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• DRY Validation with MVC2

  - by Matthew

  Hi All, I'm trying to figure out how I can define validation rules for my domain objects in one single location within my application but have run in to a snag... Some background: My location has several parts: - Database - DAL - Business Logic Layer - SOAP API Layer - MVC website The MVC website accesses the database via the SOAP API, just as third parties would. We are using server and and client side validation on the MVC website as well as in the SOAP API Layer. To avoid having to manually write client side validation we are implementing strongly typed views in conjunction with the Html.TextBoxFor and Html.ValidationMessageFor HTML helpers, as shown in Step 3 here. We also create custom models for each form where one form takes input for multiple domain objects. This is where the problem begins, the HTML helpers read from the model for the data annotation validation attributes. In most cases our forms deal with multiple domain objects and you can't specify more than one type in the <%@Page ... Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" % page directive. So we are forced to create a custom model class, which would mean duplicating validation attributes from the domain objects on to the model class. I've spent quite some time looking for workarounds to this, such has referencing the same MetadataType from both the domain class and the custom MVC models, but that won't work for several reasons: You can only specify one MetadataType attribute per class, so its a problem if a model references multiple domain objects, each with their own metadata type. The data annotation validation code throws an exception if the model class doesn't contain a property that is specified in the referenced MetadataType which is a problem with the model only deals with a subset of the properties for a given domain object. I've looked at other solutions as well but to no avail. If anyone has any ideas on how to achieve a single source for validation logic that would work across MVC client and server side validation functionality and other locations (such as my SOAP API) I would love to hear it! Thanks in advance, Matthew

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• Why were namespaces removed from ECMAScript consideration?

  - by Bob

  Namespaces were once a consideration for ECMAScript (the old ECMAScript 4) but were taken out. As Brendan Eich says in this message: One of the use-cases for namespaces in ES4 was early binding (use namespace intrinsic), both for performance and for programmer comprehension -- no chance of runtime name binding disagreeing with any earlier binding. But early binding in any dynamic code loading scenario like the web requires a prioritization or reservation mechanism to avoid early versus late binding conflicts. Plus, as some JS implementors have noted with concern, multiple open namespaces impose runtime cost unless an implementation works significantly harder. For these reasons, namespaces and early binding (like packages before them, this past April) must go. But I'm not sure I understand all of that. What exactly is a prioritization or reservation mechanism and why would either of those be needed? Also, must early binding and namespaces go hand-in-hand? For some reason I can't wrap my head around the issues involved. Can anyone attempt a more fleshed out explanation? Also, why would namespaces impose runtime costs? In my mind I can't help but see little difference in concept between a namespace and a function using closures. For instance, Yahoo and Google both have YAHOO and google objects that "act like" namespaces in that they contain all of their public and private variables, functions, and objects within a single access point. So why, then, would a namespace be so significantly different in implementation? Maybe I just have a misconception as to what a namespace is exactly.

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• What is best practice as far as using perl-isms (idiomatic expressions) in Perl?

  - by DVK

  A couple of years back I participated in writing the best practices/coding style for our (fairly large and often Perl-using) company. It was done by a committee of "senior" Perl developers. As anything done by consensus, it had parts which everyone disagreed with. Duh. The part that rubbed wrong the most was a strong recommendation to NOT use many Perlisms (loosely defined as code idioms not present in, say C++ or Java), such as "Avoid using '... unless X;' constructs". The main rationale posited for such rules as this one was that non-Perl developers would have much harder time with the Perl code base otherwise. The assumption here I guess is that Perl code jockeys are rarer breed overall - and among new hires to the company - than non-Perlers. I was wondering whether SO has any good arguments to support or reject this logic... it is mostly academic curiosity at this point as the company's Perl coding standard is ossified and will never be revised again as far as I'm aware. P.S. Just to be clear, the question is in the context I noted - the answer for an all-Perl smaller development shop is obviously a resounding "use Perl to its maximum capability".

