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• Unable to access SQL reporting services on shared site with Themes enabled

  - by Grant

  Hi, i am having some trouble with my IIS web server & SQL reporting services. At the current time my site is playing host to both reporting services (/reports & /reportserver) as well as my personal website (domain.com) Only just recently have i implemented a Theme on my site and as such i have placed a statement in my web.config file directing it to apply a certain theme in the following manner <pages styleSheetTheme="General"> Because of this when i try to access the report pages it failed telling me it couldnt find the Theme so what i did was locate the source files for the /reports & /reportserver directories and place the App_Theme folder in them hoping that would sort everything out. What i am getting now is the following error *Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. e.g. head runat="server" * Does anyone know how i can get around this? Do i have to hack the sql reporting aspx pages? Please note i do NOT want to remove the web.config declaration.

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• CSS "Cover" - No scroll bars?

  - by Lynda

  I am using the cover property to create a background image that fills the background and resizes with the browser. But I run into one issue, the page has a lot of content and no scroll bars appear for me to scroll down! Here is the code I am using: body{ background: url(path.jpg) no-repeat center center fixed; -webkit-background-size: cover; -moz-background-size: cover; -o-background-size: cover; /* Cover for IE 7/8 */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); -ms-filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); /* End Cover for IE 7/8 */ background-size: cover; background-color: transparent !important; position:fixed; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height:100%; max-width:2500px; max-height:1500px; z-index:1; } If I remove position:fixed; I get the scroll bars back but the background image disappears. What is the best way to tackle this and have both scroll bars and the background cover image? Note: I am using jQuery and would use a JS answer if it works (though I prefer a CSS only answer.)

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• IE7 & 8 not fireing jQuery click events for elements appended inside a table

  - by Keith

  I have an IE bug that I'm not sure how to fix. Using jQuery I'm dynamically moving a menu to appear on an element on mouseover. My code (simplified) looks something like this: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready(function() { //do something on the menu clicks $j('div.ico').click(function() { alert($j(this).parent().html()); }); setUpActions('#tableId', '#menuId'); }); //on mouseover set up the actions menu to appear on mouseover function setUpActions(tableSelector, menuSelector) { $j(tableSelector + ' div.test').mouseover(function() { //note that append will move the underlying //DOM element with all events from it's old //parent to the end of this one. $j(this).append($j(menuSelector).show()); }); } This menu doesn't seem to register events correctly for the menu after it's been moved in IE7, IE8 and IE8-as-IE7 (yeah MS, that's really a 'new rendering engine' in IE8, we all believe you). It works as expected in everything else. You can see the behaviour in a basic demo here. In the demo you can see two examples of the issue: The image behind the buttons should change on hover (done with a CSS :hover selector). It works on the first mouseover but then persists. The click event doesn’t fire – however with the dev tools you can manually call it and it is still subscribed. You can see (2) in IE8's dev tools: Open page in IE8 Open dev tools Select "Script" tab and "Console" sub-tab Type: $j('#testFloat div.ico:first').click() to manually call any subscribed events There will be an alert on the page This means that I'm not losing the event subscriptions, they're still there, IE's just not calling them when I click. Does anyone know why this bug occurs (other than just because of IE's venerable engine)? Is there a workaround? Could it be something that I'm doing wrong that just happens to work as expected in everything else?

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• Comparison of Java and .NET technologies/frameworks

  - by Paul Sasik

  I work in a shop that is a mix of mostly Java and .NET technologists. When discussing new solutions and architectures we often encounter impedance in trying to compare the various technologies, frameworks, APIs etc. in use between the two camps. It seems that each camp knows little about the other and we end up comparing apples to oranges and forgetting about the bushels. While researching the topic I found this: Java -- .Net rough equivalents It's a nice list but it's not quite exhaustive and is missing the key .NET 3.0 technologies and a few other tidbits. To complete that list: what are the near/rough equivalents (or a combination of technologies) in Java to the following in .NET? WCF WPF Silverlight = JavaFx WF = jBMP (Java Business Process Management) Generics Lambda expressions = lambdaJ project or Closures Linq (not Linq-to-SQL) ...have i missed anything else? Note that I omitted technologies that are already covered in the linked article. I would also like to hear feedback on whether the linked article is accurate. Thanks. (Will CW if requested.)

