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• How do I copy all referenced jars of an eclipse project using ant4eclipse?

  - by interstellar

  I've tried like this (link): <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antlib.xml" /> <taskdef resource="net/sf/ant4eclipse/antlib.xml" /> <target name="copy_jars"> <getEclipseClasspath workspace="${basedir}/.." projectname="MyProject" property="classpath" relative="false" runtime="true" pathseparator="#" /> <!-- iterate over all classpath entries --> <foreach list="${classpath}" delimiter="#" target="copy_jar_file" param="classpath.entry" /> </target> <target name="copy_jar_file"> <!-- check if current is a .jar-file ... --> <if> <isfileselected file="${classpath.entry}"> <filename name="**/*.jar" /> </isfileselected> <then> <!-- copy the jar file to a destination directory --> <copy file="${classpath.entry}" tofile="${dest.dir}"/> </then> </if> </target> But I get the exception: [getEclipseClasspath] net.sf.ant4eclipse.model.FileParserException: Could not parse plugin project 'E:\...\MyProject' since it contains neither a Bundle-Manifest nor a plugin.xml! [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.model.pdesupport.plugin.PluginDescriptorParser.parseEclipseProject(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.model.pdesupport.plugin.PluginProjectRoleIdentifier.applyRole(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.model.roles.RoleIdentifierRegistry.applyRoles(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.tools.ProjectFactory.readProjectFromWorkspace(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.tools.resolver.AbstractClasspathResolver.resolveEclipseClasspathEntry(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.tools.resolver.AbstractClasspathResolver.resolveProjectClasspath(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.tools.resolver.ProjectClasspathResolver.resolveProjectClasspath(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.ant.task.project.GetEclipseClassPathTask.resolvePath(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at net.sf.ant4eclipse.ant.task.project.AbstractGetProjectPathTask.execute(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.UnknownElement.execute(UnknownElement.java:288) [getEclipseClasspath] at sun.reflect.GeneratedMethodAccessor1.invoke(Unknown Source) [getEclipseClasspath] at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) [getEclipseClasspath] at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.dispatch.DispatchUtils.execute(DispatchUtils.java:105) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.Task.perform(Task.java:348) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.Target.execute(Target.java:357) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.Target.performTasks(Target.java:385) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeSortedTargets(Project.java:1329) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeTarget(Project.java:1298) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.helper.DefaultExecutor.executeTargets(DefaultExecutor.java:41) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.eclipse.ant.internal.ui.antsupport.EclipseDefaultExecutor.executeTargets(EclipseDefaultExecutor.java:32) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeTargets(Project.java:1181) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.eclipse.ant.internal.ui.antsupport.InternalAntRunner.run(InternalAntRunner.java:423) [getEclipseClasspath] at org.eclipse.ant.internal.ui.antsupport.InternalAntRunner.main(InternalAntRunner.java:137) BUILD FAILED E:\...\build.xml:132: Exception whilst resolving the classpath of project MyProject! Reason: Could not parse plugin project 'E:\...\MyProject' since it contains neither a Bundle-Manifest nor a plugin.xml! I wan't to copy just the jars, not the referenced projects. Is there a way to parametrize the task getEclipseClasspath so it only gets the jars, not the projects?

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• mysql index optimization for a table with multiple indexes that index some of the same columns

  - by Sean

  I have a table that stores some basic data about visitor sessions on third party web sites. This is its structure: id, site_id, unixtime, unixtime_last, ip_address, uid There are four indexes: id, site_id/unixtime, site_id/ip_address, and site_id/uid There are many different types of ways that we query this table, and all of them are specific to the site_id. The index with unixtime is used to display the list of visitors for a given date or time range. The other two are used to find all visits from an IP address or a "uid" (a unique cookie value created for each visitor), as well as determining if this is a new visitor or a returning visitor. Obviously storing site_id inside 3 indexes is inefficient for both write speed and storage, but I see no way around it, since I need to be able to quickly query this data for a given specific site_id. Any ideas on making this more efficient? I don't really understand B-trees besides some very basic stuff, but it's more efficient to have the left-most column of an index be the one with the least variance - correct? Because I considered having the site_id being the second column of the index for both ip_address and uid but I think that would make the index less efficient since the IP and UID are going to vary more than the site ID will, because we only have about 8000 unique sites per database server, but millions of unique visitors across all ~8000 sites on a daily basis. I've also considered removing site_id from the IP and UID indexes completely, since the chances of the same visitor going to multiple sites that share the same database server are quite small, but in cases where this does happen, I fear it could be quite slow to determine if this is a new visitor to this site_id or not. The query would be something like: select id from sessions where uid = 'value' and site_id = 123 limit 1 ... so if this visitor had visited this site before, it would only need to find one row with this site_id before it stopped. This wouldn't be super fast necessarily, but acceptably fast. But say we have a site that gets 500,000 visitors a day, and a particular visitor loves this site and goes there 10 times a day. Now they happen to hit another site on the same database server for the first time. The above query could take quite a long time to search through all of the potentially thousands of rows for this UID, scattered all over the disk, since it wouldn't be finding one for this site ID. Any insight on making this as efficient as possible would be appreciated :) Update - this is a MyISAM table with MySQL 5.0. My concerns are both with performance as well as storage space. This table is both read and write heavy. If I had to choose between performance and storage, my biggest concern is performance - but both are important. We use memcached heavily in all areas of our service, but that's not an excuse to not care about the database design. I want the database to be as efficient as possible.

