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  • Error in VC++ for code that looks perfectly good C++?

    - by Ram Bhat
    Hey guys. Check out this piece of sample code. #include "stdafx.h" #include<conio.h> #include<string.h> class person{ private char name[20]; private int age; public void setValues(char n[],int a) { strcpy(this->name,n); this->age=a; } public void display() { printf("\nName = %s",name); printf("\nAge = %d",age); } }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { person p; p.setValues("ram",20); p.display(); getch(); return 0; } I am getting the following errors : 1------ Build started: Project: first, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1 first.cpp 1c:\documents and settings\dark wraith\my documents\visual studio 2010\projects\first\first\first.cpp(9): error C2144: syntax error : 'char' should be preceded by ':' 1c:\documents and settings\dark wraith\my documents\visual studio 2010\projects\first\first\first.cpp(10): error C2144: syntax error : 'int' should be preceded by ':' 1c:\documents and settings\dark wraith\my documents\visual studio 2010\projects\first\first\first.cpp(12): error C2144: syntax error : 'void' should be preceded by ':' 1c:\documents and settings\dark wraith\my documents\visual studio 2010\projects\first\first\first.cpp(17): error C2144: syntax error : 'void' should be preceded by ':' ========== Build: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 up-to-date, 0 skipped ==========

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  • jquery: How to completely remove a dialog on close

    - by Svish
    When an ajax operation fails, I create a new div with the errors and then show it as a dialog. When the dialog is closed I would like to completely destroy and remove the div again. How can I do this? My code looks something like this at the moment: $('<div>We failed</div>') .dialog( { title: 'Error', close: function(event, ui) { $(this).destroy().remove(); } }); When I run this the dialog box shows up correctly, but when I close it the dialog is still visible in the html (using FireBug). What am I missing here? Something I have forgotten? Update: Just noticed my code gives me an error in the firebug console. $(this).destroy is not a function Anyone able to help me out? Update: If I do just $(this).remove() instead, the item is removed from the html. But is it completely removed from the DOM? Or do I somehow need to call that destroy function first as well?

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  • MS Acess SQL - where clause to get year from date based on the year - data located in MS access form

    - by primus285
    OK, back again. I have a problem getting a drop down list to populate based on information in two fields. I have got the SQL correct as to Select just one year if I put DateValue('01/01/2001') in both places, but I am trying now to get it to grab the year data from the MS access form - another drop down named "cboYear". I'd hate to have to do something in VB, unless necessary. so far I have gotten this to pull up something (its always incorrect) SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' & [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' & [cboYear]); and SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' + [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' + [cboYear]); SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' AND [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' AND [cboYear]); both give errors saying that it is too complex to compute. Its probably something simple, but where do I go from here?

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  • Altering an embedded truetype font so it will be useable by Windows GDI

    - by Ritsaert Hornstra
    I am trying to render PDF content to a GDI device context (a 24bit bitmap to be exact). Parsing the PDF stream into PDF objects and rendering the PDF commands from the content dictionary works well, inclduing font rendering. Embedded fonts are decompressed from their FontFile streams and "loaded" using AddFontMemResourceEx. Now some embedded fonts remove some TrueType tables that are needed by GDI, like the NAME table. Because of this, I tried to modify the font by parsing the TrueType subset font into it's tables and modify those tables that have data missing / missing tables are regenerated with as correct information as possible. I use the Microsoft Font Validator tool to see how "correct" the generated font is. I still get a few errors, like for the maxp table the max values are usually too large (it is a subset) or The xAvgCharWidth field does not equal the calculated value of the OS/2 table is not correct but this does not stop other embedded fonts to be useable.The fonts embedded using PDFCreator are the ones that are problematic. Question: - How can I determine what I need to change to the font file in order for GDI to be able to use it? - Are there any other font validation tools that might give me insight into what is still wrong with the fontfile? If needed: I can make an original fontfile and an altered fontfile available for download somewhere.

