Search Results

Search found 24726 results on 990 pages for 'message passing'.

Page 530/990 | < Previous Page | 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537  | Next Page >

  • How to enable commenting on the Facebook Like Button

    - by digitaldreamer
    I'm integrating the Facebook Like Button into a site. The likeing functionality is working fine except that you cannot add comments to your like after you've clicked the like button. Several sites including CNN has this working so this should be possible. The docs mention that you need to use the JavaScript SDK to get commenting to work, which I am doing; however I cannot get commenting to show up. A fuller-featured Like button is available via the XFBML tag and requires you use the new JavaScript SDK. The XFBML version allows users to add a comment to their like as it is posted back to Facebook. I cannot find details on which options are available for this more "fully-featured" XFBML like button. I'm wondering if there is a setting that I need to add, an option that I'm not passing in, or anything that I've overlooked. I am on a dev server, and I'm linking back to the live site for now. Perhaps the ContactURL and the base URL of the liked page need to be the same in order to get commenting to work? Here's how I'm embedding the facebook like button: <!-- facebook --> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'XXXXXXXXXXXXXX', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> <!-- facebook --> ... <fb:like href="example.com" layout="button_count" show_faces="false" width="100" colorscheme="dark"></fb:like>

    Read the article

  • jqModal/JQuery problem, div not updating with new content?

    - by echoesofspring
    I'm hoping someone can point a relative jQuery/jqModal newbie in the right direction for debugging this error. I'm loading an html fragment into a div and then use jqModal to display that div as a modal dialog. The problem is that the div is displayed but not with my updated html. I'm showing my jqModal dialog in the response from a jquery call, function foo is called from an onclick event: function foo(url) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(msg) { $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg); $('#ajaxmodal').jqmShow(); } }); } ajaxmodal is a simple div. Initially I thought the problem must be in the html snippet (msg) I'm passing to the callback, but I don't think that's it, I get the err (see below) even when I comment out the $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg) line or pass it hardcode html. I think I have jqModal configured correctly, other calls using our ajaxmodal div work correctly, I'm able to display the modal, update the content based the server response, etc. When I try to debug in firebug, I get the following error following the call to .jqmShow(). I have seen the err on occasion in other places when it seemed maybe the page hadn't loaded yet, and I confess I'm confused about that, since we've wrapped our jqModal selectors in a $(document).ready() call, so maybe I have a larger issue that this call just happens to trigger? From the jquery.jqModal.js file, line 64: js err is $(':input:visible',h.w)[0] is undefined in the line: f=function(h){try{$(':input:visible',h.w)[0].focus();}catch(_){}} When I step through this in firefox, h.w[0] seems ok, it references our '#ajaxmodal' div. Thanks in advance for any suggestions in tracking this down?

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate: distinct results in second level Collection

    - by Miguel Marques
    I have an object model like this: class EntityA { ... IList<EntityB> BList; ... } class EntityB { ... IList<EntityC> CList; } I have to fetch all the colelctions (Blist in EntityA and CList in EntityB), because if they all will be needed to make some operations, if i don't eager load them i will have the select n+1 problem. So the query was this: select a from EntityA a left join fetch a.BList b left join fetch b.CList c The fist problem i faced with this query, was the return of duplicates from the DB, i had EntityA duplicates, because of the left join fetch with BList. A quick read through the hibernate documentation and there were some solutions, first i tried the distinct keyword that supposelly wouldn't replicate the SQL distinct keyword except in some cases, maybe this was one of those cases because i had a SQL error saying that i cannot select distict text columns (column [Observations] in EntityA table). So i used one of the other solutions: query.SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); This worked fine. But the result of the operations were still not passing the tests. I checked further and i found out that now there were duplicates of EntityB, because of the left join fetch with CList. The question is, how can i use the distinct in a second level collection? I searched and i only find solutions for the root entity's direct child collection, but never for the second level child collections... Thank you for your time