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• VS2008 C++ MFC Access Violation ONLY when stepping through debug mode

  - by HotOil

  Hi. This is crazy. It started happening in my main project, so I created a tiny sample brand-new project to reproduce it in and sure enough.. It does NOT happen in a sample project I created that is only a Win32 console app. I'm running this on Win7x64, if that matters. VS2008 SP1. Here goes. I create a small dialog app with a button. Put a breakpoint in the handler function for that button. The button handler function looks like this: void CTestProjectDlg::OnBnClickedButton1() { int i=2; m_csHello.Format(_T("Hello World!")); << breakpoint here UpdateData(FALSE); } Click the button, hit the breakpoint. F10 to step, and boom: "First-chance exception at 0x0398f77b in TestProject.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation." It gives me the option to Break or Continue. If I Continue, it just hits it again, only not "First Chance". Yes I have that exception checked in the Debug-Exceptions dlg. If I Break, the call stack just shows me the line where the breakpoint is. If I F10 again.. I get the exception again, only now the callstack shows me in the _AfxDispatchCmdMsg() function, and my original OnBnClickedButton1() is not in the callstack anymore. It doesn't matter where I put the breakpoint. If, instead of F10, I just continue with F5, it works normally. Now.. if I build a Release version and run in debugging mode: I hit the breakpoint, and all the pointers, variable values look normal. F10, and these turn to garbage. The this pointer is now zero. The m_csHello is now However, in Release mode, an exception is not caught, and it all runs fine. The "hello World string gets displayed in the dialog box as it should. I have put in an inquiry to see if some patch was installed on my box by the IT dept in the last day or two. This wasn't happening 2 days ago. What do you think? Is VS2008 corrupted? Thanks.

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• Need to set cursor position to the end of a contentEditable div, issue with selection and range obje

  - by DavidR

  I'm forgetting about cross-browser compatibility for the moment, I just want this to work. What I'm doing is trying to modify a script (and you probably don't need to know this) located at typegreek.com The basic script is found here. Basically what it does is when you type in characters, it converts the character your are typing into greek characters and prints it onto the screen. What I'm trying to do is to get it to work on contentEditable div's (It only works for Textareas) My issue is with this one function: The user types a key, it get's converted to a greek key, and goes to a function, it gets sorted through some if's, and where it ends up is where I can add div support. Here is what I have so far, myField is the div, myValue is the greek character. //Get selection object... var userSelection if (window.getSelection) {userSelection = window.getSelection();} else if (document.selection) {userSelection = document.selection.createRange();} //Now get the cursor position information... var startPos = userSelection.anchorOffset; var endPos = userSelection.focusOffset; var cursorPos = endPos; //Needed later when reinserting the cursor... var rangeObj = userSelection.getRangeAt(0) var container = rangeObj.startContainer //Now take the content from pos 0 -> cursor, add in myValue, then insert everything after myValue to the end of the line. myField.textContent = myField.textContent.substring(0, startPos) + myValue + myField.textContent.substring(endPos, myField.textContent.length); //Now the issue is, this updates the string, and returns the cursor to the beginning of the div. //so that at the next keypress, the character is inserted into the beginning of the div. //So we need to reinsert the cursor where it was. //Re-evaluate the cursor position, taking into account the added character. var cursorPos = endPos + myValue.length; //Set the caracter position. rangeObj.setStart(container,cursorPos) Now, this works only as long as I don't type more than the size of the original text. Say I had 30 characters in the div before hand. If I type more than that 30, it adds character 31, but places the cursor back at 30. I can type character 32 at pos.31, then character 33 at pos.32, but if I try to put character 34 in, it adds the character, and sets the cursor back at 32. The issue is that the function for adding the new character screws up if cursorPos is greater than what is defined in the range. Any ideas?

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• python Socket.IO client for sending broadcast messages to TornadIO2 server

  - by Alp

  I am building a realtime web application. I want to be able to send broadcast messages from the server-side implementation of my python application. Here is the setup: socketio.js on the client-side TornadIO2 server as Socket.IO server python on the server-side (Django framework) I can succesfully send socket.io messages from the client to the server. The server handles these and can send a response. In the following i will describe how i did that. Current Setup and Code First, we need to define a Connection which handles socket.io events: class BaseConnection(tornadio2.SocketConnection): def on_message(self, message): pass # will be run if client uses socket.emit('connect', username) @event def connect(self, username): # send answer to client which will be handled by socket.on('log', function) self.emit('log', 'hello ' + username) Starting the server is done by a Django management custom method: class Command(BaseCommand): args = '' help = 'Starts the TornadIO2 server for handling socket.io connections' def handle(self, *args, **kwargs): autoreload.main(self.run, args, kwargs) def run(self, *args, **kwargs): port = settings.SOCKETIO_PORT router = tornadio2.TornadioRouter(BaseConnection) application = tornado.web.Application( router.urls, socket_io_port = port ) print 'Starting socket.io server on port %s' % port server = SocketServer(application) Very well, the server runs now. Let's add the client code: <script type="text/javascript"> var sio = io.connect('localhost:9000'); sio.on('connect', function(data) { console.log('connected'); sio.emit('connect', '{{ user.username }}'); }); sio.on('log', function(data) { console.log("log: " + data); }); </script> Obviously, {{ user.username }} will be replaced by the username of the currently logged in user, in this example the username is "alp". Now, every time the page gets refreshed, the console output is: connected log: hello alp Therefore, invoking messages and sending responses works. But now comes the tricky part. Problems The response "hello alp" is sent only to the invoker of the socket.io message. I want to broadcast a message to all connected clients, so that they can be informed in realtime if a new user joins the party (for example in a chat application). So, here are my questions: How can i send a broadcast message to all connected clients? How can i send a broadcast message to multiple connected clients that are subscribed on a specific channel? How can i send a broadcast message anywhere in my python code (outside of the BaseConnection class)? Would this require some sort of Socket.IO client for python or is this builtin with TornadIO2? All these broadcasts should be done in a reliable way, so i guess websockets are the best choice. But i am open to all good solutions.

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• How do i rotate a CALayer around a diagonal axis?

