseover="mcancelclosetime()" onmouseout="mclosetime()"> <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> <option value="2">Two</option> <option value="3">Three</option> </div> </select> </li> </ul> and the Javascript: function mopen(id) { // cancel close timer mcancelclosetime(); // close old layer if(ddmenuitem) ddmenuitem.style.visibility = 'hidden'; // get new layer and show it ddmenuitem = document.getElementById(id); ddmenuitem.style.visibility = 'visible'; } But document.getElementById returns null. Though if I use the code with a div element that does not contain a select list the document.getElementById(id) returns proper div value. How do I fix this? or is there a better way to create drop-down select menu like http://translate.google.com ?

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  • Processing a database queue across multiple threads - design advice

    - by rwmnau
    I have a SQL Server table full of orders that my program needs to "follow up" on (call a webservice to see if something has been done with them). My application is multi-threaded, and could have instances running on multiple servers. Currently, every so often (on a Threading timer), the process selects 100 rows, at random (ORDER BY NEWID()), from the list of "unconfirmed" orders and checks them, marking off any that come back successfully. The problem is that there's a lot of overlap between the threads, and between the different processes, and their's no guarantee that a new order will get checked any time soon. Also, some orders will never be "confirmed" and are dead, which means that they get in the way of orders that need to be confirmed, slowing the process down if I keep selecting them over and over. What I'd prefer is that all outstanding orders get checked, systematically. I can think of two easy ways do this: The application fetches one order to check at a time, passing in the last order it checked as a parameter, and SQL Server hands back the next order that's unconfirmed. More database calls, but this ensures that every order is checked in a reasonable timeframe. However, different servers may re-check the same order in succession, needlessly. The SQL Server keeps track of the last order it asked a process to check up on, maybe in a table, and gives a unique order to every request, incrementing its counter. This involves storing the last order somewhere in SQL, which I wanted to avoid, but it also ensures that threads won't needlessly check the same orders at the same time Are there any other ideas I'm missing? Does this even make sense? Let me know if I need some clarification.

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  • pthread_join from a signal handler

    - by liv2hak
    I have a capture program which in addition do capturing data and writing it into a file also prints some statistics.The function that prints the statistics static void* report(void) { /*Print statistics*/ } is called roughly every second using an ALARM that expires every second.So The program is like void capture_program() { pthread_t report_thread while(!exit_now) { if(pthread_create(&report_thread,NULL,report,NULL)){ fprintf(stderr,"Error creating reporting thread! \n"); } /* Capturing code -------------- -------------- */ if(doreport) usleep(5); } } void *report(void *param) { while(true) { if(doreport) { doreport = 0 //access some register from hardware usleep(5) } } } The expiry of the timer sets the doreport flag.If this flag is set report() is called which clears the flag.I am using usleep to alternate between two threads in the program.This seems to work fine. I also have a signal handler to handle SIGINT (i.e CTRL+C) static void anysig(int sig) { if (sig != SIGINT) dagutil_set_signal_handler(SIG_DFL); /* Tell the main loop to exit */ exit_now = 1; return; } My question: 1) Is it safe to call pthread_join from inside the signal handler? 2) Should I use exit_now flag for the report thread as well?

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  • Is there any point in using a volatile long?

    - by Adamski
    I occasionally use a volatile instance variable in cases where I have two threads reading from / writing to it and don't want the overhead (or potential deadlock risk) of taking out a lock; for example a timer thread periodically updating an int ID that is exposed as a getter on some class: public class MyClass { private volatile int id; public MyClass() { ScheduledExecutorService execService = Executors.newScheduledThreadPool(1); execService.scheduleAtFixedRate(new Runnable() { public void run() { ++id; } }, 0L, 30L, TimeUnit.SECONDS); } public int getId() { return id; } } My question: Given that the JLS only guarantees that 32-bit reads will be atomic is there any point in ever using a volatile long? (i.e. 64-bit). Caveat: Please do not reply saying that using volatile over synchronized is a case of pre-optimisation; I am well aware of how / when to use synchronized but there are cases where volatile is preferable. For example, when defining a Spring bean for use in a single-threaded application I tend to favour volatile instance variables, as there is no guarantee that the Spring context will initialise each bean's properties in the main thread.

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  • Am I doing AS3 reference cleanup correctly?

