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  • Moving UIScrollView in App

    - by jsetting32
    Currently, I am attempting to create the same effect as Yahoo! Weather's App where the vital day information is at the bottom of the page on the top of a UIScrollView, that's contained by a UIView. I am having a hard time thinking about how this is going to happen or how I should implement this. If the user taps on the top of the UIScrollView which is located near the bottom of the laoded UIView, and starts to scroll up (/), the UIScrollView's frame should be moved to the TOP of the current UIView's frame. So the UIScrollView's y-value should change to UIView's (self.view.frame.origin.y) if the user starts scrolling UP on the UIScrollView which is located on the UIView's y-pixel ~280. Here's what the UIViewController should look like in the beginning of loading the ViewController... Then once the user slides his finger from the bottom to the top of the screen... this should happen........ And when the user scrolls to the top of the UIScrollView with all the content within it... the view should go back to the start picture shown... How is this done? I was thinking several UIGestureRecognizer's and Instantiating the UIscrollview at the lower part of the UIView... _weatherView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y + 250, self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height - 44)]; _weatherView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height * 4); _weatherView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:_weatherView]; The adding some UIGestureRecognizer delegate method.... But anyone have any ideas on the UIGestureRecognizer delegate method? And how it should be implemented? I can write the psuedo-code but I am having problems finding the delegate methods :P Thank you!!! ---- Break Time.... :)

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  • Setting acquired location to a text view: How to maintain?

    - by Mark
    Hi, I have built an app for the Motorola Droid which should automatically update a server with the phone's location. After the user performs a particular task on the main activity screen, an alarm is set to update the user's location periodically, using a service. The alarm is explicitly stopped when the user completes another task. Thing is, I have set up a location manager within the main activity's onCreate() method which is supposed to place the first acquired lat/long into two textview fields. Even though the manifest is set up for acquiring coarse and fine coords and I'm using requestLocationUpdates (String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener), with minTime and minDistance set to zero, I'm not seeing the coords coming up on the screen. With that, I'm not recording any locations on the server. When I seed the textviews with sample coords, they are being recorded fine on the server. I am not at a computer that can run the IDE, so don't currently have the code, but am desperate for some help on this. One other thing is that the main activity screen calls a photography app before the user manually clicks "send data". I'm suspicious that I may need to override the main activity's onResume() method to do this location acquisition. Please help, thanks. Mark.

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  • Parameters lost on login form submitted with post in JBoss

    - by Supowski
    My login page contains two forms: one for logging in and one for signing up. Shorten like this: <form name="LoginForm" id="LoginForm" method="post" action="j_security_check" > <input type="text" name="j_username" /> <input type="text" name="j_password" /> <input type="submit" value="Sing In" /> <form> <form name="SignUpForm" id="SignUpForm" method="post" action="/homepage" > <input type="text" name="loginName" /> <input type="password" name="password1" /> <input type="password" name="password2" /> <input type="submit" value="Sing Up" /> <form> I If 'Sing Up', than values of input are lost during processing and not passed into my Servlet. It works fine with GET, but than there is password in URL, so it's not the right solution :) Similar problem has been posted to community.jboss.org, but with no response: http://community.jboss.org/message/7150#7150. I'm using JBoss 4.3eap. Any help?

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  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

    - by Mike Wills
    I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

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  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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  • how to rotate around each record in linq and show that in view

    - by Sadegh
    Hi, I have four tables in my database and i want to join that's and return record's and show that into searchController! My query is this: public IQueryable PerformSearch(string query) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { var results = from tbl1 in context.Table1 join tbl2 in context.Table2 on tbl1.Id equals tbl2.Id join tbl3 in context.Table3 on tbl2.Id equals tbl3.Id join tbl4 in context.Table4 on tbl3.Id equals tbl4.Id where tbl1.col2.Contains(query) orderby tbl1.Count descending select new { col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, . . . }; return results.AsQueryable(); } else return null; } And this method called in SearchController as below: public class SearchController : System.Web.Mvc.Controller { public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Search(System.String query) { var search = new Search(); ViewData["result"] = search.PerformSearch(query); return View("Search"); } } I don't know how i can rotate around each record (plus vs intellisense feature) returned by PeformSeach method and show that in view! Also is this a good way? thanks in advance

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  • Converting to a column oriented array in Java

    - by halfwarp
    Although I have Java in the title, this could be for any OO language. I'd like to know a few new ideas to improve the performance of something I'm trying to do. I have a method that is constantly receiving an Object[] array. I need to split the Objects in this array through multiple arrays (List or something), so that I have an independent list for each column of all arrays the method receives. Example: List<List<Object>> column-oriented = new ArrayList<ArrayList<Object>>(); public void newObject(Object[] obj) { for(int i = 0; i < obj.length; i++) { column-oriented.get(i).add(obj[i]); } } Note: For simplicity I've omitted the initialization of objects and stuff. The code I've shown above is slow of course. I've already tried a few other things, but would like to hear some new ideas. How would you do this knowing it's very performance sensitive?