  - by Mattias Wadman

  Hi, im trying to implement a flip animation to be used in board game like application. The animation is suppose to look like a game piece that rotate and change to the color of its back. I have managed to get a animation that flips around orthogonal axis, but when i try to flip around a diagonal axis by changing the rotation around the z-axis not surprisingly the actual image also gets rotated. Instead i would like to rotate the image as it is around a diagonal axis. I have tried to change layer.sublayerTransform but with no success. Here is the current implementation. It works by doing a trick to resolve the issue of getting a mirrored image at the end of the animation. The solution is to not actually rotate the layer 180 degrees, instead it rotates it 90 degrees, changes image and then rotates it back. + (void)flipLayer:(CALayer *)layer toImage:(CGImageRef)image withAngle:(double)angle { const float duration = 0.5f; CAKeyframeAnimation *diag = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform.rotation.z"]; diag.duration = duration; diag.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:angle], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], nil]; diag.keyTimes = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:1.0f], nil]; diag.calculationMode = kCAAnimationDiscrete; CAKeyframeAnimation *flip = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform.rotation.y"]; flip.duration = duration; flip.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:M_PI / 2], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], nil]; flip.keyTimes = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.5f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:1.0f], nil]; flip.calculationMode = kCAAnimationLinear; CAKeyframeAnimation *replace = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"contents"]; replace.duration = duration / 2; replace.beginTime = duration / 2; replace.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:(id)image, nil]; replace.keyTimes = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], nil]; replace.calculationMode = kCAAnimationDiscrete; CAAnimationGroup *group = [CAAnimationGroup animation]; group.removedOnCompletion = NO; group.duration = duration; group.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; group.animations = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:diag, flip, replace, nil]; group.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [layer addAnimation:group forKey:nil]; }

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• Need to add an array into another array at a specified key value

  - by sologhost

  Ok, I have an array like so, but it's not guaranteed to be laid out in this order all of the time... $array = array( 'sadness' => array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'value', ), 'happiness' => array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'the value', ), 'peace' => array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'the value', ) ); Ok, and I'd like to throw in this array right after the happiness key is defined. I can't use the key of "peace" since it must go directly after happiness, and peace might not come after happiness as this array changes. So here's what I need to add after happiness... $another_array['love'] = array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'the value of love' ); So the final output after it gets inputted directly after happiness should look like this: $array = array( 'sadness' => array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'value', ), 'happiness' => array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'the value', ), 'love' => array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'the value of love', ), 'peace' => array( 'info' => 'some info', 'info2' => 'more info', 'value' => 'the value', ) ); Can someone please give me a hand with this. Using array_shift, array_pop, or array_merge doesn't help me at all, since these go at the beginning and at the end of the array. I need to place it directly after a KEY position within $array. Thanks :)

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• AVAudioPlayer crash after playing from an AVAudioRecord

  - by munchine

  I've got a button the user tap to start recording and tap again to stop. When it stop I want the recorded voice 'echo' back so the user can hear what was recorded. This works fine the first time. If I hit the button for the third time, it starts a new recording and when I hit stop it crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. - (IBAction) readToMeTapped { if(recording) { recording = NO; [readToMeButton setTitle:@"Stop Recording" forState: UIControlStateNormal ]; NSMutableDictionary *recordSetting = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithFloat: 44100.0], AVSampleRateKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt: kAudioFormatAppleLossless], AVFormatIDKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt: 1], AVNumberOfChannelsKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt: AVAudioQualityMax], AVEncoderAudioQualityKey, nil]; // Create a new dated file NSDate *now = [NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:0]; NSString *caldate = [now description]; recordedTmpFile = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/%@.caf", DOCUMENTS_FOLDER, caldate] retain]]; error = nil; recorder = [[ AVAudioRecorder alloc] initWithURL:recordedTmpFile settings:recordSetting error:&error]; if(!recorder){ NSLog(@"recorder: %@ %d %@", [error domain], [error code], [[error userInfo] description]); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle: @"Warning" message: [error localizedDescription] delegate: nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; return; } NSLog(@"Using File called: %@",recordedTmpFile); //Setup the recorder to use this file and record to it. [recorder setDelegate:self]; [recorder prepareToRecord]; [recorder recordForDuration:(NSTimeInterval) 5]; //recording for a limited time } else { // it crashes the second time it gets here! recording = YES; NSLog(@"Recording YES Using File called: %@",recordedTmpFile); [readToMeButton setTitle:@"Start Recording" forState:UIControlStateNormal ]; [recorder stop]; //Stop the recorder. //playback recording AVAudioPlayer * newPlayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:recordedTmpFile error:&error]; [recordedTmpFile release]; self.aPlayer = newPlayer; [newPlayer release]; [aPlayer setDelegate:self]; [aPlayer prepareToPlay]; [aPlayer play]; } } - (void)audioRecorderDidFinishRecording:(AVAudioRecorder *)sender successfully:(BOOL)flag { NSLog (@"audioRecorderDidFinishRecording:successfully:"); [recorder release]; recorder = nil; } Checking the debugger, it flags the error here @synthesize aPlayer, recorder; This is the part I don't understand. I thought it may have something to do with releasing memory but I've been careful. Have I missed something?

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• Is this (Lock-Free) Queue Implementation Thread-Safe?

  - by Hosam Aly

  I am trying to create a lock-free queue implementation in Java, mainly for personal learning. The queue should be a general one, allowing any number of readers and/or writers concurrently. Would you please review it, and suggest any improvements/issues you find? Thank you. import java.util.concurrent.atomic.AtomicReference; public class LockFreeQueue<T> { private static class Node<E> { E value; volatile Node<E> next; Node(E value) { this.value = value; } } private AtomicReference<Node<T>> head, tail; public LockFreeQueue() { // have both head and tail point to a dummy node Node<T> dummyNode = new Node<T>(null); head = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); tail = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); } /** * Puts an object at the end of the queue. */ public void putObject(T value) { Node<T> newNode = new Node<T>(value); Node<T> prevTailNode = tail.getAndSet(newNode); prevTailNode.next = newNode; } /** * Gets an object from the beginning of the queue. The object is removed * from the queue. If there are no objects in the queue, returns null. */ public T getObject() { Node<T> headNode, valueNode; // move head node to the next node using atomic semantics // as long as next node is not null do { headNode = head.get(); valueNode = headNode.next; // try until the whole loop executes pseudo-atomically // (i.e. unaffected by modifications done by other threads) } while (valueNode != null && !head.compareAndSet(headNode, valueNode)); T value = (valueNode != null ? valueNode.value : null); // release the value pointed to by head, keeping the head node dummy if (valueNode != null) valueNode.value = null; return value; }

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• Use native HBitmap in C# while preserving alpha channel/transparency. Please check this code, it works on my computer...

