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  • AngularJS: Using Shared Service(with $resource) to share data between controllers, but how to define callback functions?

    - by shaunlim
    Note: I also posted this question on the AngularJS mailing list here: https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/angular/UC8_pZsdn2U Hi All, I'm building my first AngularJS app and am not very familiar with Javascript to begin with so any guidance will be much appreciated :) My App has two controllers, ClientController and CountryController. In CountryController, I'm retrieving a list of countries from a CountryService that uses the $resource object. This works fine, but I want to be able to share the list of countries with the ClientController. After some research, I read that I should use the CountryService to store the data and inject that service into both controllers. This was the code I had before: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { return $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/client.json', {port: ':8080'}); }); CountryController: //Get list of countries //inherently async query using deferred promise $scope.countries = CountryService.query(function(result){ //preselected first entry as default $scope.selected.country = $scope.countries[0]; }); And after my changes, they look like this: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { var countryService = {}; var data; var resource = $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/country.json', {port: ':8080'}); var countries = function() { data = resource.query(); return data; } return { getCountries: function() { if(data) { console.log("returning cached data"); return data; } else { console.log("getting countries from server"); return countries(); } } }; }); CountryController: $scope.countries = CountryService.getCountries(function(result){ console.log("i need a callback function here..."); }); The problem is that I used to be able to use the callback function in $resource.query() to preselect a default selection, but now that I've moved the query() call to within my CountryService, I seemed to have lost what. What's the best way to go about solving this problem? Thanks for your help, Shaun

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  • Numbers localization

    - by Reza
    How can I set the variant of Arabic numeral without changing number characters ? Eastern Arabic ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? Persian variant ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? Western Arabic 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 here is a sample code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <meta charset="utf-8"> <head> <title></title> </head> <body> <div lang="fa">123456789</div> <div lang="ar">123456789</div> <div lang="en">123456789</div> </body> </html> Also note that in Windows text boxes (e.g. Run) numbers are displayed correctly according to surrounding text languages.

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  • Which CSS identifier is used for the selected tab in tabbed tables in browsers other than IE?

    - by David Navarre
    When you have a table on a form in Notes, you can choose to display only one row at a time (via the Special Table Row Display parameter on the Table Rows tab of the Table properties). In a Notes document displayed using Internet Explorer that contains such a table, a row is displayed with a cell for each "tab". The TD that serves as the tab for the selected "Notes table row" is assigned <td class="dominoSelTopTab">, while the other tabs get <td class="dominoTopTab">. However, when using other browsers, it's not nearly as simple. In Firefox, each "tab" ends up as a single-celled-single-row-table within the table with very little to identify it. <td><table border="1" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td><div align="center"><b>Tab 2</b></div></td></tr> </table></td> A non-selected tab would show as follows: <td><table border="1" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td><div align="center"><a name="1." href="/Projects/MyCSS.nsf/0c3b9489476440c085257a62006d97d6/d482a1767a4af77f85257a62006db064?OpenDocument&amp;TableRow=1.0#1." target="_self">Tab 1</a></div></td></tr> </table></td> So, the question is, how do I identify the selected tabs and the non-selected tabs when not using IE? Note: For those who are not Notes developers, the HTML is auto-generated from the visual design as laid out in the Notes designer client. I would replace it all with manual HTML, except there is so much of it that doing so would consume far too much time.

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  • Where are possible locations of queueing/buffering delays in Linux multicast?

    - by Matt
    We make heavy use of multicasting messaging across many Linux servers on a LAN. We are seeing a lot of delays. We basically send an enormous number of small packages. We are more concerned with latency than throughput. The machines are all modern, multi-core (at least four, generally eight, 16 if you count hyperthreading) machines, always with a load of 2.0 or less, usually with a load less than 1.0. The networking hardware is also under 50% capacity. The delays we see look like queueing delays: the packets will quickly start increasing in latency, until it looks like they jam up, then return back to normal. The messaging structure is basically this: in the "sending thread", pull messages from a queue, add a timestamp (using gettimeofday()), then call send(). The receiving program receives the message, timestamps the receive time, and pushes it in a queue. In a separate thread, the queue is processed, analyzing the difference between sending and receiving timestamps. (Note that our internal queues are not part of the problem, since the timestamps are added outside of our internal queuing.) We don't really know where to start looking for an answer to this problem. We're not familiar with Linux internals. Our suspicion is that the kernel is queuing or buffering the packets, either on the send side or the receive side (or both). But we don't know how to track this down and trace it. For what it's worth, we're using CentOS 4.x (RHEL kernel 2.6.9).