    - by Ólafur Waage
    In one frame of my fla file (let's call it frame 2), I load a few xml files, then send that data into a class that is initialized in that frame, this class creates a few timers and listeners. Then when this class is done doing it's work. I call a dispatchEvent and move to frame 3. This frame does some things as well, it's initialized and creates a few event listeners and timers. When it's done, I move to frame 2 again. This is supposed to repeat as often as I need so I need to clean up the references correctly and I'm wondering if I'm doing it correctly. For sprites I do this. world.removeChild(Background); // world is the parent stage Background = null; For instances of other classes I do this. Players[i].cleanUp(world); // do any cleanup within the instanced class world.removeChild(PlayersSelect[i]); For event listeners I do this. if(Background != null) { Background.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, deSelectPlayer); } For timers I do this. if(Timeout != null) { Timeout.stop(); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, queueHandler); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER_COMPLETE, queueCompleted); Timeout = null; } And for library images I do this if(_libImage!= null) { s.removeChild(Images._libImage); // s is the stage _libImage= null; } And for the class itself in the main timeline, I do this Frame2.removeEventListener("Done", IAmDone); Frame2.cleanUp(); // the cleanup() does all the stuff above Frame2= null; Even if I do all this, when I get to frame 2 for the 2nd time, it runs for 1-2 seconds and then I get a lot of null reference errors because the cleanup function is called prematurely. Am I doing the cleanup correctly? What can cause events to fire prematurely?

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  • Why am I getting a EXC_BAD_ACCESS in a NSTimer selector?

    - by AngeDeLaMort
    I've got quite a weird problem. To make it short, i'll write some pseudo-code: init: create a dictionary and insert n elements. create a "repeat timer" and add it to the currentRunLoop using the timerRefresh selector. timerRefresh: using a list of keys, find the items in the dictionary if the item exists -> call a function So, for an unknown reason, I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS when I do: [item function]; But I traced the address I got from the dictionary items and it's ok. The ref count of the items in the dictionary is still 1. The {release, dealloc} of the items in the dictionary aren't called. Everything seems fine. Also, to make it worst, it works for some items. So, I'm wondering if there is a threading problem? or something else obscure? The callstack is quite simple: #0 0x93e0604b in objc_msgSend_fpret #1 0x00f3e6b0 in ?? #2 0x0001cfca in -[myObject functionm:] at myObject.m:000 #3 0x305355cd in __NSFireTimer #4 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific #5 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode #6 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal #7 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun #8 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain #9 0x000027e0 in main at main.m:14 So, any suggestion where to look would be appreciated.

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  • How to solve this problem with Python

    - by morpheous
    I am "porting" an application I wrote in C++ into Python. This is the current workflow: Application is started from the console Application parses CLI args Application reads an ini configuration file which specifies which plugins to load etc Application starts a timer Application iterates through each loaded plugin and orders them to start work. This spawns a new worker thread for the plugin The plugins carry out their work and when completed, they die When time interval (read from config file) is up, steps 5-7 is repeated iteratively Since I am new to Python (2 days and counting), the distinction between script, modules and packages are still a bit hazy to me, and I would like to seek advice from Pythonista as to how to implement the workflow described above, using Python as the programing language. In order to keep things simple, I have decided to leave out the time interval stuff out, and instead run the python script/scripts as a cron job instead. This is how I am thinking of approaching it: Encapsulate the whole application in a package which is executable (i.e. can be run from the command line with arguments. Write the plugins as modules (I think maybe its better to implement each module in a separate file?) I havent seen any examples of using threading in Python yet. Could someone provide a snippet of how I could spawn a thread to run a module. Also, I am not sure how to implement the concept of plugins in Python - any advice would be helpful - especially with a code snippet.

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  • Best way to use Google's hosted jQuery, but fall back to my hosted library on Google fail

    - by Nosredna
    What would be a good way to attempt to load the hosted jQuery at Google (or other Google hosted libs), but load my copy of jQuery if the Google attempt fails? I'm not saying Google is flaky. There are cases where the Google copy is blocked (apparently in Iran, for instance). Would I set up a timer and check for the jQuery object? What would be the danger of both copies coming through? Not really looking for answers like "just use the Google one" or "just use your own." I understand those arguments. I also understand that the user is likely to have the Google version cached. I'm thinking about fallbacks for the cloud in general. Edit: This part added... Since Google suggests using google.load to load the ajax libraries, and it performs a callback when done, I'm wondering if that's the key to serializing this problem. I know it sounds a bit crazy. I'm just trying to figure out if it can be done in a reliable way or not. Update: jQuery now hosted on Microsoft's CDN. http://www.asp.net/ajax/cdn/