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  • CGContextDrawImage returning bad access

    - by Marcelo
    Hello guys, I've been trying to blend two UIImage for about 2 days now and I've been getting some BAD_ACCESS errors. First of all, I have two images that have the same orientation, basically I'm using the CoreGraphics to do the blending. One curious detail, everytime I modify the code, the first time I compile and run it on device, I get to do everything I want without any sort of trouble. Once I restart the application, I get error and the program shuts down. Can anyone give me a light? I tried accessing the baseImage sizes dynamically, but it gives me bad access too. Here's a snippet of how I'm doing the blending. UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(CGSizeMake(320, 480)); CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, 480); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [baseImage CGImage]); CGContextSetBlendMode(context, kCGBlendModeOverlay); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [tmpImage CGImage]); [transformationView setImage:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext()]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext();

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  • Unit test project doesn't recognize the classes it was generated from

    - by DougLeary
    I have a fairly simple file-system website consisting of one aspx page and several classes in separate .cs files. Everything is on my own HD. The web app itself builds and runs fine. Out of curiosity I decided to try out Visual Studio's nifty, easy-to-use unit test feature. So I opened each class file and clicked Create Unit Tests. VS generated a test project containing a set of test classes and some other files. Easy! But when I try to build or run the test project it throws a series of build errors, one for every class: The type or namespace name 'class-name' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?). Somebody asked if my test project has a reference to the original project. Well no, because the original project is a file-system website. It has no bin folder and no DLL, so there's nothing to reference as far as I can tell. I would think that since VS generated these unit tests it would generate whatever references it needs, but apparently not. Is generating unit tests for file-system web apps an undocumented no-no, or is there a magic trick to getting it to work?

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  • Problem: writing parameter values to data driven MSTEST output

    - by Shubh
    Hi, I am trying to extract some information about the parameter variants used in an MSTEST data driven test case from trx file. Currently, For data driven tests, I get the output of same testcase with different inputs as a sequence of tags , but there is no info about the value of the variants. Example: Suppose we have a [data driven]TestMethod1() and the data rows contain variations a and b. There are two variations a=1,b=2 for which the test passes and a=3,b=4 for which the test fails. If we can output the info that it was a=1,b=2 which passed and a=3 b=4 which failed in the trx file; the output will be meaningful. Better information about test case runs from the output file alone(without any dependencies). Investigating the test failure without rerunning the whole set If the data rows change in data source(now a=1,b=2 pass and a=5,b=6 fail) , easy to decipher that the errors are different; although the fail sequence is still the same(row 0 pass row 1 fail but now row1 is different) Has any of you gone through a similar problem? What did you follow? I tried to put the parameter value information in the Description attribute of TestMethod, it didnt work. Any other methods you think can work too? thanks, Shubhankar

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  • Generic InBetween Function.

    - by Luiscencio
    I am tired of writing x > min && x < max so i wawnt to write a simple function but I am not sure if I am doing it right... actually I am not cuz I get an error: bool inBetween<T>(T x, T min, T max) where T:IComparable { return (x > min && x < max); } errors: Operator '>' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T' Operator '<' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T' may I have a bad understanding of the where part in the function declaring note: for those who are going to tell me that I will be writing more code than before... think on readability =) any help will be appreciated EDIT deleted cuz it was resolved =) ANOTHER EDIT so after some headache I came out with this (ummm) thing following @Jay Idea of extreme readability: public static class test { public static comparision Between<T>(this T a,T b) where T : IComparable { var ttt = new comparision(); ttt.init(a); ttt.result = a.CompareTo(b) > 0; return ttt; } public static bool And<T>(this comparision state, T c) where T : IComparable { return state.a.CompareTo(c) < 0 && state.result; } public class comparision { public IComparable a; public bool result; public void init<T>(T ia) where T : IComparable { a = ia; } } } now you can compare anything with extreme readability =) what do you think.. I am no performance guru so any tweaks are welcome

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  • Java inheritance and super() isn't working as expected