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• Help with c# event listening and usercontrols

  - by Jen

  OK so I have a page which has a listview on it. Inside the item template of the listview is a usercontrol. This usercontrol is trying to trigger an event so that the hosting page can listen to it. My problem is that the event is not being triggered as the handler is null. (ie. EditDateRateSelected is my handler and its null when debugging) protected void lnkEditDate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (EditDateRateSelected != null) EditDateRateSelected(Convert.ToDateTime(((LinkButton)frmViewRatesDate.Row.FindControl("lnkEditDate")).Text)); } On the item data bound of my listvew is where I'm adding my event handlers protected void PropertyAccommodationRates1_ItemDataBound(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListViewItemType.DataItem) { UserControls_RatesEditDate RatesViewDate1 = (UserControls_RatesEditDate)e.Item.FindControl("RatesViewDate1"); RatesViewDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); RatesViewDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } RatesViewDate1.Rate = (PropertyCMSRate)((ListViewDataItem)e.Item).DataItem; } } My event code all works fine if the control is inside the page and on page load I have the line: RatesEditDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); But obviously I need listen for events inside the listviewcontrols. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. I have tried setting EnableViewState to true for my listview but that hasn't made a difference. Is there somewhere else I'm supposed to be wiring up the control handler? Note - apologies if I've got my terminology wrong and I'm referring to delegates as handlers and such :)

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• CSS of iFramed page not being applied properly

  - by Mike E.

  My company has purchased a third-party package with a built-in customer facing web portal, and I'm being tasked with integrating it into our site. Unfortunately, the web portal does not look great, and we have absolutely no control over how it looks (other than asking the vendor for changes - $$). In order to make it look somewhat like the rest of our site, I've stuck it in an iFrame (I'm not thrilled about this either) to put our logo and top navigation on it. Please note, I am not attempting to manipulate the iframed page in any way. Firefox handles this just fine, but in IE7 and IE8, not all of the CSS is being applied properly when the application's pages are displayed in the iFrame. Specifically, it should be applying a font-family of Arial to all TDs, but some text inside TDs are not being displayed as Arial. Any ideas as to what is going on? This only happens when the pages are viewed inside the iFrame. Outside the iFrame, the CSS is applied as it should be. I'm guessing we're going to have to get our vendor to make some changes, but I'd love to know why the iFrame is impacting the page like this. Thanks!

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• Application Code Redesign to reduce no. of Database Hits from Performance Perspective

  - by Rachel

  Scenario I want to parse a large CSV file and inserts data into the database, csv file has approximately 100K rows of data. Currently I am using fgetcsv to parse through the file row by row and insert data into Database and so right now I am hitting database for each line of data present in csv file so currently database hit count is 100K which is not good from performance point of view. Current Code: public function initiateInserts() { //Open Large CSV File(min 100K rows) for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'r') or die('Cannot open file'); //Parsing Large CSV file to get data and initiate insertion into schema. while (($data=fgetcsv($this->fin,5000,";"))!==FALSE) { $query = "INSERT INTO dt_table (id, code, connectid, connectcode) VALUES (:id, :code, :connectid, :connectcode)"; $stmt = $this->prepare($query); // Then, for each line : bind the parameters $stmt->bindValue(':id', $data[0], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':code', $data[1], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectid', $data[2], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectcode', $data[3], PDO::PARAM_INT); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $this->checkForErrors($stmt); } } I am looking for a way wherein instead of hitting Database for every row of data, I can prepare the query and than hit it once and populate Database with the inserts. Any Suggestions !!! Note: This is the exact sample code that I am using but CSV file has more no. of field and not only id, code, connectid and connectcode but I wanted to make sure that I am able to explain the logic and so have used this sample code here. Thanks !!!

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• Pointers and Addresses in C

  - by Mohit

  #include "stdio.h" main() { int i=3,*x; float j=1.5,*y; char k='c',*z; x=&i; y=&j; z=&k; printf("\nAddress of x= %u",x); printf("\nAddress of y= %u",y); printf("\nAddress of z= %u",z); x++; y++;y++;y++;y++; z++; printf("\nNew Address of x= %u",x); printf("\nNew Address of y= %u",y); printf("\nNew Address of z= %u",z); printf("\nNew Value of i= %d",i); printf("\nNew Value of j= %f",j); printf("\nNew Value of k= %c\n",k); } Output: Address of x= 3219901868 Address of y= 3219901860 Address of z= 3219901875 New Address of x= 3219901872 New Address of y= 3219901876 New Address of z= 3219901876 New Value of i= 3 New Value of j= 1.500000 New Value of k= c The new address of variable y and z are same. How can two variables have same address and et have different values? Note: I used gcc compiler on Ubuntu 9.04