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• c# Named Pipe Asynchronous Peeking

  - by KJ Tsanaktsidis

  Hey all, I need to find a way to be notified when a System.IO.Pipe.NamedPipeServerStream opened in asynchronous mode has more data available for reading on it- a WaitHandle would be ideal. I cannot simply use BeginRead() to obtain such a handle because it's possible that i might be signaled by another thread which wants to write to the pipe- so I have to release the lock on the pipe and wait for the write to be complete, and NamedPipeServerStream doesnt have a CancelAsync method. I also tried calling BeginRead(), then calling the win32 function CancelIO on the pipe if the thread gets signaled, but I don't think this is an ideal solution because if CancelIO is called just as data is arriving and being processed, it will be dropped- I still wish to keep this data, but process it at a later time, after the write. I suspect the win32 function PeekNamedPipe might be useful but i'd like to avoid having to continuously poll for new data with it. In the likley event that the above text is a bit unclear, here's roughly what i'd like to be able to do... NamedPipeServerStream pipe; ManualResetEvent WriteFlag; //initialise pipe lock (pipe) { //I wish this method existed WaitHandle NewDataHandle = pipe.GetDataAvailableWaithandle(); Waithandle[] BreakConditions = new Waithandle[2]; BreakConditions[0] = NewDataHandle; BreakConditions[1] = WriteFlag; int breakcode = WaitHandle.WaitAny(BreakConditions); switch (breakcode) { case 0: //do a read on the pipe break; case 1: //break so that we release the lock on the pipe break; } }

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• IOs7 app crashing when in background

  - by Leonardo

  My app sometimes crashes when in background and shows the following crash log: Nov 7 12:33:31 iPad backboardd[29] <Warning>: MyApp[3096] has active assertions beyond permitted time: {( <BKProcessAssertion: 0x14680c60> identifier: Called by MyApp, from -[AppDelegate applicationDidEnterBackground:] process: MyApp[3096] permittedBackgroundDuration: 180.000000 reason: finishTask owner pid:3096 preventSuspend preventIdleSleep preventSuspendOnSleep )} Looking through other questions I found out that the crash message indicates that I didn't end a task properly, so when its time expired the OS ended it and crashed my app. So I added some NSLogs: - (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication *)application { [self saveContext]; [Settings setCallLock:YES]; [self saveStuff]; if ([self isBackgroundTaskNeeded]) { UIApplication* app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [self pauseDownloads]; NSLog(@"Debug - Ending background task %d",bgTask); [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; NSLog(@"Debug - Background task %d ended",bgTask); bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; NSLog(@"Debug - Starting background task %d",bgTask); [self initBackground]; } } and found out that the task was called twice when it crashed: Nov 7 12:30:02 iPad MyApp[3096] <Warning>: Debug - Starting background task 7 Nov 7 12:30:30 iPad MyApp[3096] <Warning>: Debug - Starting background task 8 Nov 7 12:33:26 iPad MyApp[3096] <Warning>: Debug - Ending background task 8 Nov 7 12:33:26 iPad MyApp[3096] <Warning>: Debug - Background task 8 ended Nov 7 12:33:26 iPad MyApp[3096] <Warning>: Debug - Ending background task 0 Nov 7 12:33:26 iPad MyApp[3096] <Warning>: Debug - Background task 0 ended I wasn't able to tell when the double call happens and why. So question is why is the task being called twice and is there a way to avoid it? Edit: - (void) pauseDownloads { for (AFDownloadRequestOperation *operation in self.operationQueue.operations) { if(![operation isPaused]) { [operation pause]; } } }

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• asp.net ajax control toolkit combobox displays incorectly when in fieldset with style of position:re

  - by Jon P

  I currently have an Instance of the ASP.net ajax control toolkit combo box residing in a field set with a style of position:releative applied. The control also sits in a very plain table (please no comments about using tables for lay-out, I know it is evil and try to avoid it). There are two problems with the display of the list: The list does not sit flush with the text box. In I.E. 7 (which is the majority of my target audience, intranet where IE7 is the company standard) the list display about 10px below the fieldset, which is what the bottom margin of the fieldset is set to. In FF 2.0 the list sits sinificantly lower and off-set to the right. Below the filed set there is more content in a div, also with a style of position:relative applied. The list from the combo box displays behind the content of this div, which is obviouly an issue. Removing position:releative from the fieldset resolves the display issue of the combo box, but results in other unwanted display side effects. My interim workaround is to specifically restyle this fieldset without the position:absolute style, but I'm hoping for a better solution. Thanks