    Read the article

  • XMLRPC java insert issue

    - by Sanjai Palliyil
    I am trying to insert customer details into OpenERP server using XMLPRC and java. I am able to do an authentication. But when i call the execute method to insert the record by passing the parameters, am getting Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException on line res_create = client_1.execute("execute", params_create); Please find my code below res = client.execute("login", params); String url_1 = "http://agilewebdevelopment.net:8514/xmlrpc/object"; XmlRpcClientConfigImpl config_1 = new XmlRpcClientConfigImpl(); try { config_1.setServerURL(new URL(url_1)); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { System.out.println("First"); e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(res); HashMap<String, Object> vals = new HashMap<String, Object>(); vals.put("name", "Mantavya Gajjar"); vals.put("ref", "MGA"); XmlRpcClient client_1 = new XmlRpcClient(); client.setConfig(config_1); Object[] params_create = new Object[]{"erp_performance", "1", "admin", "res.partner", "create", vals}; Object res_create = null; try { res_create = client_1.execute("execute", params_create); } catch (XmlRpcException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Any helps is appreciated

    Read the article

  • Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ function calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have: Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is sufficient?

    Read the article

  • Xunit: Perform all 'Assert'ions in one test method?

    - by Jörg Battermann
    Is it possible to tell xUnit.net to perform all e.g. Assert.True() in one test method? Basically in some of our use/testcases all assertions belong logically to one and the same 'scope' of tests and I have e.g. something like this: [Fact(DisplayName = "Tr-MissImpl")] public void MissingImplementationTest() { // parse export.xml file var exportXml = Libraries.Utilities.XML.GenericClassDeserializer.DeserializeXmlFile<Libraries.MedTrace.ExportXml>( ExportXmlFile); // compare parsed results with expected ones Assert.True(exportXml.ContainsRequirementKeyWithError("PERS_154163", "E0032A")); Assert.True(exportXml.ContainsRequirementKeyWithError("PERS_155763", "E0032A")); Assert.True(exportXml.ContainsRequirementKeyWithError("PERS_155931", "E0032A")); Assert.True(exportXml.ContainsRequirementKeyWithError("PERS_157145", "E0032A")); Assert.True(exportXml.ContainsRequirementKeyWithError("s_sw_ers_req_A", "E0032A")); Assert.True(exportXml.ContainsRequirementKeyWithError("s_sw_ers_req_C", "E0032A")); Assert.True(exportXml.ContainsRequirementKeyWithError("s_sw_ers_req_D", "E0032A")); } Now if e.g. the first Assert.True(...) fails, the other ones are not executed/checked. I'd rather not break these seven Assertions up into separate methods, since these really do belong together logically (the TC only is 'passed' entirely if all seven are passing all together).

    Read the article

  • In-document schema declarations and lxml

    - by shylent
    As per the official documentation of lxml, if one wants to validate a xml document against a xml schema document, one has to construct the XMLSchema object (basically, parse the schema document) construct the XMLParser, passing the XMLSchema object as its schema argument parse the actual xml document (instance document) using the constructed parser There can be variations, but the essense is pretty much the same no matter how you do it, - the schema is specified 'externally' (as opposed to specifying it inside the actual xml document). If you follow this procedure, the validation occurs, sure enough, but if I understand it correctly, that completely ignores the whole idea of the schemaLocation and noNamespaceSchemaLocation attributes from xsi. This introduces a whole bunch of limitations, starting with the fact, that you have to deal with instance<-schema relation all by yourself (either store it externally or write some hack to retrieve the schema location from the root element of the instance document), you can not validate the document using multiple schemata (say, when each schema governs its own namespace) and so on. So the question is: maybe I am missing something completely trivial or doing it wrong? Or are my statements about lxml's limitations regarding schema validation true? To recap, I'd like to be able to: have the parser use the schema location declarations in the instance document at parse/validation time use multiple schemata to validate a xml document declare schema locations on non-root elements (not of extreme importance) Maybe I should look for a different library? Although, that'd be a real shame, - lxml is a de-facto xml processing library for python and is regarded by everyone as the best one in terms of performace/features/convenience (and rightfully so, to a certain extent)

    Read the article

  • WCF Double Hop questions about Security and Binding.