  - by David

  Let's say I get a HBITMAP object/handle from a native Windows function. I can convert it to a managed bitmap using Bitmap.FromHbitmap(nativeHBitmap), but if the native image has transparency information (alpha channel), it is lost by this conversion. There are a few questions on Stack Overflow regarding this issue. Using information from the first answer of this question (How to draw ARGB bitmap using GDI+?), I wrote a piece of code that I've tried and it works. It basically gets the native HBitmap width, height and the pointer to the location of the pixel data using GetObject and the BITMAP structure, and then calls the managed Bitmap constructor: Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); As I understand (please correct me if I'm wrong), this does not copy the actual pixel data from the native HBitmap to the managed bitmap, it simply points the managed bitmap to the pixel data from the native HBitmap. And I don't draw the bitmap here on another Graphics (DC) or on another bitmap, to avoid unnecessary memory copying, especially for large bitmaps. I can simply assign this bitmap to a PictureBox control or the the Form BackgroundImage property. And it works, the bitmap is displayed correctly, using transparency. When I no longer use the bitmap, I make sure the BackgroundImage property is no longer pointing to the bitmap, and I dispose both the managed bitmap and the native HBitmap. The Question: Can you tell me if this reasoning and code seems correct. I hope I will not get some unexpected behaviors or errors. And I hope I'm freeing all the memory and objects correctly. private void Example() { IntPtr nativeHBitmap = IntPtr.Zero; /* Get the native HBitmap object from a Windows function here */ // Create the BITMAP structure and get info from our nativeHBitmap NativeMethods.BITMAP bitmapStruct = new NativeMethods.BITMAP(); NativeMethods.GetObjectBitmap(nativeHBitmap, Marshal.SizeOf(bitmapStruct), ref bitmapStruct); // Create the managed bitmap using the pointer to the pixel data of the native HBitmap Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap( bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); // Show the bitmap this.BackgroundImage = managedBitmap; /* Run the program, use the image */ MessageBox.Show("running..."); // When the image is no longer needed, dispose both the managed Bitmap object and the native HBitmap this.BackgroundImage = null; managedBitmap.Dispose(); NativeMethods.DeleteObject(nativeHBitmap); } internal static class NativeMethods { [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct BITMAP { public int bmType; public int bmWidth; public int bmHeight; public int bmWidthBytes; public ushort bmPlanes; public ushort bmBitsPixel; public IntPtr bmBits; } [DllImport("gdi32", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, EntryPoint = "GetObject")] public static extern int GetObjectBitmap(IntPtr hObject, int nCount, ref BITMAP lpObject); [DllImport("gdi32.dll")] internal static extern bool DeleteObject(IntPtr hObject); }

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• OSGI classcast exception on felix

  - by Nico

  Hi, i'm fairly new to osgi and am trying to get a functional proof of concept together. The setup is that my common api is created in a bundle creatively named common-api.jar with no bundle activator, but it exports all it's interfaces. the one of interest in this situation is DatabaseService.java. I then have a Second bundle called systemx-database-service. That implements the database service interface. this works fine as in the activator of the implementation bundle i test the connection to the database and select some arbitraty values. I also register the service i want to be available to the other bundle's like so: context.registerService(DatabaseService.class.getName(), new SystemDatabaseServiceImpl(context), new Properties()); The basic idea being when you look for a service reference for a Database service you'll get back the SystemDatabaseService implementation. When i do a inspect service the output it this: -> inspect s c 69 System Database Service (69) provides services: ---------------------------------------------- objectClass = za.co.xxx.xxx.common.api.DatabaseService service.id = 39 which would lead me to believe that if i do this in a test bundle: context.getService(context.getServiceReference(DatabaseService.class)); i should get back an instance of DatabaseService.class, but alas no such luck. it simply seems like it cannot find the service. stick with me here my story gets stranger. figuring there is no where to go but up i wrote this monstrosity: for (Bundle bundle : bundles) { if (bundle.getSymbolicName().equals("za.co.xxx.xxx.database-service")) { ServiceReference[] registeredServices = bundle.getRegisteredServices(); for (ServiceReference ref : registeredServices) { DatabaseService service = (DatabaseService) context.getService(ref); // use service here. } } } } now i can actually see the service reference, but i get this error java.lang.ClassCastException: za.co.xxx.xxx.database.service.impl.SystemDatabaseServiceImpl cannot be cast to za.co.xxx.xx.common.api.DatabaseService which is crazy since the implementation clearly implements the interface! Any help would be appreciated. Please keep in mind i'm very new at the osgi way of thinking so my whole approach here might be flawed. oh. if anyone wants the manifests i can post them. and i'm using the maven-bnd-plugin to build and executing on felix. thanks Nico

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• WPF 4 Datagrid with ComboBox