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• jQuery autocomplete - update options on dynamically created elements

  - by Ian Robinson

  Background The user enters values into multiple inputs on the page. Think of entering a list of widgets for sale. The user would select the type of a widget from a drop down. Then enter the name of the Widget vendor, and then the actual name of the widget. These UI elements would all appear as one row. The user is able to click an "add another widget" link and a new row is created. The two input elements have autocomplete functionality attached to them using the DevBridge jQuery plugin. It suggests the name of the vendor and the name of the widget. I have recently wired up the logic to filter the name of the widget based on the name of the vendor you entered. This means setting the (custom) vendorName parameter when attaching the autocomplete plugin so it can be passed to the server side to retrieve the widget names for that vendor that match the name the user entered. To achieve this functionality I'm dynamically attaching the autocomplete functionality to the second element (the widget name text box) when it receives focus. Here is an example: $('.autocomplete-widget').live('focus', function () { $(this).autocomplete({ serviceUrl: '/something.ashx', params: { type: 'widget', vendorName: $(this).parent().prev().find('.autocomplete-vendor').val()} }); }); Problem At first glance, this looks to function quite well. However I started noticing some inconsistencies, and upon inspection, I found out that the call to the server is actually happening several times in some cases. Each time the widget name input element receives focus the autocomplete functionality is attached. And what I'm seeing is that the call to the server is made in proportion to how many times the input element has gained focus. I'd like to avoid making the call more than once, but retain the ability to attach (or update) the autocomplete functionality "on focus". I've tried to use the autocomplete 'setOptions' method but have only been able to get it to work with the static elements, not the dynamically created elements. Question Is there a way I can clear out the autocomplete functionality before I attach another one?

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• WPF: Is it possible to add or modify bindings via styles or something similar?

  - by Eamon Nerbonne

  I'm still learning the WPF ropes, so if the following question is trivial or my approach wrong-headed, please do speak up... I'm trying to reduce boilerplate and it sounds like styles are a common way to do so. In particular: I've got a bunch of fairly mundane data-entry fields. The controls for these fields have various properties I'd like to set based on the target of the binding - pretty normal stuff. However, I'd also like to set properties of the binding itself in the style to avoid repetitiveness. For example: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="..." Source="..." ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" ValidatesOnExceptions="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> Now, is there any way to use styling - or some other technique to write the previous example somewhat like this: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}" Text="{Binding Source=... Path=...}/> That is, is there any way to set all bindings that match a particular selection (here, on controls with the myStyle style) to validate data and to use a particular update trigger? Is it possible to template or style bindings themselves? Alternatively, is it possible to add the binding in the style itself? Clearly, the second syntax is much, much shorter and more readable, and I'd love to be able to get rid of other similar boilerplate to keep my UI code comprehensible to myself :-).

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• how does scrolling in android listview work?

  - by gartenkralleb

  hi, i have an android-app with a listview in an activity. the listview has, if i call it so, three data states. no data loaded from inet - only one dummy item is visible, saying that data is loading data is loaded and shown in list one listitem is clicked and now shows more information for this listitem (so it is increased in its height) on every state change (1 - 2, 2 - 3) i call notifyDataSetChanged() on this ListAdapater. this causes the listview to scroll down to the last item. this is ugly in the first transition and even more ugly in the second because the clicked list item is now out of focus. as i can see, this happens with a google g1 with android 1.6. a htc touch with the same sdk acts like desired (i try to figure it out with some more devices). to avoid this i tried to read out getScrollY() and set this value back. but this returns 0. the reason for this return value i already found on stackoverflow in other qutestions. does anyone else comes along with my problem so far? why does the listview scrolls to the last item? it was mentioned, that listview does keep track on the scroll position. but it seems that it does not in my case. or may i call the wrong refresh method? is notifyDataSetChanged the correct one?