    - by Ken Maglio
    Background information: .Net Website which calls a service (aka external service) facade on an app server in the DMZ. This external service then calls the internal service which is on our internal app server. From there that internal service calls a stored procedure (Linq to SQL Classes), and passes the serialized data back though to the external service, and from there back to the website. We've done this so any communication goes through an external layer (our external app server) and allows interoperability; we access our data just like our clients consuming our services. We've gotten to the point in our development where we have completed the system and it all works, the double hop acts as it should. However now we are working on securing the entire process. We are looking at using TransportWithMessageCredentials. We want to have WS2007HttpBinding for the external for interoperability, but then netTCPBinding for the bridge through the firewall for security and speed. Questions: If we choose WS2007HttpBinding as the external services binding, and netTCPBinding for the internal service is this possible? I know WS-* supports this as does netTCP, however do they play nice when passing credential information like user/pass? If we go to Kerberos, will this impact anything? We may want to do impersonation in the future. If you can when you answer post any reference links about why you're answering the way you are, that would be very helpful to us. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to suppress quotes in Powershell commands to executables

    - by David Gladfelter
    Is there any way to supress the enclosing quotation marks around each command-line argument that powershell likes to generate and then pass to external executables for command line arguments that have spaces in them? Here's the situation: One way to unpack many installers is a command of the form: msiexec /a <packagename> /qn TARGETDIR="<path to folder with spaces>" Trying to execute this from powershell has proven quite difficult. Powershell likes to enclose parameters with spaces in double-quotes. The following lines: msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn 'TARGETDIR="c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn $('TARGETDIR="c:\some path"') $td = '"c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn TARGETDIR=$td All result in the following command line (as reported by the Win32 GetCommandLine() api): "msiexec" /a somepackage.msi /qn "TARGETDIR="c:\some path"" This command line: msiexec /a somepackage.msi TARGETDIR="c:\some path" /qn results in "msiexec" /a fooinstaller.msi "TARGETDIR=c:\some path" /qn It seems that Powershell likes to enclose the results of expressions meant to represent one argument in quotation marks when passing them to external executables. This works fine for most executables. However, MsiExec is very specific about the quoting rules it wants and won't accept any of the command lines Powershell generates for paths have have spaces in them. Is there any way to suppress this behavior?

    Read the article

  • Reference a Map by name within Velocity Template

    - by Wiretap
    Pretty sure there is an easy answer to this, but just can't find the right VTL syntax. In my context I'm passing a Map which contains other Maps. I'd like to reference these inner maps by name and assign them within my template. The inner maps are constructed by different parts of the app, and then added to the context by way of example public static void main( String[] args ) throws Exception { VelocityEngine ve = new VelocityEngine(); ve.init(); Template t = ve.getTemplate( "test.vm" ); VelocityContext context = new VelocityContext(); Map<String,Map<String,String>> messageData = new HashMap<String, Map<String,String>>(); Map<String,String> data_map = new HashMap<String,String>(); data_map.put("data_1","1234"); data_map.put("a_date", "31-Dec-2009"); messageData.put("inner_map", data_map); context.put("msgData", messageData); StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(); t.merge( context, writer ); System.out.println( writer.toString() ); } Template - test.vm #set ($in_map = $msgData.get($inner_map) ) data: $in_map.data_1 $in_map.a_date

    Read the article

  • Find the flaws in the concept...

    - by Trindaz
    A web based web browser. Sounds silly right? Here's a use case. All comments about what could go wrong, and if anyone has tried and failed at this, very much wanted User goes to www.theBrowser.com and logs in with credentials specific to theBrowser.com. User tells theBrowser what their username and password for various sites are User goes to theBrowser.com/?uri=somesite.com theBrowser sends off the http request with User's log in details, then sends the http response back to User. This lets theBrowser do weird and wonderful functions like change colours / style sheets / etc. to every site that gets passed through it. From a technical stand point, storing username and password and passing them along is not a challenge for one user, but if there were a few, I'd have to use some kind of server based browser software to store a session per user logged in at theBrowser.com. How could I do that? Will I have to start from scratch? Obviously privacy and security are issues. Would theBrowser.com be too great a risk, even if users are fully warned? Cheers, Dave

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate Overrides: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf non-generic version

    - by ThiagoAlves
    Hi, I have a repository class that inherits from a generic implementation: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonRepository : Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository<Person> } The generic repository implementation uses Fluent NHibernate conventions. They're working fine. One of those conventions is that all properties are not nullable. Now I need to define that specific properties may be nullable outside the conventions. Fluent NHibernate has an interesting override mechanism: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonMappingOverride : IAutoMappingOverride<Person> { public void Override(FluentNHibernate.Automapping.AutoMapping<Funcionario> mapping) { mapping.Map(x => x.PhoneNumber).Nullable(); } } } Now I need to register the override class into Fluent NHibernate. I have the following code in the Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository generic class: AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Person>() .Where(type => type.Namespace == "Entities") .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); The problem is: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf is a generic method, and I can't do something like that: .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); Because that would cause a circular reference. I don't want the generic repository to know the either repository or the mapping override class, because they vary from project to project. I see another solution: in the GenericNHibernateRepository class I can do this.GetType() and get the repository implementation type (e.g.: PersonRepository). However I can't call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf() passing a type. Is there another way to configure overrides in FluentNHibernate? If not, how could I call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<T> without making the generic repository depend upon the repository implementation or the mapping override class? (Source: http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Auto_mapping#Overrides)