  - by Doug

  I have a WPF 4 app with a ComboBox embedded in a DataGrid. The ComboBox is in a template column that displays the combobox when in edit mode but just a TextBlock otherwise. If I edit the cell and pick a new value from the combobox, when leaving the cell, the TextBlock in view mode does not reflect the new value. Ultimately, the new value gets saved and is displayed when the window is refreshed but it does not happen while still editing in the grid. Here are the parts that are making this more complicated. The grid and the combobox are bound to different ItemsSource from the EnityFramework which is tied to my database. For this problem, the grid is displaying project members. The project member name can be picked from the combobox which gives a list of all company employees. Any ideas on how to tie the view mode of the DataGridColumnTemplate to the edit value when they are pointing to different DataSources? Relevant XAML <Window.Resources> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="EmployeeODP" /> </Window.Resources> <StackPanel> <DataGrid Name="teamProjectGrid" AutoGenerateColumns="false" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ProjectMembers}" <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Name" x:Name="colProjectMember"> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=ProjectMemberFullName}" /> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox x:Name="ProjectMemberCombo" IsReadOnly="True" DisplayMemberPath="FullName" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=Employee}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource EmployeeODP}}" /> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> <DataGridTextColumn x:Name="colProjectRole" Binding="{Binding Path=ProjectRole}" Header="Role" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </StackPanel> Relevant Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyEntityLibrary.MyProjectEntities(); ObjectDataProvider EmployeeODP= (ObjectDataProvider)FindResource("EmployeeODP"); if (EmployeeODP != null) { EmployeeODP.ObjectInstance = this.DataContext.Employees; }

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• Outlook Marking Email as Junk Email

  - by robertabead

  I know. I sound like a spammer but these emails are completely legitimate email confirmations for people that have signed up for an account on this website we developed. These emails all make it through to various mail providers (gmail, yahoo, aol, hotmail/live) but they always get directed into the Outlook Junk Email folder. I am have tried using Zend Framework mail, PEAR Mail and phpMailer. All of those methods result in the same thing happening. This seemed to start happening after Microsoft released their update to the Outlook Junk Email filter in January of this year. Following is the code in question: include_once('Mail.php'); include_once('Mail/mime.php'); $hdrs = array( 'From' => "Membership <[email protected]>", 'Subject' => 'Test Email', 'Reply-To'=> "[email protected]", 'Message-ID'=> "<" . str_pad(rand(0,12345678),8,'0',STR_PAD_LEFT) . "@mail.example.com>", 'Date'=> date("D, j M Y H:i:s O",time()), 'To'=> '[email protected]' ); $params = array('host'=>'mail.example.com','auth'=>false,'localhost' => 'www.example.com','debug'=>false); $crlf = "\n"; $mime = new Mail_mime($crlf); $mime->setTXTBody("TEST"); $mime->setHTMLBody("<html>\n<body>\nTest\n</body>\n</html>"); $body = $mime->get(); $hdrs = $mime->headers($hdrs); $mail =& Mail::factory('smtp',$params); $t=$mail->send('[email protected]', $hdrs, $body); As you can see we are using the PEAR Mail functionality in this test. This is the most basic test we could run and the above generated email gets dumped into the Outlook Junk Email folder. We have reverse DNS on the mail server and it matches the forward DNS, SPF and DKIM are set up and there is nothing "spammy" with the above content. Can anybody see something with the above code that could cause Outlook to mark it as Junk? Thanks!

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• DropDownList not updating value

  - by annelie

  Hello, I posted a question earlier but have another problem after making those changes. The previous thread can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2700028/binding-a-dropdownlist-inside-a-detailsview Basically, I've got a dropdownlist that's dynamically populated with a list of regions. It selects the correct region when viewing the dropdown, but when I try to edit it changes the value to null. I think it might be because it doesn't know which field to update. Previously, when the dropdown list was hardcoded, I had SelectedValue='<%# Bind("region_id")%' set on the dropdown list, and when I updated it worked fine. However, I had to move the setting of the selected value into the code behind and now it just gets set to null every time I update. Here's the aspx code: <asp:DetailsView id="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="false" DataSourceID="myMySqlDataSrc" DataKeyNames="id" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" AutoGenerateEditButton="True" AutoGenerateInsertButton="False" OnDataBound="DetailsView1_DataBound" > <Fields> <snip> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Region"> <ItemTemplate><%# Eval("region_name") %></ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="RegionDropdownList" runat="server"> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And here's the code behind: protected void DetailsView1_DataBound(object sender, EventArgs e) { ArrayList regionsList = BPBusiness.getRegions(); if (DetailsView1.CurrentMode == DetailsViewMode.Edit) { DropDownList ddlRegions = (DropDownList)DetailsView1.FindControl("RegionDropdownList"); if (ddlRegions != null) { ddlRegions.DataSource = regionsList; ddlRegions.DataValueField = "Value"; ddlRegions.DataTextField = "Text"; ddlRegions.DataBind(); if (ddlRegions.Items.Contains(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString()))) { ddlRegions.SelectedIndex = ddlRegions.Items.IndexOf(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString())); } } } } EDIT: The database is MySql, and the update statement looks like this: myMySqlDataSrc.UpdateCommand = "UPDATE myTable SET business_name = ?, addr_line_1 = ?, addr_line_2 = ?, addr_line_3 = ?, postcode = ?, county = ?, town_city = ?, tl_url = ?, customer_id = ?, region_id = ?, description = ?, approval_status = ?, tl_user_name = ?, phone = ?, uploaders_own = ? WHERE id = ?"; Thanks, Annelie

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• Servlet, JSP, JavaBeans and HTML form

  - by dedalo

  Hi, I'm working on a servlet that makes a connection to a database gets the information of one of the tables ans sends this information to a jsp file. This file will print on the brower the information table, adding radio buttons that allows us to choose one of the rows. The servlet looks like this: List<InfoBean> items = new ArrayList<InfoBean>(); if (!conexion.isClosed()){ Statement st = (Statement) conexion.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = st.executeQuery("select * from lista_audio" ); while (rs.next()) {items.add(getRow(rs));} conexion.close();} req.getSession().setAttribute("items", items); In the JSP file I can print a table with the information, adding radio buttons that the user will use to choose 1 row and send the selected info to a servlet using a form I can add: < form action="administ" method=get enctype=multipart/form-data> < table> < table border=\"1\">< tr>< th>Title< /th>< th>Author< /th>< th>Album< /th>< /tr> < c:forEach items="${items}" var="item"> < tr>< td><input type="radio" name="SongInfo" value=${item.title}> < td>${item.title}< /td> < td>${item.author}< /td> < td>${item.album}< /td>< /tr> < /c:forEach> < /table> In the field 'value' I should be able to send to the servlet the information stored in ${item.title}. When I set value = ${item.title} and title is, for example "The bodyguard", in the servlet the information I can retrieve is just "The". It looks like it sends the characters located before the first white space of the string. How could I get the whole string? Thanks