    - by dwwilson66
    For a homework assignment, I'm working with the following. It's an assigned class structure, I know it's not the best design by a long shot. Class | Extends | Variables -------------------------------------------------------- Person | None | firstName, lastName, streetAddress, zipCode, phone CollegeEmployee | Person | ssn, salary,deptName Faculty | CollegeEmployee | tenure(boolean) Student | person | GPA,major So in the Faculty class... public class Faculty extends CollegeEmployee { protected String booleanFlag; protected boolean tenured; public Faculty(String firstName, String lastName, String streetAddress, String zipCode, String phoneNumber,String ssn, String department,double salary) { super(firstName,lastName,streetAddress,zipCode,phoneNumber, ssn,department,salary); String booleanFlag = JOptionPane.showInputDialog (null, "Tenured (Y/N)?"); if(booleanFlag.equals("Y")) tenured = true; else tenured = false; } } It was my understanding that super() in Faculty would allow access to the variables in CollegeEmployee as well as Person. With the code above, it compiles fine when I ONLY include the Person variables. As soon as I try to use ssn, department, or salary I get the following compile errors. Faculty.java:15: error: constructor CollegeEmployee in class CollegeEmployee can not be applied to the given types: super(firstName,lastName,streetAddress,zipCode,phoneNumber,ssn,department,salary); ^ Required: String,String,String,String,String Found: String,String,String,String,String,String,String,String reason: actual and formal argument lists differ in length I'm completely confused by this error...which is the actual and formal? Person has five arguments, CollegeEmployee has 3, so my guess is that something's funky with how the parameters are being passed...but I'm not quite sure where to begin fixing it. What am I missing?

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

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  • Google AJAX Transliteration API :- How do i translate many elements in page to some language at one

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I have many elements on page and all of which i want to translate to some language. The language is not the same for all fields, that is, for 1st field it may be fr and for third field it may be en then again for 7th field it may be pa. Basically i wrote the code and it's working :- <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ google.load("language", "1"); window.onload = function(){ var elemPostTitles = document.getElementsByTagName("h4"); var flag = true; for(var i = 0 ; i < elemPostTitles.length ; i++){ while(flag == false){ } var postTitleElem = elemPostTitles[i]; var postContentElem = document.getElementById("postContent_" + i); var postTitle = postTitleElem.innerHTML; var postContent = postContentElem.innerHTML; var languageCode = document.getElementById("languageCode_" + i).value; google.language.detect(postTitle, function(result) { if (!result.error && result.language) { google.language.translate(postTitle, result.language, languageCode, function(result) { flag = true; if (result.translation) { postTitleElem.innerHTML = result.translation; } }); } }); flag = false; } As you can see, what i am trying to do is restrict the loop from traversing until the result of previous ajax call is receieved. If i don't do this only the last field gets translated. My code works nicely, but because of the infinite loop, i keep getting errors from Mozilla to "stop executing scripts". How do i get rid of this? Also, is my approach correct? Or some inbuilt function is available which can ease my task? Thanks in advance :)

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  • How to optimize Conway's game of life for CUDA?

    - by nlight
    I've written this CUDA kernel for Conway's game of life: global void gameOfLife(float* returnBuffer, int width, int height) { unsigned int x = blockIdx.x*blockDim.x + threadIdx.x; unsigned int y = blockIdx.y*blockDim.y + threadIdx.y; float p = tex2D(inputTex, x, y); float neighbors = 0; neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x+1, y); neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x-1, y); neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x, y+1); neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x, y-1); neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x+1, y+1); neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x-1, y-1); neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x-1, y+1); neighbors += tex2D(inputTex, x+1, y-1); __syncthreads(); float final = 0; if(neighbors < 2) final = 0; else if(neighbors 3) final = 0; else if(p != 0) final = 1; else if(neighbors == 3) final = 1; __syncthreads(); returnBuffer[x + y*width] = final; } I am looking for errors/optimizations. Parallel programming is quite new to me and I am not sure if I get how to do it right. The rest of the app is: Memcpy input array to a 2d texture inputTex stored in a CUDA array. Output is memcpy-ed from global memory to host and then dealt with. As you can see a thread deals with a single pixel. I am unsure if that is the fastest way as some sources suggest doing a row or more per thread. If I understand correctly NVidia themselves say that the more threads, the better. I would love advice on this on someone with practical experience.