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  • Regularly update database without browser/user

    - by Chris M
    I currently have a MySQL database which I was hoping to use to store regularly updated data from a temperature sensor connected to the internet. I currently have a page that, when opened, will grab the current temperature and the current timestamp and add it as an entry to the database, but I was looking for a way to do that without me refreshing the page every 5 seconds. Detail: The data comes from an Arduino Ethernet, posted to an IP address. Currently, I'm using cURL to grab the data from the IP, add a timestamp and save it to the DB. Obviously only updates when the page is refreshed (it uses PHP). Here is a live feed of the data - http://wetdreams.org.uk/ChrisProject/UI/live_graph_two.html TL;DR - Basically I need a middle man to grab the data from the IP and post it to a MySQL Edit: Thanks for all the advice. There might be a little bit of confusion, I'm looking for a solution that (ideally) doesn't require a computer to be on at all (other than the Server containing Database). Since I'm looking to store data over long periods of time (weeks), I'd like to set it up and leave a script running on the server (or Arduino) that gets the temp and posts it to the Database. In my head I would like to have a page on the server that automatically (without any browser open, or any other prompting other than a timer) calls a PHP script. Hope that clears things up!

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  • Indy client receive string

    - by Eszee
    Im writing an Indy chat app, and am wondering if there is a way for the server component to tell the client that there is a string waiting, or even a way for the client to have an "OnExecute" like event. This is what i have now: server: procedure TServer.ServerExecute(AContext: TIdContext); var sResponse: string; I: Integer; list: Tlist; begin List := Server.Contexts.LockList; sResponse:= AContext.Connection.Socket.ReadLn; try for I := 0 to List.Count-1 do begin try TIdContext(List[I]).Connection.IOHandler.WriteLn(sResponse); except end; end; finally Server.Contexts.UnlockList; end; end; Client: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var sMsg : string; begin Client.Socket.WriteLn(edit1.Text); sMsg := Client.Socket.ReadLn; Memo1.Lines.Add(sMsg); end; The problem is when i have 2 or more clients running the messages keep stacking because the button only processes 1 message a time. I'd like a way for the client to wait for messages and when it is triggered it processes those messages, like it does now under the button procedure. I've tried to put the "readln" part under a timer, but that causes some major problems. Im Using Delphi 2010 and Indy 10

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  • Slideshow in Javascript without framework, animation?

    - by aaron
    The issue I am having is fairly complicated to explain. I have written up a javascript that displays an image slideshow, and it works fairly well, despite using up more resources than I would like // imgArr[] is populated before var i = 0; var pageLoaded = 0; window.onload = function() {pageLoaded = 1;} function loaded(i,f) { if (document.getElementById(i) != null) f(); else if (!pageLoaded) setTimeout('loaded(\''+i+'\','+f+')',100); } } function displaySlideshow() { document.getElementById(destinationId).innerHTML = '<div id="slideWindow"><img src="'+imgArr[i]+'" />' + '<img src="'+imgArr[i + 1]+'" /></div>'; setTimeout('displaySlideshow()',1000*3); i++; if (i >= imgArr.length - 1) i = 0; } loaded(destinationId,displaySlideshow); So, this script dynamically adds two images to a HTML element, and it is wrapped in a div. The div is styled with the height and width of the image, with the overflow (the second image) hidden. The second image is below the first, and the slideshow is meant to go from RIGHT to LEFT. My inquiry is twofold: 1) Is there a more efficient way of doing this? 2) How would I animate the images? Would I need to put the second image on the right of the first with CSS somehow, and then set a timer to pull the images (via a style) leftward?