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• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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• Why Backbone.js isn't binding my event

  - by Saif Bechan

  I have a router like this, as main entry point: window.AppRouter = Backbone.Router.extend({ routes: { '': 'login' }, login: function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); } }); var appRouter = new AppRouter; Backbone.history.start({pushState: true}); I have a model/collection/view like this: window.User = Backbone.Model.extend({}); window.Users = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: User }); window.UserLoginView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click #login-button': 'loginAction' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'loginAction'); }, loginAction: function(){ var uid = $("#login-username").val(); var pwd = $("#login-password").val(); var user = new User({uid:uid, pwd:pwd}); } }); And body of my HTML looks like this: <form action="#" method="POST" id="login-form"> <p> <label for="login-username">username</label> <input type="text" id="login-username" autofocus /> </p> <p> <label for="login-password">password</label> <input type="password" id="login-password" /> </p> <a id="login-button" href="#">Inloggen</a> </form> Note: The HTML comes from Node.js using express.js, should I maybe wait for a document ready event somewhere? Edit: I have tried this, create the view when ready, did not solve the problem. $(function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); });

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• Information about PTE's (Page Table Entries) in Windows

  - by Patrick

  In order to find more easily buffer overflows I am changing our custom memory allocator so that it allocates a full 4KB page instead of only the wanted number of bytes. Then I change the page protection and size so that if the caller writes before or after its allocated piece of memory, the application immediately crashes. Problem is that although I have enough memory, the application never starts up completely because it runs out of memory. This has two causes: since every allocation needs 4 KB, we probably reach the 2 GB limit very soon. This problem could be solved if I would make a 64-bit executable (didn't try it yet). even when I only need a few hundreds of megabytes, the allocations fail at a certain moment. The second problem is the biggest one, and I think it's related to the maximum number of PTE's (page table entries, which store information on how Virtual Memory is mapped to physical memory, and whether pages should be read-only or not) you can have in a process. My questions (or a cry-for-tips): Where can I find information about the maximum number of PTE's in a process? Is this different (higher) for 64-bit systems/applications or not? Can the number of PTE's be configured in the application or in Windows? Thanks, Patrick PS. note for those who will try to argument that you shouldn't write your own memory manager: My application is rather specific so I really want full control over memory management (can't give any more details) Last week we had a memory overwrite which we couldn't find using the standard C++ allocator and the debugging functionality of the C/C++ run time (it only said "block corrupt" minutes after the actual corruption") We also tried standard Windows utilities (like GFLAGS, ...) but they slowed down the application by a factor of 100, and couldn't find the exact position of the overwrite either We also tried the "Full Page Heap" functionality of Application Verifier, but then the application doesn't start up either (probably also running out of PTE's)

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• CSS to create curved corner between two elements?

  - by Tauren

  My UI has an unordered list on the left. When a list item is selected, a div appears on the right of it. I'd like to have a curved outer corner where the <li> and the <div> meet. See the white arrow in the image below. To extend the blue <li> to the edge of the <ul>, I'm planning to do something like this: li { right-margin: 2em; border-radius: 8px; } li.active { right-margin: 0; border-bottom-right-radius: 0; border-top-right-radius: 0; } Is there a better way to extend the <li> to the edge of the <ul>? Obviously, I'll include the webkit and mozilla border radius CSS as well. The main thing I'm unsure about is that outer corner underneath the bottom right corner of the active <li>. I have some ideas, but they seem like hacks. Any suggestions? NOTE that the <ul> is indicated in grey, but it would be white in the real design. Also, I'm planning to use Javascript to position the <div> correctly when an <li> is selected.

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• Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

  - by Mike Monkiewicz

  So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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• Disabling browser print options (headers, footers, margins) from page?