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• Pass dataset to subreport with SQL Server Reporting Services

  - by Juliet

  I'm using SQL Server Reporting Services and the report designer that comes with Visual Studio. I've got a really big report. It's actually so large that Visual Studio hangs (sometimes for hours at a time) or just crashes when I make changes. There is preciously little I can do to solve the problem, so I've decided to just move the bottom half of the report into a sub-report. So, I started with one enormous, unresponsive report and ended with two small, manageable reports -- surprisingly, this actually works. One problem: my subreport uses the same data as my main report. Right now, it populates its dataset by re-querying the database. The extra round-trip to the database causes the report to take twice as long to generate; up from 45 minutes to 1 1/2 hours to generate. I'd like to avoid hitting the database again, and instead use the same dataset in both reports. How can I share or pass a dataset between a report and subreport?

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• Crystal Reports Reportviewer - Set Datasource Dynamically Not Working :argh:

  - by Albert

  I'm running CR XI, and accessing .RPT files through a ReportViewer in my ASP.NET pages. I've already got the following code, which is supposed to set the Report Datasource dynamically. rptSP = New ReportDocument Dim rptPath As String = Request.QueryString("report") rptSP.Load(rptPath.ToString, 0) Dim SConn As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionStringBuilder(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ConnectionString) rptSP.DataSourceConnections(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog).SetConnection(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog, SConn.UserID, SConn.Password) Dim myConnectionInfo As ConnectionInfo = New ConnectionInfo myConnectionInfo.ServerName = SConn.DataSource myConnectionInfo.DatabaseName = SConn.InitialCatalog myConnectionInfo.UserID = SConn.UserID myConnectionInfo.Password = SConn.Password 'Two new methods to loop through all objects and tables contained in the requested report and set 'login credentials for each object and table. SetDBLogonForReport(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) SetDBLogonForSubreports(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) Me.CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = rptSP But when I go into each .RPT file, and open up the Database Expert section, there is obviously still servernames hardcoded in there, and the code listed above doesn't seem to be able to change the servernames that are hardcoded there. I say this because I have training and production environments. When the .RPT file is hardcoded with my production server, and I open it on my training server with the code above (and the web.config has the training server in the connection string), I get the ol: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. And then if I go into the .RPT file, and change over the datasource to the training server, and try to open it again, it works fine. Why doesn't the code above overwrite the .RPT files datasource? How can I avoid having to open up each .RPT and change the datasource when migrating reports from server to server? Is there a setting in the .RPT file I'm missing or something?

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• Deserialization error using Runtime Serialization with the Binary Formatter

  - by Lily

  When I am deserializing a hierarchy I get the following error The input stream is not a valid binary format. The starting contents (in bytes) are The input stream is not a valid binary format. The starting contents (in bytes) are: 20-01-20-20-20-FF-FF-FF-FF-01-20-20-20-20-20-20-20 ..." Any help please? Extra info: public void Serialize(ISyntacticNode person) { Stream stream = File.Open(fileName, FileMode.OpenOrCreate); try { BinaryFormatter binary = new BinaryFormatter(); pList.Add(person); binary.Serialize(stream, pList); stream.Close(); } catch { stream.Close(); } } public List<ISyntacticNode> Deserialize() { Stream stream = File.Open(fileName, FileMode.OpenOrCreate); BinaryFormatter binary = new BinaryFormatter(); try { pList = (List<ISyntacticNode>)binary.Deserialize(stream); binary.Serialize(stream, pList); stream.Close(); } catch { pList = new List<ISyntacticNode>(); binary.Serialize(stream, pList); stream.Close(); } return pList; } I am Serializing a hierarchy which is of type Proxem.Antelope.Parsing.ISyntacticNode Now I have gotten this error System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException: Binary stream '116' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or object version change between serialization and deserialization. i'm using a different instance. How may I avoid this error please

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• Printer Redirection from 2003 Terminal Server to 2008 Terminal Server