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  • In Silverlight 3 how can I get the call to HtmlPage.Plugin.SetStyleAttribute() call to call other co

    - by John Rennemeyer
    I'm trying to take a snapshot of my Silverlight control using WriteableBitmap and it works fine, however, it only takes a snapshot of what is showing. I'm trying to resize the Silverlight control so it will show everything and then take a screenshot, however, the code doesn't resize the control until after the code after the call all runs which is the snapshot code... I can get this work using a timer to fire the snapshot after the other code has caused the resize but I'm wondering if there is a better way. The HtmlPage.Plugin.SetStyleAttribute call has to be called from the UI thread so I'm assuming that's where the problem is. The fact that it is being dispatched onto the UI thread while the rest of the code is not and so the other code is being run first. Is there anyway to create a new event or attach to the call to determine when it has been run to then fire off my snapshot code? I have the following code: private void btnTakeSnapshot_Click(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { if (CurrentContractAction != null) { string heightBefore = HtmlPage.Plugin.GetStyleAttribute("height"); HtmlPage.Plugin.SetStyleAttribute("height", string.Format("{0}px", "1800")); //this line doesn't change the height until after the "TakeSnapshot" code is run for some reason, I'm thinking it is because it is most likely dispatched to the UI thread :( and the following code is not run on the UI thread Snapshot snapshot = new Snapshot(string.Format("Action_Schedule_{0}", CurrentContractAction.Title), LayoutRoot, LayoutRoot, busyIndicatorDataGrid); snapshot.HideElements(btnViewGanttChart, btnSave, btnEditAction, btnFullScreen, btnTakeSnapshot, btnLockAndSubmit); snapshot.TakeSnapshot(); snapshot.ResetElementsVisibility(); HtmlPage.Plugin.SetStyleAttribute("height", string.Format("{0}px", heightBefore)); } } Thanks, John

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  • Accessing Instance Variables from NSTimer selector

    - by Timbo
    Firstly newbie question: What's the difference between a selector and a method? Secondly newbie question (who would have thought): I need to loop some code based on instance variables and pause between loops until some condition (of course based on instance variables) is met. I've looked at sleep, I've looked at NSThread. In both discussions working through those options many asked why don't I use NSTimer, so here I am. Ok so it's simple enough to get a method (selector? ) to fire on a schedule. Problem I have is that I don't know how to see instance variables I've set up outside the timer from within the code NSTimer fires. I need to see those variables from the NSTimer selector code as I 1) will be updating their values and 2) will set labels based on those values. Here's some code that shows the concept… eventually I'd invalidate the timers based on myVariable too, however I've excluded that for code clarity. MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:0]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(doStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5.0 target:self selector:@selector(doSomeOtherStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (void) doStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:11]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) doSomeOtherStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:22]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) updateSomeUILabel:(NSNumber *)arg{ int value = [arg intValue]; someUILabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"myVariable = %d", value]; // Updates the UI with new instance variable values }

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  • problem in case of window service

    - by prateeksaluja20
    Hello friends, i made a windows service & add project installer.in which only contain this code. System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"C:\Windows\system32\notepad.exe"); inside the timer tick event & interval is 60 sec.i just wanted to try to run Windows service. 1st-serviceProcessInstaller1 i have been changed its account setting as local system. 2nd-serviceInstaller1 in this case i have been changed its start up type as Automatic. then i create a setup add another project then right click add project output then add primary output then press ok. then go to Right click on project-view-custom Action-right click on Install-Add custom Action-select Application folder & add primary output.the same thing done for all the remaining options like commit,rollback,uninstall. after that i build the setup it build succesfully then i install the setup it installed properly into program file n create one .exe file n one Instalfile. but problem is that when i search the service into "services.msc" the service is not there. means service is not showing there.i tried but not getting the ans.plz help me to solve this problem.

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  • python script problem once build and package it

    - by Apache
    hi expert, I've written python script to scan wifi and send data to the server, I set interval value, so it keep on scanning and send the data, it read from config.txt file where i set the interval value to scan, I also add yes/no in my config file, so is 'no' it will scan only once and if 'yes' it will scan according to the interval level, my code as below import time,..... from threading import Event, Thread class RepeatTimer(Thread): def __init__(self, interval, function, iterations=0, args=[], kwargs={}): Thread.__init__(self) self.interval = interval self.function = function self.iterations = iterations self.args = args self.kwargs = kwargs self.finished = Event() def run(self): count = 0 while not self.finished.is_set() and (self.iterations <= 0 or count < self.iterations): self.finished.wait(self.interval) if not self.finished.is_set(): self.function(*self.args, **self.kwargs) count += 1 def cancel(self): self.finished.set() def scanWifi(self): #scanning process and sending data done here obj = JW() if status == "yes": t = RepeatTimer(int(intervalTime),obj.scanWifi) t.start() else: obj.scanWifi() once I package my code, its only run when I set my config file set to 'no' where it scan only once, but when I set my config file to 'yes', there is no progress at all, so I found that there is problem with my class RepeatTimer(Timer) once build, but don't know how to solve can anyone help me thanks