  - by Anthony

  I have seen this question asked in a couple of different ways on SO and several other websites, but most of them are either too specific or out-of-date. I'm hoping someone can provide a definitive answer here without pandering to speculation. Is there a way, either with CSS or javascript, to change the default printer settings when someone prints within their browser? And of course by "prints from their browser" I mean some form of HTML, not PDF or some other plug-in reliant mime-type. Please note: If some browsers offer this and others don't (or if you only know how to do it for some browsers) I welcome browser-specific solutions. Similarly, if you know of a mainstream browser that has specific restrictions against EVER doing this, that is also helpful, but some fairly up-to-date documentation would be appreciated. (simply saying "that goes against XYZ's security policy" isn't very convincing when XYZ has made significant changes in said policy in the last three years). Finally, when I say "change default print settings" I don't mean forever, just for my page, and I am referring specifically to print margins, headers, and footers. I am very aware that CSS offers the option of changing the page orientation as well as the page margins. One of the many struggles is with Firefox. If I set the page margins to 1 inch, it ADDS this to the half inch it already puts into place. I very much want to reduce the usage of PDFs on my client's site, but the infringement on presentation (as well as the lack of reliability) are their main concern.

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• What should I do from here?

  - by Sunscreen

  Hi all, First of all, the site rocks. You can ask and get specific answers, mainly, for programming issues. This question is more generic. I studied Physics for my bachelors and Digital Image Processing for my masters, ended on September 2001. From then on I started working as a developer and software analyst. I worked, and working, witn C, C++, AIX OS, XP OS, MFC 4.21. I also did some data translations from EDIFACT to XML and viceversa. I trained users for the applications that I was running, I created documents (detailed design docs mainly), though most of the time I wrote, and I still write, code. Recently I applied for the best greek, graduate university for my MBA and they accepted me, starting on Jan 2011. I am a developer with no specific insight with the languages I work. I can be very productive with some subsets of the languages that the companies I worked for use, though this is a limited thing for a developer. If I get my MBA I can be a semi-businees analyst ot consultant, as I am now a semi-developer. The problem is that I can do some but not all in a designated working area. What should I do from here? Should I get my MBA and look forswitching industries? Should I read and excersise myself with new languages and frameworks? Should I be more focussed to the deligations from my current job (currently I work with MFC)? Just for the note, I am 32 and I feel I am wasting my time. I am not getting the best that I can get from is current position (and I work here for 3+ years). Thanks all, Sun

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• Improve a regex statement in order to be as efficient as it can be

  - by user551625

  I have a PHP program that, at some point, needs to analyze a big amount of HTML+javascript text to parse info. All I want to parse needs to be in two parts. Seperate all "HTML goups" to parse Parse each HTML group to get the needed information. In the 1st parse it needs to find: <div id="myHome" And start capturing after that tag. Then stop capturing before <span id="nReaders" And capture the number that comes after this tag and stop. In the 2nd parse use the capture nº 1 (0 has the whole thing and 2 has the number) from the parse made before and then find . I already have code to do that and it works. Is there a way to improve this, make it easier for the machine to parse? preg_match_all('%<div id="myHome"[^>]>(.*?)<span id="nReaders[^>]>([0-9]+)<"%msi', $data, $results, PREG_SET_ORDER); foreach($results AS $result){ preg_match_all('%<div class="myplacement".*?[.]php[?]((?:next|before))=([0-9]+).*?<tbody.*?<td[^>]>.*?[0-9]+"%msi', $result[1], $mydata, PREG_SET_ORDER); //takes care of the data and finish the program Note: I need this for a freeware program so it must be as general as possible and, if possible, not use php extensions ADD: I ommitted some parts here because I didn't expect for answers like those. There is also a need to parse text inside one of the tags that is in the document. It may be the 6th 7th or 8th tag but I know it is after a certain tag. The parser I've checked (thx profitphp) does work to find the script tag. What now? There are more than 1 tag with the same class. I want them all. But I want only with also one of a list of classes..... Where can I find instructions and demos and limitations of DOM parsers (like the one in http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/)? I need something that will work on, at least, a big amount of free servers.

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• Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

  - by MrKishi

  Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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• Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

  - by macias

  I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

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• How do you prove a function works?

  - by glenn I.

  I've recently gotten the testing religion and have started primarily with unit testing. I code unit tests which illustrate that a function works under certain cases, specifically using the exact inputs I'm using. I may do a number of unit tests to exercise the function. Still, I haven't actually proved anything other than the function does what I expect it to do under the scenarios I've tested. There may be other inputs and scenarios I haven't thought of and thinking of edge cases is expensive, particularly on the margins. This is all not very satisfying to do me. When I start to think of having to come up with tests to satisfy branch and path coverage and then integration testing, the prospective permutations can become a little maddening. So, my question is, how can one prove (in the same vein of proving a theorem in mathematics) that a function works (and, in a perfect world, compose these 'proofs' into a proof that a system works)? Is there a certain area of testing that covers an approach where you seek to prove a system works by proving that all of its functions work? Does anybody outside of academia bother with an approach like this? Are there tools and techniques to help? I realize that my use of the word 'work' is not precise. I guess I mean that a function works when it does what some spec (written or implied) states that it should do and does nothing other than that. Note, I'm not a mathematician, just a programmer.