  - by xmaveric

  Our environment is a terminal server cluster (Win2003 servers) that everyone connects to do do their work. I have set up a new Win2008 R2 machine with the intention of using it to publish our main application to the TS farm. The idea was to keep this server dedicated to one application to avoid driver/dll conflicts with other software. I created a RemoteApp on the new server and made an .rdp file and placed it on the desktop of our TS farm servers. The problem I am running into is that when I connect to the RemoteApp, it doesn't show the printers that are installed on the TS server I am connecting from. We have over 20 printers installed on our TS servers, each with different drivers and permissions. I really do not want to reinstall all of these on the RemoteApp server so I was hoping Printer Redirection would handle this. It would appear that because the RDP client for Server 2003 x64 is 6.0, that version doesn't support the Easy Print feature (requires 6.1). I can't find any newer version on the MS site to download for Win2003 x64. How can I get the printers on the TS farm machine to redirect so they are viewed by the RemoteApp machine?

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• Model validation with enumerable properties in Asp.net MVC2 RTM

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I'm using DataAnnotations attributes to validate my model objects. My model class looks similar to this: public class MyModel { [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public List<User> Editors { get; set; } } public class User { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string FullName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Email)] public string Email { get; set; } } My controller action looks like: public ActionResult NewItem(MyModel data) { //... } User is presented with a view that has a form with: a text box with dummy name where users enter user's names. For each user they enter, there's a client script coupled with ajax that creates an <input type="hidden" name="data.Editors[0].Id" value="userId" /> for each user entered (enumeration index is therefore not always 0 as written here), so default model binder is able to consume and bind the form without any problems. a text box where users enter the title Since I'm using Asp.net MVC 2 RTM which does model validation instead of input validation I don't know how to avoid validation errors. The thing is I have to use BindAttribute on my controller action. I would have to either provide a white or a black list of properties. It's always a better practice to provide a white list. It's also more future proof. The problem My form works fine, but I get validation errors about user's FullName and Email properties since they are not provided. I also shouldn't feed them to the client (via ajax when user enters user data), because email is personal contact data and is not shared between users. If there was just a single user reference on MyModel I would write [Bind(Include = "Title, Editor.Id")] But I have an enumeration of them. How do I provide Bind white list to work with my model?

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• Linq to SQL and concurrency with Rob Conery repository pattern

  - by David Hall

  I have implemented a DAL using Rob Conery's spin on the repository pattern (from the MVC Storefront project) where I map database objects to domain objects using Linq and use Linq to SQL to actually get the data. This is all working wonderfully giving me the full control over the shape of my domain objects that I want, but I have hit a problem with concurrency that I thought I'd ask about here. I have concurrency working but the solution feels like it might be wrong (just one of those gitchy feelings). The basic pattern is: private MyDataContext _datacontext private Table _tasks; public Repository(MyDataContext datacontext) { _dataContext = datacontext; } public void GetTasks() { _tasks = from t in _dataContext.Tasks; return from t in _tasks select new Domain.Task { Name = t.Name, Id = t.TaskId, Description = t.Description }; } public void SaveTask(Domain.Task task) { Task dbTask = null; // Logic for new tasks omitted... dbTask = (from t in _tasks where t.TaskId == task.Id select t).SingleOrDefault(); dbTask.Description = task.Description, dbTask.Name = task.Name, _dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } So with that implementation I've lost concurrency tracking because of the mapping to the domain task. I get it back by storing the private Table which is my datacontext list of tasks at the time of getting the original task. I then update the tasks from this stored Table and save what I've updated This is working - I get change conflict exceptions raised when there are concurrency violations, just as I want. However, it just screams to me that I've missed a trick. Is there a better way of doing this? I've looked at the .Attach method on the datacontext but that appears to require storing the original version in a similar way to what I'm already doing. I also know that I could avoid all this by doing away with the domain objects and letting the Linq to SQL generated objects all the way up my stack - but I dislike that just as much as I dislike the way I'm handling concurrency.