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  • I want to request JSON inside of a WordPress page.

    - by gnucom
    Hello Everyone, For the last few hours I've been trying to set up this http://code.google.com/apis/books/docs/dynamic-links.html on a WordPress blog. Google's API sends back a JSON response (which is supposed to be "put" into _GBSBookInfo variable). However, that variable never is assigned so my javascript callback function explodes saying the variable doesn't exist. So far, all of my javascript is in the WordPress header. I tried this outside of WordPress and it works fine. This is the static page: <script src="http://books.google.com/books?bibkeys=0307346609&jscmd=viewapi&callback=response_handler"> This is the handler: function response_handler(data) { var bookInfo = _GBSBookInfo["0307346609"]; // the var that doesn't exist document.getElementById("test123").innerHTML = bookInfo.thumbnail_url; } Thanks for any help in advance, WordPress has been extremely frustrating by limiting so much! If I'm doing anything stupid please say so, I'm a new javascript programmer. EDIT: I've used firebug so far to identify the problem to be: the _GBSBookInfo variable never gets "created" or "exists". I'm not sure how javascript works at this level. Hopefully this helps. ERRORS: Error: _GBSBookInfo is not defined Line: 79

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  • Boost ASIO Headache

    - by bobber205
    Man... thought using ASIO in Boost was going to be easy and intuitive. :P I am starting to get it finally but I am having some trouble. Here's a snippet. I am having several compiler errors on the async_accept line. What am I doing wrong? :P I've based my code off of this page: http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_43_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime3/src.html bool TestSocket::StartListening(int port) { bool didStart = false; if (!this->listening) { //try to listen acceptor = new tcp::acceptor(this->myService, tcp::endpoint(tcp::v4(), port)); didStart = true; //probably change? tcp::socket* tempNewSocket = new tcp::socket(this->myService); acceptor->async_accept(tempNewSocket, boost::bind(&AlexSocket::NewConnection, this, tempNewSocket, boost::asio::placeholders::error) ); } else //already started! return false; this->listening = didStart; return didStart; } void TestSocket::NewConnection(tcp::socket* s, const boost::system::error_code& error) { }

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  • How to: generate UnhandledException?

    - by serhio
    I use this code to catch the WinForm application UnhandledException. [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // Add the event handler for handling UI thread exceptions to the event. Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); // Set the unhandled exception mode to force all Windows Forms errors // to go through our handler. Application.SetUnhandledExceptionMode(UnhandledExceptionMode.CatchException); // Add the event handler for handling non-UI thread exceptions to the event. AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); try { Application.Run(new MainForm()); } catch.... There I will try to restart the application. Now my problem is to simulate a exception like this. I tried before try (in main): throw new NullReferenceException("test"); VS caught it. Tried also in MainForm code with button : private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs ev) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallback(TestMe), null); } protected void TestMe(object state) { string s = state.ToString(); } did not help, VS caught it, even in Release mode. How should I, finally, force the application generate UnhandleldException? Will I be able to restart the application in CurrentDomain_UnhandledException?

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  • Maven Cobertura: unit test failed but build success

    - by Pavel Drobushevich
    Hi all, I've configured cobertura code coverage in my pom: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>cobertura-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.4</version> <configuration> <instrumentation> <excludes> <exclude>**/*Exception.class</exclude> </excludes> </instrumentation> <formats> <format>xml</format> <format>html</format> </formats> </configuration> </plugin> And start test by following command: mvn clean cobertura:cobertura But if one of unit test fail Cobertura only log this information and doesn't mark build fail. Tests run: 287, Failures: 1, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0 Flushing results... Flushing results done Cobertura: Loaded information on 139 classes. Cobertura: Saved information on 139 classes. [ERROR] There are test failures. ................................. [INFO] BUILD SUCCESS How to configure Cobertura marks build failed in one of unit test fail? Thanks in advance.