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  • Can you open a form or window in an Outlook Addin (VSTO)

    - by dontpanic
    Hi, I am new to VSTO programming. I have created a basic addin for Outlook 2007 that monitors a folder containing XML text files which it opens and then sends them as an email, then deletes them. this all works fine. I want the user to be able to configure certain settings for the way the addin/program will operate, such as the folder that it will monitor, and other things. The logical way to do this is to create a menu item in the addin (which I have also done) that opens a windows form (or XAML window) that allows them to enter the parameters. In my addin I added a new item Windows Form, which worked, and the designer opened. However, in my addin code I cannot open the form. The Show() method normally associated with form objects is not available. Is this simply something you cannot do, or am I just doing it the wrong way? I have read about Outlook form regions, but these seemed to be attached to outlook items such as a new email, task, appointment etc... there doesnt seem to be a way to create a form region that can be opened in the main window of Outlook. Ideally, I would like to go with my original method of opening a new window from a menu item, but if this isnt possible I would like to hear other solutions. Thanks, Will.

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  • Security header is not valid - using curl php

    - by toni
    Hi all, Im implementing the Express Checkout, Paypal API using PHP. I have no problem with the first step:SetExpressCheckout. I a have awk=success. But in method GetExpressCheckout I get "Security header is not valid". I try to figure out the problem and i think found out maybe it was the curl not working well.. What i did i copy the whole URL: https://api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp?USER=sanbox_1276609583_biz_api1.gmail.com&PWD=1276609589&SIGNATURE=AYVosblmD7khKkvvb.bNxvFT0OQ2A8GopwByEuC.CfMHt65VaUmvAEy-&VERSION=62.0&token=EC-3YG18670X88588437&METHOD=GetExpressCheckoutDetails and paste it to the browser. This will result to: TOKEN=EC%2d3YG18670X88588437&CHECKOUTSTATUS=PaymentActionNotInitiated&TIMESTAMP=2010%2d06%2d16T07%3a40%3a12Z&CORRELATIONID=e1a1e469bf066&ACK=Success&VERSION=62%2e0&BUILD=1356926... But when that url executed in the function I made it will not work. Below is my function: function mycurl($url,$querystr){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $querystr); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $response = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $response; } I hope somebody can help on this. thanks so much. Note: - I Used the sandbox for this. I created a sandbox account, I have a Business account to represent a merchant, and a Personal account to represent a buyer. And I used this: endpoint url: api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp sandbox url: www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr This should not be the issue.

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  • How to properly load HTML data from third party website using MVC+AJAX?

    - by Dmitry
    I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 website that lets users store and analyze data about goods found on various online trade sites. When user is filling a form to create or edit an item, he should have a button "Import data" that automatically fills some fields based on data from third party website. The question is: what should this button do under the hood? I see at least 2 possible solutions. First. Do the import on client side using AJAX+jQuery load method. I tried it in IE8 and received browser warning popup about insecure script actions. Of course, it is completely unacceptable. Second. Add method ImportData(string URL) to ItemController class. It is called via AJAX, does the import + data processing server-side and returns JSON-d result to client. I tried it and received server exception (503) Server unavailable when loading HTML data into XMLDocument. Also I have a feeling that dealing with not well-formed HTML (missing closing tags, etc.) will be a huge pain. Any ideas how to parse such HTML documents?

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  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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  • php syntax confusion accessing database result

    - by Babak
    I am trying to do the following: <?php foreach($sqlResult as $row): ?> <tr> <?php foreach($formdata['columns'] as $column): ?> <td><?php echo $row->$column['name']; ?></td> <?php endforeach; ?> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This does not work. $row is returned by my mysql query, it has the following : row-id, row-author, row-name and these work as they echo fine. $columns is the following array: 'columns' => array ( 1 => array ( 'name' => 'id' ), 2 => array ( 'name' => 'author' ), 3 => array ( 'name' => 'date' ), 4 => array ( 'name' => 'title' ) it also works fine as $column['name'] echoes id, author, date, title my question is how would it be possible for me to access the $row-method (is it a method?) by passing it a name from the array??

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  • Show NSSegmentedControl menu when segment clicked, despite having set action

    - by Justin Williams
    I have an NSSegmentedControl on my UI with 4 buttons. The control is connected to a method that will call different methods depending on which segment is clicked: - (IBAction)performActionFromClick:(id)sender { NSInteger selectedSegment = [sender selectedSegment]; NSInteger clickedSegmentTag = [[sender cell] tagForSegment:selectedSegment]; switch (clickedSegmentTag) { case 0: [self showNewEventWindow:nil]; break; case 1: [self showNewTaskWindow:nil]; break; case 2: [self toggleTaskSplitView:nil]; break; case 3: [self showGearMenu]; break; } } Segment 4 has has a menu attached to it in the awakeFromNib method. I'd like this menu to drop down when the user clicks the segment. At this point, it only will drop if the user clicks & holds down on the menu. From my research online this is because of the connected action. I'm presently working around it by using some code to get the origin point of the segment control and popping up the context menu using NSMenu's popUpContextMenu:withEvent:forView but this is pretty hacktastic and looks bad compared to the standard behavior of having the menu drop down below the segmented control cell. Is there a way I can have the menu drop down as it should after a single click rather than doing the hacky context menu thing?