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• IoC/DI in the face of winforms and other generated code

  - by Kaleb Pederson

  When using dependency injection (DI) and inversion of control (IoC) objects will typically have a constructor that accepts the set of dependencies required for the object to function properly. For example, if I have a form that requires a service to populate a combo box you might see something like this: // my files public interface IDataService { IList<MyData> GetData(); } public interface IComboDataService { IList<MyComboData> GetComboData(); } public partial class PopulatedForm : BaseForm { private IDataService service; public PopulatedForm(IDataService service) { //... InitializeComponent(); } } This works fine at the top level, I just use my IoC container to resolve the dependencies: var form = ioc.Resolve<PopulatedForm>(); But in the face of generated code, this gets harder. In winforms a second file composing the rest of the partial class is generated. This file references other components, such as custom controls, and uses no-args constructors to create such controls: // generated file: PopulatedForm.Designer.cs public partial class PopulatedForm { private void InitializeComponent() { this.customComboBox = new UserCreatedComboBox(); // customComboBox has an IComboDataService dependency } } Since this is generated code, I can't pass in the dependencies and there's no easy way to have my IoC container automatically inject all the dependencies. One solution is to pass in the dependencies of each child component to PopulatedForm even though it may not need them directly, such as with the IComboDataService required by the UserCreatedComboBox. I then have the responsibility to make sure that the dependencies are provided through various properties or setter methods. Then, my PopulatedForm constructor might look as follows: public PopulatedForm(IDataService service, IComboDataService comboDataService) { this.service = service; InitializeComponent(); this.customComboBox.ComboDataService = comboDataService; } Another possible solution is to have the no-args constructor to do the necessary resolution: public class UserCreatedComboBox { private IComboDataService comboDataService; public UserCreatedComboBox() { if (!DesignMode && IoC.Instance != null) { comboDataService = Ioc.Instance.Resolve<IComboDataService>(); } } } Neither solution is particularly good. What patterns and alternatives are available to more capably handle dependency-injection in the face of generated code? I'd love to see both general solutions, such as patterns, and ones specific to C#, Winforms, and Autofac.

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• CKEDITOR - Is there anyway to prevent formatting code in SOURCE mode?

  - by Lev

  I've spent the good portion of my day trying to figure this out, and I figured I'd finally just give in and ask. How can you prevent ANY automatic formatting when in SOURCE mode? I like to edit HTML source code directly instead of using the WYSIWYG interface, but whenever I write new lines, or layout tags how I would indent them, it all gets formatted when I switch to WYSIWYG mode and then back to SOURCE mode again. I stumbled upon this earlier: http://dev.fckeditor.net/ticket/993 That alluded to a setting which may have existed once upon a time which would be exactly what I'm after. I just want to know how I can completely turn off all automatic formatting when editing in SOURCE mode. After browsing this site for hours on end and finding absolutely nothing on here or on Google, I came up with a solution I thought would be foolproof (albeit not a pleasant one). I learned about the "protectedSource" setting, so I thought, well maybe I can just use that and create an HTML comment tag before all my HTML and another after it and then push a regular expression finding the comment tags into the protectedSource array, but even that (believe it or not) doesn't work. I've tried my expression straight up in the browser outside of CKEDITOR and it is working, but CKEDITOR doesn't protect the code as expected (which I suspect is a bug involving comment tags, since I can get it to work with other strings). In case you are wondering, this is what I had hoped would work as a work-around, but doesn't: config.protectedSource.push( /<!-- src -->[\s\S]*<!-- end src-->/gi ); .. and what I planned on doing (for what appears to be the lack of a setting to disable formatting in SOURCE mode) was to nest all my HTML within the commented tags like this: <!-- src --> <div>some code that shouldn't be messed with (but is)</div> <!-- end src --> I'd love to hear if you anyone has any suggestions for this scenario, or knows of a setting which I have described, or even if someone can just fill me in as to why I can't get protectedSource to work properly with two comment tags. I really thing it's gotta be a bug because I can get so many other expressions to work fine, and I can even protect HTML within the area of a single comment tag, but I simply cannot get HTML within two different comment tags to stay untouched. :( I've wasted about 6-7 hours on this so far today so if anyone can shed any light on it I would be very grateful! Thanks for reading! ;)

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• ItemsControl ItemTemplate Binding

  - by Wonko the Sane

  Hi All, In WPF4.0, I have a class that contains other class types as properties (combining multiple data types for display). Something like: public partial class Owner { public string OwnerName { get; set; } public int OwnerId { get; set; } } partial class ForDisplay { public Owner OwnerData { get; set; } public int Credit { get; set; } } In my window, I have an ItemsControl with the following (clipped for clarity): <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I then get a collection of display information from the data layer, and set the DataContext of the ItemsControl to this collection. The "Credit" property gets displayed correctly, but the OwnerName property does not. Instead, I get a binding error: Error 40: BindingExpression path error: 'OwnerName' property not found on 'object' ''ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874)'. BindingExpression:Path=OwnerName; DataItem='ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874); target element is 'TextBlock' (Name=txtOwnerName'); target property is 'Text' (type 'String') I don't understand why this is attempting to look for the OwnerName property in the ForDisplay class, rather than in the Owner class from the ForDisplay OwnerData property. Edit It appears that it has something to do with using the custom control. If I bind the same properties to a TextBlock, they work correctly. <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding OwnerData.OwnerName}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Credit}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> Thanks, wTs