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  • Switch front-end's of a website after X amount of hits

    - by Derek Adair
    Sorry about the title - not sure what to call this one. A client of mine would like to redirect users to different front-ends of his eCommerce site based on a hit-counter (possibly a timer?). important: -The content is moderately different in the two sites, enough to consider them two different websites. Knowing this client he will likely add more drastic content changes and other front-ends. So for this question consider the content to be -This site has a rather large back-end. With affiliate networking, multiple payment gateways, order-tracking, and several other features in the works. It is essential that these two front-ends have identical back-end functionality I know that if it was just a simple CSS swap this would be as simple as an if statement that ran off some kind of counter stored in a DB... but the different HTML markup is throwing me for a loop. Q: How can I serve two different front-ends (HTML/CSS) based on a hit counter? Also, I don't have any clue what to tag this one as...

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  • How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

    - by Alex Reisner
    I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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  • How do i close a socket after a timeout in node.js?

    - by rramsden
    I'm trying to close a socket after a connection times out after 1000ms. I am able to set a timeout that gets triggered after a 1000ms but I can't seem to destroy the socket... any ideas? var connection = http.createClient(80, 'localhost'); var request = connection.request('GET', '/somefile.xml', {'host':'localhost'}); var start = new Date().getTime(); request.socket.setTimeout(1000); request.socket.addListener("timeout", function() { request.socket.destroy(); sys.puts("socket timeout connection closed"); }); request.addListener("response", function(response) { var responseBody = []; response.setEncoding("utf8"); response.addListener("data", function(chunk) { sys.puts(chunk); responseBody.push(chunk); }); response.addListener("end", function() { }); }); request.end(); returns socket timeout connection closed node.js:29 if (!x) throw new Error(msg || "assertion error"); ^ Error: assertion error at node.js:29:17 at Timer.callback (net:152:20) at node.js:204:9

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  • video is not playing on ipad(device) when i use a separate audio track with it

    - by sujith1406
    In my application i need to play a video(silent ) together with another audio.i am using mpmovieplayercontroller for video and avaudioplayer for audio.the problem is on device (for ipad) the video is not playing .it is working perfect on ipad and iphone simulator .also on iphone .i am using ipad (os 3.2 ) installed.why is this so?? this is the code i am using NSString *trackname=[dict objectForKey:@"AudioFile"]; NSLog(@"track--->%@",trackname); NSString *newAudioFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:trackname ofType:@"mp4"]; player = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:newAudioFile] error:NULL]; if(error) { NSLog(@"%@",&error); } [player prepareToPlay]; [player play]; player.numberOfLoops=0; slider.maximumValue=player.duration; slider.minimumValue=0; [playpausebtn setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"pausebutton.png"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.5 target:self selector:@selector(updateSlider) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; NSString *videoFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"video-track" ofType:@"mp4"]; moviePlayer=[[MPMoviePlayerController alloc]initWithContentURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:videoFile]]; [[moviePlayer view] setFrame: [videoView bounds]]; // frame must match parent view [videoView addSubview: [moviePlayer view]]; [videoView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor blackColor]]; moviePlayer.repeatMode=MPMovieRepeatModeOne; moviePlayer.controlStyle=MPMovieControlStyleNone; [moviePlayer play];

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  • WinForms: How to determine if window is no longer active (no child window has focus)?

    - by Marek
    My application uses multiple windows I want to hide one specific window in case the application loses focus (when the Active Window is not the application window) source I am handling the Deactivate event of my main form. private void MainForm_Deactivate(object sender, EventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("deactivate"); if (GetActiveWindow() == this.Handle) { Console.WriteLine("isactive=true"); } else { Console.WriteLine("isactive=false"); } } [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr GetActiveWindow(); The output is always deactivate isactive=true I have observed the same behavior if a new window within my application receives focus and also if I click into a different application. I would expect GetActiveWindow to return the handle of the new active window when called from the Deactivate handler. Instead it always returns the handle of my application window. How is this possible? Is the Deactivate event handled "too soon"? (while the main form is still active?). How can I detect that my application has lost focus (my application window is not the active window) and another application gained it without running GetActiveWindow on a timer?

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  • Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

    - by peelman
    So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

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