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  • How is the C++ synthesized move constructor affected by volatile and virtual members?

    - by user1827766
    Look at the following code: struct node { node(); //node(const node&); //#1 //node(node&&); //#2 virtual //#3 ~node (); node* volatile //#4 next; }; main() { node m(node()); //#5 node n=node(); //#6 } When compiled with gcc-4.6.1 it produces the following error: g++ -g --std=c++0x -c -o node.o node.cc node.cc: In constructor node::node(node&&): node.cc:3:8: error: expression node::next has side-effects node.cc: In function int main(): node.cc:18:14: note: synthesized method node::node(node&&) first required here As I understand the compiler fails to create default move or copy constructor on line #6, if I uncomment either line #1 or #2 it compiles fine, that is clear. The code compiles fine without c++0x option, so the error is related to default move constructor. However, what in the node class prevents default move constructor to be created? If I comment any of the lines #3 or #4 (i.e. make the destructor non-virtual or make data member non-volatile) it compiles again, so is it the combination of these two makes it not to compile? Another puzzle, line #5 does not cause an compilation error, what is different from line #6? Is it all specific for gcc? or gcc-4.6.1?

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  • How to post only a specific ASCX partial instead of the whole page

    - by Hallaghan
    I've got an ASPX page rendering a search ascx page which in turn will fill a grid on the main ASPX page. Aside that, I've also got an ascx page which uploads files, like this: <form method="post" action="<%= Url.Action("UploadFile") %>" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <fieldset> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <%=Html.ButtonSubmit("Upload") %> </fieldset></form> Here's the problem: imagine I have searched for a single entry to be displayed on the grid. The grid displays this single entry and after wards, I upload a file and press the button "Upload". The whole page gets posted and the content in the grid is lost, now displaying all the results available. What could I do to prevent this from happening, maintaining the grid state (we're not using ViewState) or otherwise not posting back the whole page but only the ascx with the file upload? Note: I'm new to MVC.

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  • IE6: Height "1em minus 1px"

    - by chris_l
    I need a div with a height of exactly 1em minus 1px. This can be achieved in most browsers like this: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <style type="text/css"> .helper { /* background-color: black; */ position: absolute; top: 5em; left: 5em; width: 2em; height: 1em; } .target { background-color: #89f; position: absolute; top: 0; bottom: 1px; width: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="helper"> <div class="target"></div> </div> </body> </html> The "target" div has the desired height. The problem is, that this doesn't work in IE6, because it ignores the bottom attribute, when top is set (a well known problem). Is there a workaround for IE6 (maybe with multiple nested divs, with borders/paddings/margins/whatever), or will JavaScript be the only solution? Please note, that I can't use Quirks Mode.

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  • Access-specifiers are not foolproof?

    - by Nawaz
    If I've a class like this, class Sample { private: int X; }; Then we cannot access X from outside, so this is illegal, Sample s; s.X = 10; // error - private access But we can make it accessible without editing the class! All we need to do is this, #define private public //note this define! class Sample { private: int X; }; //outside code Sample s; s.X = 10; //no error! Working code at ideone : http://www.ideone.com/FaGpZ That means, we can change the access-specifiers by defining such macros just before the class definition, or before #include <headerfile.h>, #define public private //make public private //or #define protected private //make protected private //or #define so on Isn't it a problem with C++ (Macros/access-specifiers/whatever)? Anyway, the point of this topic is: Using macros, we can easily violate encapsulation. Access-specifiers are not foolproof! Am I right?

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Adding li element only if it not already there?

    - by Legend
    I am constructing an <li> element like this: var element = $("<li></li>") .html(mHTML) .attr('id', "elemid"); I am trying to add this element to a <ul> element only if it doesn't already exist. Any ideas on how to do this? Am I supposed to use contains() to see if the ul element contain the html and then decide? For instance, <ul id="elemul"> <li id="elemli1">Element 1</li> <li id="elemli2">Element 2</li> <li id="elemli3">Element 3</li> </ul> If I try adding Element 1, it should not add it. What should I do if its a longer string (not really long but about 150 characters). Note: I cannot rely on IDs to determine the uniqueness. i.e. I might end up forming something like: <li id="elemli3">Element 1</li> Do I go about using hashmaps?