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• File upload progress

  - by Cornelius

  I've been trying to track the progress of a file upload but keep on ending up at dead ends (uploading from a C# application not a webpage). I tried using the WebClient as such: class Program { static volatile bool busy = true; static void Main(string[] args) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); // Add some custom header information client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); client.UploadProgressChanged += client_UploadProgressChanged; client.UploadFileCompleted += client_UploadFileCompleted; client.UploadFileAsync(new Uri("http://uploaduri/"), "filename"); while (busy) { Thread.Sleep(100); } Console.WriteLine("Done: press enter to exit"); Console.ReadLine(); } static void client_UploadFileCompleted(object sender, UploadFileCompletedEventArgs e) { busy = false; } static void client_UploadProgressChanged(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("Completed {0} of {1} bytes", e.BytesSent, e.TotalBytesToSend); } } The file does upload and progress is printed out but the progress is much faster than the actual upload and when uploading a large file the progress will reach the maximum within a few seconds but the actual upload takes a few minutes (it is not just waiting on a response, all the data have not yet arrived at the server). So I tried using HttpWebRequest to stream the data instead (I know this is not the exact equivalent of a file upload as it does not produce multipart/form-data content but it does serve to illustrate my problem). I set AllowWriteStreamBuffering to false and set the ContentLength as suggested by this question/answer: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { FileInfo fileInfo = new FileInfo(args[0]); HttpWebRequest client = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(new Uri("http://uploadUri/")); // Add some custom header info client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); client.AllowWriteStreamBuffering = false; client.ContentLength = fileInfo.Length; client.Method = "POST"; long fileSize = fileInfo.Length; using (FileStream stream = fileInfo.OpenRead()) { using (Stream uploadStream = client.GetRequestStream()) { long totalWritten = 0; byte[] buffer = new byte[3000]; int bytesRead = 0; while ((bytesRead = stream.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) > 0) { uploadStream.Write(buffer, 0, bytesRead); uploadStream.Flush(); Console.WriteLine("{0} of {1} written", totalWritten += bytesRead, fileSize); } } } Console.WriteLine("Done: press enter to exit"); Console.ReadLine(); } } The request does not start until the entire file have been written to the stream and already shows full progress at the time it starts (I'm using fiddler to verify this). I also tried setting SendChunked to true (with and without setting the ContentLength as well). It seems like the data still gets cached before being sent over the network. Is there something wrong with one of these approaches or is there perhaps another way I can track the progress of file uploads from a windows application?

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• UIViewController not oreintating. Methods not called

  - by capple

  Greetings, This question does seem to be an ongoing saga in the world of iphone SDK... so heres my contribution... Had two separate projects from the same template... one semi-works, the other not at all... Please let me explain my steps... used this basic GL ES template //iphonedevelopment.blogspot.com/2008/12/opengl-project-template-for-xcode.html had to sort out some of the 'Release' configuration but otherwises has eveything I need to add orientation to a GL ES project. One my first project, did my stuff, then added these methods.... -(BOOL)shouldAutoRotateToInterfaceOrientation ..... -(void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)willAnimateRotationToInterfaceOrientation .... And understand what they do (or are trying to do in my case), the (BOOL)should... gets called once when the view controller is created, and returns 'YES'. But after that none of the other methods are called! So I started from scratch with a blank template (GL ES one from above)...and added minimum to support auto rotation. But this time none of the methods get called! So I investigated .... //developer.apple.com/iphone/library/qa/qa2010/qa1688.html as it said, I added the GLViewController.view first, then added the GLview as subviews of the application delegate. Nothing! Then found this //www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/44993-how-determine-ipad-launch-orientation.html which states to enable orientation notifications [[UIDevice currentDevice] beginGeneratingDeviceOrientationNotifications]; and then subsequently disable them in the view controller... makes sense...did it, nothing... I think the notifications might be on by default though, since I didn't need to enable them in the first project, yet it still try to verify a orientation (i.e (BOOL)shouldAutoRotate... )... If any one could help me out it would be greatly appreciated as this issue is driving me insane. Thanks in advance. The code can be found here ... http://rapidshare.com/files/392053688/autoRotation.zip N.B These projects avoid nib/xib resources, would like to keep it that way if possible. P.S iPad device not out where I am so I cannot test on a device yet. Would be nice for it to work on the simulator.

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• Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

  - by Kelly Ellis

  I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

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• Any software for pattern-matching and -rewriting source code?

  - by Steven A. Lowe

  I have some old software (in a language that's not dead but is dead to me ;-)) that implements a basic pattern-matching and -rewriting system for source code. I am considering resurrecting this code, translating it into a modern language, and open-sourcing the project as a refactoring power-tool. Before I go much further, I want to know if anything like this exists already (my google-fu is fanning air on this tonight). Here's how it works: the pattern-matching part matches source-code patterns spanning multiple lines of code using a template with binding variables, the pattern-rewriting part uses a template to rewrite the matched code, inserting the contents of the bound variables from the matching template matching and rewriting templates are associated (1:1) by a simple (unconditional) rewrite rule the software operates on the abstract syntax tree (AST) of the input application, and outputs a modified AST which can then be regenerated into new source code for example, suppose we find a bunch of while-loops that really should be for-loops. The following template will match the while-loop pattern: Template oldLoopPtrn int @cnt@ = 0; while (@cnt@ < @max@) { … @body@ ++@cnt@; } End_Template while the following template will specify the output rewrite pattern: Template newLoopPtrn for(int @cnt@ = 0; @cnt@ < @max@; @cnt@++) { @body@ } End_Template and a simple rule to associate them Rule oldLoopPtrn --> newLoopPtrn so code that looks like this int i=0; while(i<arrlen) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); ++i; } gets automatically rewritten to look like this for(int i = 0; i < arrlen; i++) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); } The closest thing I've seen like this is some of the code-refactoring tools, but they seem to be geared towards interactive rewriting of selected snippets, not wholesale automated changes. I believe that this kind of tool could supercharge refactoring, and would work on multiple languages (even HTML/CSS). I also believe that converting and polishing the code base would be a huge project that I simply cannot do alone in any reasonable amount of time. So, anything like this out there already? If not, any obvious features (besides rewrite-rule conditions) to consider? EDIT: The one feature of this system that I like very much is that the template patterns are fairly obvious and easy to read because they're written in the same language as the target source code, not in some esoteric mutated regex/BNF format.