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  • Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

    - by George Edison
    Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

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  • C# IE Proxy Detection not working from a Windows Service

    - by mytwocents
    This is very odd. I've written a windows form tool in C# to return the default IE proxy. It works (See code snippets below). I've created a service to return the proxy using the same code, it works when I step into the debugger, BUT it doesn't work when the service is running as binary code. This must be some sort of permissions or context thing that I cannot recreate. Further, if I call the tool from the windows service, it still doesn't return the proxy information.... this seems isolated to the service somehow. I don't see any permission errors in the events log, it's as if a service has a totally different context than a regular windows form exe. I've tride both: WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy() and Uri requestUri = new Uri(urlOfDomain); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); IWebProxy proxy = request.Proxy; if (!proxy.IsBypassed(requestUri)){ Uri uri2 = proxy.GetProxy(request.RequestUri); } Thanks for any help!

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  • xcode project-/target-settings-syntax for linker flag force_load on iPhone

    - by Kaiserludi
    Hi all. I am confronted with the double bind, that on the one hand for one of the 3rd party static libraries, my iPhone application uses, the linker flag -all_load has to be set in the application project- or target settings, otherwise the app crashes at runtime not finding some symbols, called internally from the lib, on the other hand for another 3rd party static lib -all_load must not be set on application level, or the app won't build thanks to a "duplicate symbols"-linker error. To solve this issue I now want to use force_load instant of load_all, as it due to documentation it does the same like all_load, but only for the passed path or lib-file, instead of all libs. The problem with force_load is, I do not have a clue, how to pass a path or file as parameter with it, when passing it via xcode project- or target-settings. All syntax-possibilities coming to my mind either lead into xcode thinking its another linker flag instead of a parameter to the previous one, or the linker is throwing syntax related errors or the flag simply does nothing at all in comparison to not being set. I also opened the .pbxproj-file in a text-editor to edit it to the correct command line syntax manually, but when reloading the project with xcode, it auto changes the syntax into interpreting the parameter to force_load as a separate flag. Anyone having an idea on this issue? Thx, Kaiserludi.

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  • jQuery and IE not playing nice

    - by Neurofluxation
    Hello, I have this section of code: function createDownload() { var category, format, specification, download; $('#submitform').click(function() { category = $('#cate').val(); format = $('#form').val(); specification = $('#spec').val(); if (category == "NULL" || format == "NULL" || specification == "NULL") { alert("Please select all options."); return false; } else { download = "pdfs/"+specification+format+category+".pdf"; window.open(download); } }); } Now... In Internet Explorer it says there is an "Error on the page" - Message: 'return' statement outside of function and I have to click the button again. In Firefox, Chrome and Safari - I have to click the button twice to get the PDF to appear... (and no errors)... Now why could that be?! As per request - My Form declaration: <form method="post" action="javascript: return false;" onSubmit="createDownload();">

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

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  • va_arg with pointers

    - by Yktula
    I want to initialize a linked list with pointer arguments like so: /* * Initialize a linked list using variadic arguments * Returns the number of structures initialized */ int init_structures(struct structure *first, ...) { struct structure *s; unsigned int count = 0; va_list va; va_start(va, first); for (s = first; s != NULL; s = va_arg(va, (struct structure *))) { if ((s = malloc(sizeof(struct structure))) == NULL) { perror("malloc"); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } count++; } va_end(va); return count; } The problem is that clang errors type name requires a specifier or qualifier at va_arg(va, (struct structure *)), and says that the type specifier defaults to int. It also notes instantiated form at (struct structure *) and struct structure *. This, what seems to be getting assigned to s is int (struct structure *). It compiles fine when parentheses are removed from (struct structure *), but the structures that are supposed to be initialized are inaccessible. Why is int assumed when parentheses are around the type argument passed to va_arg? How can I fix this?

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  • How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

    - by user1277160
    Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

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