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• Serializing java objects with respect to xml schema loaded at runtime

  - by kohomologie

  I call an XML document three-layered if its structure is laid out as following: the root element contains some container elements (I'll call them entities), each of them has some simpleType elements inside (I'll call them properties). Something like that: <data> <spaceship> <number>1024</number> <name>KTHX</name> </spaceship> <spaceship> <number>1624</number> <name>LEXX</name> </spaceship> <knife> <length>10</length> </knife> </data> where spaceship is an entity, and number is a property. My problem is stated below: Given schema: an arbitrary xsd file describing a three-layered document, loaded at runtime. xmlDocument: an xml document conforming to the schema. Create A Map<String, Map <String, Object>> containing data from the xmlDocument, where first key corresponds to entity, second key correponds to this entity's property, and the value corresponds to this property's value, after casting it to a proper java type (for example, if the schema sets the property value to be xs:int, then it should be cast to Integer). What is the easiest way to achieve this result with existing libraries? P. S. JAXB is not really an option here. The schema might be arbitrary and unknown at compile-time. Also I wish to avoid an excessive use of reflection (associated with converting the beans to maps). I'm looking for something that would allow me to make the typecasts while xml is being parsed.

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• iPhone app linker error on Snow Leopard (Only on simulator)

  - by RexOnRoids

  Im getting this linker error that won't let me compile. It only happens on the simulator. NOTE: - OSX 10.6.2 but had to use 10.5 as build target to avoid other linker errors - libxml2.dylib IS required and is in my Frameworks group - The other cited libraries I have never heard of. - Tried bringing in those other Libs under frameworks, didn't solve. Build SpaceTweet of project SpaceTweet with configuration Debug Ld build/Debug-iphonesimulator/SpaceTweet.app/SpaceTweet normal i386 cd "/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)" setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.5 setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin/gcc-4.2 -arch i386 -isysroot /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.1.3.sdk "-L/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/Debug-iphonesimulator" -L/Users/Scott/Desktop "-L/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/../../libYAJLIPhone-0" -L/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib -L/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.1.3.sdk/usr/lib -L/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.0.sdk/usr/lib "-F/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/Debug-iphonesimulator" -filelist "/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/SpaceTweet.build/Debug-iphonesimulator/SpaceTweet.build/Objects-normal/i386/SpaceTweet.LinkFileList" -mmacosx-version-min=10.5 -framework Foundation -framework UIKit -framework CoreGraphics -framework AVFoundation -framework MessageUI -lYAJLIPhone -lxml2 -o "/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/Debug-iphonesimulator/SpaceTweet.app/SpaceTweet" ld: warning: in /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib/libxml2.dylib, missing required architecture i386 in file ld: warning: in /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib/libSystem.dylib, missing required architecture i386 in file ld: in /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib/libobjc.A.dylib, missing required architecture i386 in file collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Command /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin/gcc-4.2 failed with exit code 1

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• Access variables between nested JSP tags

  - by user308053

  I would like to exchange information between two nested JSP tagx artifacts. To give an example: list.jspx <myNs:table data="${myTableData}"> <myNs:column property="firstName" label="First Name"/> <myNs:column property="lastName" label="Last Name"/> </myNs:table> Now, the table.tagx is supposed to display the data columns as defined in the nested column tags. The question is how do I get access to the values of the property and label attributes of the nested column tags from the table tag. I tried jsp:directive.variable but that seems only to work to exchange information between a jsp and a tag, but not between nested tags. Note, I would like to avoid using java backing objects for both the table and the column tags at all. I would also like to know how I can access an attribute defined by a parent tag (in this example I would like to access the contents of the data attribute in table.tagx from column.tagx). So it boils down to how can I access variables between nested JSP tags which are purely implemented through the tag definitions themselves (no Java TagHandler implementation desired)?