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  • ActiveRecord Validations for Models with has_many, belongs_to associations and STI

    - by keruilin
    I have four models: User Award Badge GameWeek The associations are as follows: User has many awards. Award belongs to user. Badge has many awards. Award belongs to badge. User has many game_weeks. GameWeek belongs to user. GameWeek has many awards. Award belongs to game_week. Thus, user_id, badge_id and game_week_id are foreign keys in awards table. Badge implements an STI model. Let's just say it has the following subclasses: BadgeA and BadgeB. Some rules to note: The game_week_id fk can be nil for BadgeA, but can't be nil for BadgeB. Here are my questions: For BadgeA, how do I write a validation that it can only be awarded one time? That is, the user can't have more than one -- ever. For BadgeB, how do I write a validation that it can only be awarded one time per game week?

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  • How to transform a production to LL(1) grammar for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

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  • Populating PDF Fields using FDFACX

    - by NWilliams
    I was recently asked to preform some updates to an existing PDF document. The changes required were completed using Adobe Designer (the only tool I have available to me). These changes included alignment, and new text. Note that there were fillable form fields on the forms, and they were left untouched. The saved version of the form was then put into our ASP.NET application, which pre-populates the form fields were applicable (things like name, address etc... things we have in our database). For some reason, the new form does not populate. I've confirmed that the form fields have the correct names, that the actual file (the pdf) that is being pre-populated has the same permissions as others that are working. There are no errors thrown, and no difference in a step through with a working form and a non-working form. This is a legacy project and I have no real experience with the PDF populator they are using ... FDFACX .NET? And can't find a lot of info on it online. Any ideas?

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • What are the interets of synthetic methods?

    - by romaintaz
    Problem One friend suggested an interesting problem. Given the following code: public class OuterClass { private String message = "Hello World"; private class InnerClass { private String getMessage() { return message; } } } From an external class, how may I print the message variable content? Of course, changing the accessibility of methods or fields is not allowed. (the source here, but it is a french blog) Solution The code to solve this problem is the following: try { Method m = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethod("access$000", OuterClass.class); OuterClass outerClass = new OuterClass(); System.out.println(m.invoke(outerClass, outerClass)); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Note that the access$000 method name is not really standard (even if this format is the one that is strongly recommanded), and some JVM will name this method access$0. Thus, a better solution is to check for synthetic methods: Method method = null; int i = 0; while ((method == null) && (i < OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods().length)) { if (OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i].isSynthetic()) { method = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i]; } i++; } if (method != null) { try { System.out.println(method.invoke(null, new OuterClass())); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } So the interesting point in this problem is to highlight the use of synthetic methods. With these methods, I can access a private field as it was done in the solution. Of course, I need to use reflection, and I think that the use of this kind of thing can be quite dangerous... Question What is the interest - for me, as a developer - of a synthetic method? What can be a good situation where using the synthetic can be useful?

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  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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  • PHP: Extract direct sub directory from path string

    - by Nebs
    I need to extract the name of the direct sub directory from a full path string. For example, say we have: $str = "dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4/filename.ext"; $dir = "dir1/dir2"; Then the name of the sub-directory in the $str path relative to $dir would be "dir3". Note that $dir never has '/' at the ends. So the function should be: $subdir = getsubdir($str,$dir); echo $subdir; // Outputs "dir3" If $dir="dir1" then the output would be "dir2". If $dir="dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4" then the output would be "" (empty). If $dir="" then the output would be "dir1". Etc.. Currently this is what I have, and it works (as far as I've tested it). I'm just wondering if there's a simpler way since I find I'm using a lot of string functions. Maybe there's some magic regexp to do this in one line? (I'm not too good with regexp unfortunately). function getsubdir($str,$dir) { // Remove the filename $str = dirname($str); // Remove the $dir if(!empty($dir)){ $str = str_replace($dir,"",$str); } // Remove the leading '/' if there is one $si = stripos($str,"/"); if($si == 0){ $str = substr($str,1); } // Remove everything after the subdir (if there is anything) $lastpart = strchr($str,"/"); $str = str_replace($lastpart,"",$str); return $str; } As you can see, it's a little hacky in order to handle some odd cases (no '/' in input, empty input, etc). I hope all that made sense. Any help/suggestions are welcome.

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  • Why is UseCompatibleTextRendering needed here?