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  • IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

    - by Tokimon
    Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

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  • ObjectiveC - Releasing objects added as parameters

    - by NobleK
    Ok, here goes. Being a Java developer I'm still struggling with the memory management in ObjectiveC. I have all the basics covered, but once in a while I encounter a challenge. What I want to do is something which in Java would look like this: MyObject myObject = new MyObject(new MyParameterObject()); The constructor of MyObject class takes a parameter of type MyParameterObject which I initiate on-the-fly. In ObjectiveC I tried to do this using following code: MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[MyParameterObject alloc] init]]; However, running the Build and Analyze tool this gives me a "Potential leak of an object" warning for the MyParameter object which indeed occurs when I test it using Instruments. I do understand why this happens since I am taking ownership of the object with the alloc method and not relinquishing it, I just don't know the correct way of doing it. I tried using MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[[MyParameterObject alloc] init] autorelease]]; but then the Analyze tool told me that "Object sent -autorelease too many times". I could solve the issue by modifying the init method of MyParameterObject to say return [self autorelease]; in stead of just return self;. Analyze still warnes about a potential leak, but it doesn't actually occur. However I believe that this approach violates the convention for managing memory in ObjectiveC and I really want to do it the right way. Thanx in advance.

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  • methods of metaclasses on class instances.

    - by Stefano Borini
    I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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  • JNI Stream binary data from C++ to Java

    - by Cliff
    I need help passing binary data into Java. I'm trying to use jbytearray but when the data gets into Java it appears corrupt. Can somebody give me a hand? Here's a snip of some example code. First the native C++ side: printf("Building audio array copy\n"); jbyteArray rawAudioCopy = env-NewByteArray(10); jbyte toCopy[10]; printf("Filling audio array copy\n"); char theBytes[10] = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(theBytes); i++) { toCopy[i] = theBytes[i]; } env->SetByteArrayRegion(rawAudioCopy,0,10,toCopy); printf("Finding object callback\n"); jmethodID aMethodId = env->GetMethodID(env->GetObjectClass(obj),"handleAudio","([B)V"); if(0==aMethodId) throw MyRuntimeException("Method not found error",99); printf("Invoking the callback\n"); env->CallVoidMethod(obj,aMethodId, &rawAudioCopy); and then the Java callback method: public void handleAudio(byte[] audio){ System.out.println("Audio supplied to Java [" + audio.length + "] bytes"); byte[] expectedAudio = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}; for (int i = 0; i < audio.length; i++) { if(audio[i]!= expectedAudio[i]) System.err.println("Expected byte " + expectedAudio[i] + " at byte " + i + " but got byte " + audio[i]); else System.out.print('.'); } System.out.println("Audio passed back accordingly!"); } I get the following output when the callback is invoked: library loaded! Audio supplied to Java [-2019659176] bytes Audio passed back accordingly!

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • problem adding object to hashtable

    - by daemonkid
    I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

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  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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  • Having some fun - what is a good way to include a secret key functionality and fire the KeyDown event?

    - by Sisyphus
    To keep myself interested, I try to put little Easter Eggs in my projects (mostly to amuse myself). I've seen some websites where you can type a series of letters "aswzaswz" and you get a "secret function" - how would I achieve this in C#? I've assigned a "secret function" in the past by using modifier keys bool showFunThing = (Control.ModifierKeys & Keys.Control) == Keys.Control; but wanted to get a bit more secretive (without the modifier keys) I just wanted the form to detect a certain word typed without any input ... I've built a method that I think should do it: private StringBuilder _pressedKeys = new StringBuilder(); protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { const string kWord = "fun"; char letter = (char)e.KeyValue; if (!char.IsLetterOrDigit(letter)) { return; } _pressedKeys.Append(letter); if (_pressedKeys.Length == kWord.Length) { if (_pressedKeys.ToString().ToLower() == kWord) { MessageBox.Show("Fun"); _pressedKeys.Clear(); } } base.OnKeyDown(e); } Now I need to wire it up but I can't figure out how I'm supposed to raise the event in the form designer ... I've tried this: this.KeyDown +=new System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventHandler(OnKeyDown); and a couple of variations on this but I'm missing something because it won't fire (or compile). It tells me that the OnKeyDown method is expecting a certain signature but I've got other methods like this where I haven't specified arguments. I fear that I may have got myself confused so I am turning to SO for help ... anyone?

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