    Read the article

  • Testing a method that sends e-mail without sending the mail

    - by SnOrfus
    I have a method like public abstract class Base { public void MethodUnderTest(); } public class ClassUnderTest : Base { public override MethodUnderTest() { if(condition) { IMail mail = new Mail() { /* ... */ }; IMailer mailer = new Mailer() { /* ... */ } mailer.Send(mail); } else { /* ... */ } } } I have unit tests for this method, and the mail gets sent to myself, so it's not terrible (better than no test) but I'd prefer not to send the mail. The problem I have is that I don't want test specific code in the class (ie. if (testMode) return; instead of sending the mail) I don't know lots about DI, but I considered passing a mock IMailer into MethodUnderTest except that it overrides the base class, and no other class that derives from Base needs an IMailer object (I don't want to force implementers of Base to take an unnecessary IMailer in MethodUnderTest) What else can I do? (note: IMail and IMailer are part of an external library for sending e-mail. It's written in house, so I can modify it all I like if necessary, though I can't see a need to in this situation)

    Read the article

  • jQuery UI Question. How to pass parameters to a function.

    - by jiji40
    I am pretty new to jQuery. How do I pass parameters to a function? I found some jQueryUI demos and I got it working except "view" link. I have a problem with passing parameters to and show them in modal popup windows. I have "Create New User" button and "View" link on the page. Clicking "Create New User" does pass the parameters and show them on modal popup window. ('12345' in User ID textbox, 'John Starks' in User Name textbox) $(function() { ... //Create New User button $('#create-user') .button() .click( function() { $('#dialog-form').dialog('open'); userId.val('12345'); userName.val('John Starks'); } ); }); But, "View" link doesn't work... Clicking "View" link does pop up modal window with no value in the textbox(User ID and User Name) function doView( idP, nameP ) { $('#dialog-form2').dialog('open'); userId.val(idP); userName.val(nameP); } <a href="#" OnClick="doView('001','John Doe');" >view</a> ... How to pass the parameters to modal window? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to pass multiple parameter in DomainService - WCF

    - by S.Amani
    Hi, Let's say I have a window which should submit 3 model in client side (Silverlight Client Application). My problem is each time I submit the form, data on the server side which I passed them from client are empty. I've used nested class which contains my models, instead of passing multiple object as parameter, but it didn't work again. My Personnel Data Transfer Object Code is something like this : [DataContract] public class PersonnelDTO : EntityObject { [Key] [DataMember] public int PersonnelId { get; set; } [Include] [DataMember] [Association("Personnel_ID", "PersonnelId", "Personnel_ID")] public Personnel Personnel { get; set; } [Include] [DataMember] [Association("Personnel_Info_ID", "PersonnelId", "Personnel_Info_ID")] public Personnel_Info PersonnelInfo { get; set; } } I fill up this model to pass data from client to server (DomainService). and also my domain service code is : [Invoke] public void AddPersonnel(PersonnelDTO personnelDTO) { // Model are EMPTY in DTO ObjectContext.AddToPersonnels(personnelDTO.Personnel); ObjectContext.AddToPersonnel_Info(personnelDTO.PersonnelInfo); ObjectContext.SaveChanges(); } I don't know if there is a way to pass multiple parameter in WCF Service method include Generic List. Any advice will be graceful. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • call/cc in Lua - Possible?

    - by Pessimist
    The Wikipedia article on Continuation says: "In any language which supports closures, it is possible to write programs in continuation passing style and manually implement call/cc." Either that is true and I need to know how to do it or it is not true and that statement needs to be corrected. If this is true, please show me how to implement call/cc in Lua because I can't see how. I think I'd be able to implement call/cc manually if Lua had the coroutine.clone function as explained here. If closures are not enough to implement call/cc then what else is needed? The text below is optional reading. P.S.: Lua has one-shot continuations with its coroutine table. A coroutine.clone function would allow me to clone it to call it multiple times, thus effectively making call/cc possible (unless I misunderstand call/cc). However that cloning function doesn't exist in Lua. Someone on the Lua IRC channel suggested that I use the Pluto library (it implements serialization) to marshal a coroutine, copy it and then unmarshal it and use it again. While that would probably work, I am more interested in the theoretical implementation of call/cc and in finding what is the actual minimum set of features that a language needs to have in order to allow for its manual implementation.