    - by HotOil
    Hi, I think I'm missing something fundamental. Please tell me what it is, if you can. I have developed a little C++ WinForms app using VS2008. So it is built using .NET 3.5 SP1. My development box is Win7, if that matters. The default value of UseCompatibleTextRendering property in WinForms controls is false in this version of VStudio. And this should not matter to me, I don't think. I don't have any custom-drawn text or controls. The app looks good running on my Win7 box. If I package it up (dragging along .NET 3.5) and install it on one of our WinXP desktops, the buttons and labels don't look good; the text is chopped off in them. If I set UseCompatibleTextRendering to true and then run it on the XP boxes, the text fits into the buttons and labels. My question is: Why? The installation puts .Net 3.5 on the XP boxes, so the app should be able to find and use the right version of WinForms, right? I should note that before I put my app + .NET 3.5 on these boxes, they have no .NET at all. They do not get automatic Microsoft updates; our IT guy gates the patches and upgrades. [ This sort of thing has happened before with apps I create.. they look/work great on the Engineering machines, because we maintain those and they mostly have up-to-date stuff. When they are run on the corporate boxes, they usually don't run and need the VCredist installed. ] Back to the question at hand: The text looks better with the UseCompatibleTextRendering set to false, so I'd rather keep it that way, if I can. I'd like to understand what might be missing on those XP boxes that is making the text not fit. Thanks S

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  • thrust::unique_by_key eating up last element

    - by Programmer
    Please consider the below simple code: thrust::device_vector<int> positions(6); thrust::sequence(positions.begin(), positions.end()); thrust::pair<thrust::device_vector<int>::iterator, thrust::device_vector<int>::iterator > end; //copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc contains: 0,1,1,1,1,3 end.first = copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc.begin(); end.second = positions.begin(); for(int i =0 ; i < numDocs; i++){ end= thrust::unique_by_key(end.first, end.first + 3,end.second); } int length = end.first - copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc.begin() ; cout<<"the value of end -s is: "<<length; for(int i =0 ; i< length ; i++){ cout<<copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc[i]; } I expected the output to be 0,1,1,3 of this code; however, the output is 0,1,1. Can anyone let me know what I am missing? Note: the contents of copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc is 0,1,1,1,1,3 . Also the type of copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc is thrust::device_vector<int>.

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  • Translate SQL to NHibernate Query

    - by Thad
    I have a SQL query that I would like to translate to nhibernate criteria, but I have not found a way to generate the MatchCount field. I tried adding it using a sqlprojection but I could not find a place to set the parameters. SELECT (CASE WHEN LEFT([FirstName], LEN(@Text0)) = @Text0 OR LEFT([FirstName], LEN(@Text1)) = @Text1 OR LEFT([FirstName], LEN(@Text2)) = @Text2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END + CASE WHEN LEFT([LastName], LEN(@Text0)) = @Text0 OR LEFT([LastName], LEN(@Text1)) = @Text1 OR LEFT([LastName], LEN(@Text2)) = @Text2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END + CASE WHEN LEFT([PreferredName], LEN(@Text0)) = @Text0 OR LEFT([PreferredName], LEN(@Text1)) = @Text1 OR LEFT([PreferredName], LEN(@Text2)) = @Text2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) AS MatchCount , * FROM [client].[Individual] WHERE ( [FirstName] LIKE @Text0 + '%' OR [FirstName] LIKE @Text1 + '%' OR [FirstName] LIKE @Text2 + '%' OR [LastName] LIKE @Text0 + '%' OR [LastName] LIKE @Text1 + '%' OR [LastName] LIKE @Text2 + '%' OR [PreferredName] LIKE @Text0 + '%' OR [PreferredName] LIKE @Text1 + '%' OR [PreferredName] LIKE @Text2 + '%' ) ORDER BY (CASE WHEN LEFT([FirstName], LEN(@Text0)) = @Text0 OR LEFT([FirstName], LEN(@Text1)) = @Text1 OR LEFT([FirstName], LEN(@Text2)) = @Text2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END + CASE WHEN LEFT([LastName], LEN(@Text0)) = @Text0 OR LEFT([LastName], LEN(@Text1)) = @Text1 OR LEFT([LastName], LEN(@Text2)) = @Text2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END + CASE WHEN LEFT([PreferredName], LEN(@Text0)) = @Text0 OR LEFT([PreferredName], LEN(@Text1)) = @Text1 OR LEFT([PreferredName], LEN(@Text2)) = @Text2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) DESC And yes, this is a ugly statement. Hate having a sql statement in the middle of everthing. Note: There is paging involved and I would prefer not returning all the data to the app server before cutting it down.