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• Execute a block of database querys

  - by Nightmare

  I have the following task to complete: In my program a have a block of database querys or questions. I want to execute these questions and wait for the result of all questions or catch an error if one question fails! My Question object looks like this (simplified): public class DbQuestion(String sql) { [...] } [...] //The answer is just a holder for custom data... public void SetAnswer(DbAnswer answer) { //Store the answer in the question and fire a event to the listeners this.OnAnswered(EventArgs.Empty); } [...] public void SetError() { //Signal an Error in this query! this.OnError(EventArgs.Empty); } So every question fired to the database has a listener that waits for the parsed result. Now I want to fire some questions asynchronous to the database (max. 5 or so) and fire an event with the data from all questions or an error if only one question throws one! Which is the best or a good way to accomplish this task? Can I really execute more then one question parallel and stop all my work when one question throws an error? I think I need some inspiration on this... Just a note: I´m working with .NET framework 2.0

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• HMAC URLs instead of login?

  - by Tres

  In implementing my site (a Rails site if it makes any difference), one of my design priorities is to relieve the user of the need to create yet another username and password while still providing useful per-user functionality. The way I am planning to do this is: User enters information on the site. Information is associated with the user via server-side session. User completes entering information, server sends an access URL via e-mail to the user roughly in the form of: http://siteurl/<user identifier>/<signature: HMAC(secret + salt + user identifier)> User clicks URL, site looks up user ID and salt and computes the HMAC with the server-stored secret and authenticates if the computed HMAC and signature match. My question is: is this a reasonably secure way to accomplish what I'm looking to do? Are there common attacks that would render it useless? Is there a compelling reason to abandon my desire to avoid a username/password? Is there a must-read book or article on the subject? Note that I'm not dealing with credit card numbers or anything exceedingly private, but I would still like to keep the information reasonably secure.

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• How to efficiently implement a strategy pattern with spring ?

  - by Anth0

  I have a web application developped in J2EE 1.5 with Spring framework. Application contains "dashboards" which are simple pages where a bunch of information are regrouped and where user can modify some status. Managers want me to add a logging system in database for three of theses dashboards. Each dashboard has different information but the log should be traced by date and user's login. What I'd like to do is to implement the Strategy pattern kind of like this : interface DashboardLog { void createLog(String login, Date now); } // Implementation for one dashboard class PrintDashboardLog implements DashboardLog { Integer docId; String status; void createLog(String login, Date now){ // Some code } } class DashboardsManager { DashboardLog logger; String login; Date now; void createLog(){ logger.log(login,now); } } class UpdateDocAction{ DashboardsManager dbManager; void updateSomeField(){ // Some action // Now it's time to log dbManagers.setLogger = new PrintDashboardLog(docId, status); dbManagers.createLog(); } } Is it "correct" (good practice, performance, ...) to do it this way ? Is there a better way ? Note :I did not write basic stuff like constructors and getter/setter.

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• UIAlertView Will not show

  - by John

  I have a program that is requesting a JSON string. I have created a class that contains the connect method below. When the root view is coming up, it does a request to this class and method to load up some data for the root view. When I test the error code (by changing the URL host to 127.0.0.1), I expect the Alert to show. Behavior is that the root view just goes black, and the app aborts with no alert. No errors in debug mode on the console, either. Any thoughts as to this behavior? I've been looking around for hints to this for hours to no avail. Thanks in advance for your help. Note: the conditional for (error) is called, as well as the UIAlertView code. - (NSString *)connect:(NSString *)urlString { NSString *jsonString; UIApplication *app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; NSError *error = nil; NSURLResponse *response = nil; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *req = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSData *_response = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest: req returningResponse: &response error: &error]; if (error) { /* inform the user that the connection failed */ //AlertWithMessage(@"Connection Failed!", message); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Oopsie!" message:@"Unable to connect! Try later, thanks." delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles: nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } else { jsonString = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:_response encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; [url release]; return jsonString; }

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• How do I insert null fields with Perl's DBD::Pg?

  - by User1

  I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

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