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• Mocking the CAL EventAggregator with Moq

  - by toxvaerd

  Hi, I'm using the Composite Application Library's event aggregator, and would like to create a mock for the IEventAggregator interface, for use in my unit test. I'm planning on using Moq for this task, and an example test so far looks something like this: var mockEventAggregator = new Mock<IEventAggregator>(); var mockImportantEvent = new Mock<ImportantEvent>(); mockEventAggregator.Setup(e => e.GetEvent<SomeOtherEvent>()).Returns(new Mock<SomeOtherEvent>().Object); mockEventAggregator.Setup(e => e.GetEvent<SomeThirdEvent>()).Returns(new Mock<SomeThirdEvent>().Object); // ... mockEventAggregator.Setup(e => e.GetEvent<ImportantEvent>()).Returns(mockImportantEvent.Object); mockImportantEvent.Setup(e => e.Publish(It.IsAny<ImportantEventArgs>())); // ...Actual test... mockImportantEvent.VerifyAll(); This works fine, but I would like know, if there is some clever way to avoid having to define an empty mock for every event-type my code might encounter (SomeOtherEvent, SomeThirdEvent, ...)? I could of course define all my events this way in a [TestInitialize] method, but I would like to know if there is a more clever way? :-)

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• WPF combobox loses Aero theme when using a style trigger

  - by Greg R

  I am using style triggers to change combo box to texbox if it's readonly, but for some reason when I apply the style, it cause the combobox theme to change from Aero to Windows Classic (the theme I currently have in use on my PC). Can I avoid this somehow? Here is my code: <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource AllCountries}}" SelectedValue="{Binding OrderInfoVm.BillingCountry}" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedValuePath="Key" IsReadOnly="{Binding ReadOnlyMode}" Style="{StaticResource EditableDropDown}" /> <Style x:Key="EditableDropDown" TargetType="ComboBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsReadOnly" Value="True"> <Setter Property="SelectedValuePath" Value="Content" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ComboBox"> <TextBox Text="{TemplateBinding SelectedValue, Converter={StaticResource StringCaseConverter}}" BorderThickness="0" Background="Transparent" FontSize="{TemplateBinding FontSize}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalAlignment}" FontFamily="{TemplateBinding FontFamily}" Width="{TemplateBinding Width}" TextWrapping="Wrap"/> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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• jQuery hiding a div on click outside

  - by Lee

  Hi All I would like to build a simple menu for each list element clicked on but hide this div once you click outside it. Here is some simple code which hopefully will make sense. $('.drillFolder').click(function(){ var id = $(this).attr('data-folder'); $(".drillDownFolder ul li > a").attr('data-id', id); $(".drillDownFolder").show(); }); $("body").click(function(e){ if(e.target.className !== "drillDownFolder") { $(".drillDownFolder").hide(); } }); //The hidden div <div class="drillDownFolder" style="display:none"> <ul> <li><a href="#" data-id="">Show Image</a></li> <li><a href="#" data-id="">Edit Image</a></li> </ul> </div> I know whats wrong as the menu is show via the .drillFolder links the body click is then hiding it straight away. How can I avoid this. Thank you if you can advise

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• Notification Email Best Practices--From Server Setup to Programming

  - by Andrew Wagner

  All, I'm in the process now of building a SaaS tool that allows network admins to generate notification emails to the members of the end-users of our platform (among many many other things). I'm running into a bit of an "out of my expertise" wall, as I know there are a lot of variables involved with configuring an application that can: Run in a distributed way via load balancing and still-- Leverage a single mail server for sending notification emails Process unsubscribe requests Avoid any ISP blacklisting in the process. If anyone has the time and has done this before, I'd love if you could walk me through the A-Z of best practices both from a configuration perspective and an execution perspective for generating these emails (anything from necessary DNS settings to ideal SMTP setup and configuration) Currently, our application generates email via Google Apps using the PHPMailer class. While this works well, it doesn't queue messages (potential for timeout problems if any of our clients amass a very large list of end-users), and Google limits the amount of allowed generated email messages to 500/day. I know this is a lofty question, but any guidance you could provide would be smashing and a big help as we work through this hurtle in our beta development stage. Thanks!