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  • [nHibernate] casting string to bool using nHibernate Criteria

    - by code-zoop
    I have an nHibernate query using Criteria, and I am trying to cast a string to bool in the query itself. I have done the same with casting a string to int, and that works well (the "DataField" property is "1" as a string): var result = Session .CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq((Projections.Cast(NHibernateUtil.Int32, Projections.Property("DataField"), 1)) .List<Car>(); tx.Commit(); But I am trying to do the same with bool, but I do not get the expected result: var result = Session .CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq((Projections.Cast(NHibernateUtil.bool, Projections.Property("DataField"), true)) .List<Car>(); tx.Commit(); "DataField" is the string "True", but the result in an empty list, where it should contain 100 elements with the "DataField" property string set to "True". I have tried with the string "true", and "1", but the result is still an empty List. [EDIT] As Commented below, I could check for the string "True" or "False", but I would say this is a more general question than just for the Boolean. Note that the idea is to have some sort of key value representation of the data, where the value can be different data types. I need the value table to contain all data, so storing the data as string seems like the cleanest solution! I have been able to use the method above to store both int and double as string, and to the cast in the query, but I have not succeeded using the same method for DateDime and Boolean. And for DateTime it is crucial to have the actual DateTime object. How can I make the cast from string to bool, and string to DateTime work in the queries? Thanks

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  • Storing large numbers of varying size objects on disk

    - by Foredecker
    I need to develop a system for storing large numbers (10's to 100's of thousands) of objects. Each object is email-like - there is a main text body, and several ancillary text fields of limited size. A body will be from a few bytes, to several KB in size. Each item will have a single unique ID (probably a GUID) that identifies it. The store will only be written to when an object is added to it. It will be read often. Deletions will be rare. The data is almost all human readable text so it will be readily compressible. A system that lets me issue the I/Os and mange the memory and caching would be ideal. I'm going to keep the indexes in memory, using it to map indexes to the single (and primary) key for the objects. Once I have the key, then I'll load it from disk, or the cache. The data management system needs to be part of my application - I do not want to depend on OS services. Or separately installed packages. Native (C++) would be best, but a manged (C#) thing would be ok. I believe that a database is an obvious choice, but this needs to be super-fast for look up and loading into memory of an object. I am not experienced with data base tech and I'm concerned that general relational systems will not handle all this variable sized data efficiently. (Note, this has nothing to do with my job - its a personal project.) In your experience, what are the viable alternatives to a traditional relational DB? Or would a DB work well for this?

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  • Should a programmer have mastery over C++

    - by Yogendra
    I was wondering if it is necessary for programmers to have expertise on at least 1 programming language? Programming languages like C#, java, VB.Net etc change every year or two. Should a programmer have mastery over C++, which is a stable language and rarely undergoes changes? I am a C# developer and using it for about 7 years now, I still don't have mastery on it. EDIT I think my question is being misunderstood. I am not against changes or evolution. I love the new features and abstraction provided by languages such as C#, VB, Java. And I keep waiting for new features if it makes a programmers life easy. But this fact also make this languages very difficult to master. They are continuously evolving. Languages like C++ have slow evolution cycle. So given this scenario, Is it helpful to be master of C++? This is what my original question meant. Note:- Based on the answers by friends below, I have understood that languages and framework are tools for expressing the concepts. Also it might be a good idea to express the concepts in different programming languages.

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  • typedef a functions prototype

    - by bitmask
    I have a series of functions with the same prototype, say int func1(int a, int b) { // ... } int func2(int a, int b) { // ... } // ... Now, I want to simplify their definition and declaration. Of course I could use a macro like that: #define SP_FUNC(name) int name(int a, int b) But I'd like to keep it in C, so I tried to use the storage specifier typedef for this: typedef int SpFunc(int a, int b); This seems to work fine for the declaration: SpFunc func1; // compiles but not for the definition: SpFunc func1 { // ... } which gives me the following error: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '{' token Is there a way to do this correctly or is it impossible? To my understanding of C this should work, but it doesn't. Why? Note, gcc understands what I am trying to do, because, if I write SpFunc func1 = { /* ... */ } it tells me error: function 'func1' is initialized like a variable Which means that gcc understands that SpFunc is a function type.

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  • Save object in CoreData

    - by John
    I am using CoreData with iPhone SDK. I am making a notes app. I have a table with note objects displayed from my model. When a button is pressed I want to save the text in the textview to the object being edited. How do I do this? I've been trying several things but none seem to work. Thanks EDIT: NSManagedObjectContext *context = [fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; NSManagedObject *newManagedObject = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; [newManagedObject setValue:detailViewController.textView.text forKey:@"noteText"]; NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } The above code saves it correctly but it saves it as a new object. I want it to be saved as the one I have selected in my tableView.

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