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• How to run an application as root without asking for an admin password?

  - by kvaruni

  I am writing a program in Objective-C (XCode 3.2, on Snow Leopard) that is capable of either selectively blocking certain sites for a duration or only allow certain sites (and thus block all others) for a duration. The reasoning behind this program is rather simple. I tend to get distracted when I have full internet access, but I do need internet access during my working hours to get to a number of work-related websites. Clearly, this is not a permanent block, but only helps me to focus whenever I find myself wandering a bit too much. At the moment, I am using a Unix script that is called via AppleScript to obtain Administrator permissions. It then activates a number of ipfw rules and clears those after a specific duration to restore full internet access. Simple and effective, but since I am running as a standard user, it gets cumbersome to enter my administrator password each and every time I want to go "offline". Furthermore, this is a great opportunity to learn to work with XCode and Objective-C. At the moment, everything works as expected, minus the actual blocking. I can add a number of sites in a list, specify whether or not I want to block or allow these websites and I can "start" the blocking by specifying a time until which I want to stay "offline". However, I find it hard to obtain clear information on how I can run a privileged Unix command from Objective-C. Ideally, I would like to be able to store information with respect to the Administrator account into the Keychain to use these later on, so that I can simply move into "offline" mode with the convenience of clicking a button. Even more ideally, there might be some class in Objective-C with which I can block access to some/all websites for this particular user without needing to rely on privileged Unix commands. A third possibility is in starting this program with root permissions and the reducing the permissions until I need them, but since this is a GUI application that is nested in the menu bar of OS X, the results are rather awkward and getting it to run each and every time with root permission is no easy task. Anyone who can offer me some pointers or advice? Please, no security-warnings, I am fully aware that what I want to do is a potential security threat.

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• hibernate column uniqueness question

  - by Seth

  I'm still in the process of learning hibernate/hql and I have a question that's half best practices question/half sanity check. Let's say I have a class A: @Entity public class A { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @Column(unique=true) private String name = ""; //getters, setters, etc. omitted for brevity } I want to enforce that every instance of A that gets saved has a unique name (hence the @Column annotation), but I also want to be able to handle the case where there's already an A instance saved that has that name. I see two ways of doing this: 1) I can catch the org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException that could be thrown during the session.saveOrUpdate() call and try to handle it. 2) I can query for existing instances of A that already have that name in the DAO before calling session.saveOrUpdate(). Right now I'm leaning towards approach 2, because in approach 1 I don't know how to programmatically figure out which constraint was violated (there are a couple of other unique members in A). Right now my DAO.save() code looks roughly like this: public void save(A a) throws DataAccessException, NonUniqueNameException { Session session = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); try { session.beginTransaction(); Query query = null; //if id isn't null, make sure we don't count this object as a duplicate if(obj.getId() == null) { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name").setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } else { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name " + "and a.id != :id").setParameter("name", obj.getName()).setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } Long numNameDuplicates = (Long)query.uniqueResult(); if(numNameDuplicates > 0) throw new NonUniqueNameException(); session.saveOrUpdate(a); session.getTransaction().commit(); } catch(RuntimeException e) { session.getTransaction().rollback(); throw new DataAccessException(e); //my own class } } Am I going about this in the right way? Can hibernate tell me programmatically (i.e. not as an error string) which value is violating the uniqueness constraint? By separating the query from the commit, am I inviting thread-safety errors, or am I safe? How is this usually done? Thanks!

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• How can I highlight empty fields in ASP.NET MVC 2 before model binding has occurred?

  - by Richard Poole

  I'm trying to highlight certain form fields (let's call them important fields) when they're empty. In essence, they should behave a bit like required fields, but they should be highlighted if they are empty when the user first GETs the form, before POST & model validation has occurred. The user can also ignore the warnings and submit the form when these fields are empty (i.e. empty important fields won't cause ModelState.IsValid to be false). Ideally it needs to work server-side (empty important fields are highlighted with warning message on GET) and client-side (highlighted if empty when losing focus). I've thought of a few ways of doing this, but I'm hoping some bright spark can come up with a nice elegant solution... Just use a CSS class to flag important fields Update every view/template to render important fields with an important CSS class. Write some jQuery to highlight empty important fields when the DOM is ready and hook their blur events so highlights & warning messages can be shown/hidden as appropriate. Pros: Quick and easy. Cons: Unnecessary duplication of importance flags and warning messages across views & templates. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Custom data annotation and client-side validator Create classes similar to RequiredAttribute, RequiredAttributeAdapter and ModelClientValidationRequiredRule, and register the adapter with DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter. Create a client-side validator like this that responds to the blur event. Pros: Data annotation follows DRY principle (Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> picks up field importance and warning message from attribute, no duplication). Cons: Must call TryValidateModel from GET actions to ensure empty fields are decorated. Not technically validation (client- & server-side rules don't match) so it's at the mercy of framework changes. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Clone the entire validation framework It strikes me that I'm trying to achieve exactly the same thing as validation but with warnings rather than errors. It needs to run before model binding (and therefore validation) has occurred. Perhaps it's worth designing a similar framework with annotations like Required, RegularExpression, StringLength, etc. that somehow cause Html.TextBoxFor<T> etc. to render the warning CSS class and Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> to emit the warning message and JSON needed to enable client-side blur checks. Pros: Sounds like something MVC 2 could do with out of the box. Cons: Way too much effort for my current requirement! I'm swaying towards option 1. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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