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• DataGridView row is still dirty after committing changes

  - by Ecyrb

  DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty remains true after I commit changes to the database. I want to set it to false so it doesn't trigger RowValidating when it loses focus. I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList<T>. I handle the CellEndEdit event and save changes to the database. After saving those changes I would like DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be set to true, since all cells in the row are up-to-date; however, it's set to false. This causes problems for me because when the row does lose focus it will trigger RowValidating, which I handle and validate all three cells in. So even though all the cells are valid and none are dirty it will still validate them all. That's a waste. Here's an example of what I have: void dataGridView_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { // Ignore cell if it's not dirty if (dataGridView.isCurrentCellDirty) return; // Validate current cell. } void dataGridView_RowValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellCancelEventArgs e) { // Ignore Row if it's not dirty if (!dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty) return; // Validate all cells in the current row. } void dataGridView_CellEndEdit(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { // Validate all cells in the current row and return if any are invalid. // If they are valid, save changes to the database // This is when I would expect dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be false. // When this row loses focus it will trigger RowValidating and validate all // cells in this row, which we already did above. } I've read posts that said I could call the form's Validate() method, but that will cause RowValidating to fire, which is what I'm trying to avoid. Any idea how I can set DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to true? Or maybe a way to prevent RowValidating from unnecessarily validating all the cells?

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• LINQ To SQL ignore unique constraint exception and continue

  - by Martin

  I have a single table in a database called Users Users ------ ID (PK, Identity) Username (Unique Index) I have setup a unique index on the Username table to prevent duplicates. I am then enumerating through a collection and creating a new user in the database for each item. What I want to do is just insert a new user and ignore the exception if the unique key constraint is violated (as it's clearly a duplicate record in that case). This is to avoid having to craft where not exists kind of queries. First off, is this going to be any more efficient or should my insert code be checking for duplicates instead? I'm drawn more to the database having that logic as this prevents any other type of client from inserting duplicate data. My other issue is related to LINQ To SQL. I have the following code: public class TestRepo { DatabaseDataContext database = new DatabaseDataContext(); public void Add(string username) { database.Users.InsertOnSubmit(new User() { Username = username }); } public void Save() { database.SubmitChanges(); } } And then I iterate over a collection and insert new users, ignoring any exceptions: TestRepo repo = new TestRepo(); foreach (var name in new string[] { "Tim", "Bob", "John" }) { try { repo.Add(name); repo.Save(); } catch { } } The first time this is run, great I have three users in the table. If I remove the second one and run this code again, nothing is inserted. I expected the first insert to fail with the exception, the second to succeed (as I just removed that item from the DB) and the third to then fail. What seems to be happening is that once the SqlException is thrown (even though the loop continues to iterate) all of the next inserts fail - even when there isn't a row in the table that would cause a unique violation. Can anyone explain this? P.S. The only workaround I could find was to instantiate the repo each time before the insert, then it worked exactly as excepted - indicating that it's something to do with the LINQ To SQL DataContext. Thanks.

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• Handle URI hacking gracefully in ASP.NET

  - by asbjornu

  I've written an application that handles most exceptions gracefully, with the page's design intact and a pretty error message. My application catches them all in the Page_Error event and there adds the exception to HttpContext.Curent.Context.Items and then does a Server.Transfer to an Error.aspx page. I find this to be the only viable solution in ASP.NET as there seems to be no other way to do it in a centralized and generic manner. I also handle the Application_Error and there I do some inspection on the exception that occurred to find out if I can handle it gracefully or not. Exceptions I've found I can handle gracefully are such that are thrown after someone hacking the URI to contain characters the .NET framework considers dangerous or basically just illegal at the file system level. Such URIs can look like e.g.: http://exmample.com/"illegal" http://example.com/illegal"/ http://example.com/illegal / (notice the space before the slash at the end of the last URI). I'd like these URIs to respond with a "404 Not Found" and a friendly message as well as not causing any error report to be sent to avoid DDOS attack vectors and such. I have, however, not found an elegant way to catch these types of errors. What I do now is inspect the exception.TargetSite.Name property, and if it's equal to CheckInvalidPathChars, ValidatePath or CheckSuspiciousPhysicalPath, I consider it a "path validation exception" and respond with a 404. This seems like a hack, though. First, the list of method names is probably not complete in any way and second, there's the possibility that these method names gets replaced or renamed down the line which will cause my code to break. Does anyone have an idea how I can handle this less hard-coded and much more future-proof way? PS: I'm using System.Web.Routing in my application to have clean and sensible URIs, if that is of any importance to any given solution.

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