    Read the article

  • Error when trying to connect to Jacorb naming service

    - by Dopyiii
    I'm hoping to get some help with this weird problem. We're running the Jacorb name server and I have a simple client that I'm using to try to connect and do awesome CORBA voodoo. The name server is running, but when I try to start my java app, I get a "Connection failure" error (org.omg.CORBA.COMM_FAILURE, minor code 201, "caused by java.net.ConnectionException: Connection refused: connect"). Here's the weird part. The error reports that it's trying to connect using the default port 900, but I'm passing in an argument to try to override the port number of the name service to match the one being used by the name server. My java command is like this: java -classpath . HelloClient -Djava.endorsed.dirs="bla bla bla" -Dorg.omg.CORBA.ORBClass=org.jacorb.orb.ORB -Dorg.omg.CORBA.ORBSingletonClass=org.jacorb.orb.ORBSingleton -DORBInitRef.NameService=corbaloc::localhost:2809/StandardNS/NameServer-POA/_root I also tried the parameters without the first capital D (I've seen it both ways and I don't know the difference). Now, if I put in -ORBInitialPort 2809, then the client does appear to try to connect, but then I get a corba.OBJECT_NOT_EXIST error. I could use any help or advise anyone has.

    Read the article

  • Comma Seperated Values and LIKE php/mysql Troubles

    - by Jay
    The Set up This is more or less a follow up question to something I had previously posted regarding comma separated values (explode,implode). Here's the scenario which has been stomping me the last few days as I'm a noob--sorry for the lengthy post. I'm passing a variable via the url (index.php?id=variable), I then check the database to find the rows containing that variable using SELECT * FROM table WHERE column LIKE '%$variable%' I'm using the wildcards because the results are a comma separated value with the variable appearing multiple times in the database. So if we were assigning-- say schools to popular tv shows..my database is set up so that the user can assign more than one school to the tv show. IE. South Park-- fsu, nyu ,mit Archer -- harvard, nyu Index.php?id=nyu would display Sourth Park & Archer. The Problem Because I am using Like '%variable%' If I have the following: South Park--uark Archer--ua index.php?=ua Instead of just Archer showing, Southpark would also show. Which makes sense due to the wildcards...but can anyone think of a way to do this achieving the results I want?..Is there any way achieve more precise results using a comma separated value?..I'm completely stomped and will appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • iPhone SDK background thread image loading problem

    - by retailevolved
    I have created a grid view that displays six "cells" of content. In each cell, an image is loaded from the web. There are a multiple pages of this grid (the user moves through them by swiping up / down to see the next set of cells). Each cell has its own view controller. When these view controllers load, they use an ImageLoader class that I made to load and display an image. These view controllers implement an ImageLoaderDelegate that has a single method that gets called when the image is finished loading. ImageLoader does its work on a background thread and then simply notifies its delegate when it is done loading, passing the image to the delegate method. Trouble is that if the user moves on to the next page of grid content before the image has finished loading (releasing the GridCellViewControllers that use the ImageLoaders), the app crashes. I suspect that this is because along the line, an asynchronous method finishes and attempts to notify its delegate but can't because it's been released. Here's some code to give a better picture: GridCellViewController.m: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // ImageLoader _loader = [[ProductImageLoader alloc] init]; _loader.delegate = self; if(_boundObject) [_loader loadImageForProduct:_boundObject]; } //ImageLoaderDelegate method - (void) imageDidFinishLoading: (UIImage *)image { [_imgController setImage:image]; } ProductImageLoader.m - (void) loadImageForProduct: (Product *) product { // Get image on another thread [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(getImageForProductInBackground:) toTarget:self withObject:product]; } - (void) getImageForProductInBackground: (Product *) product { NSAutoreleasePool *tempPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; HttpRequestLoader *tempLoader = [[HttpRequestLoader alloc] init]; NSURL *tempUrl = [product getImageUrl]; NSData *imageData = tempUrl ? [tempLoader loadSynchronousDataFromAddress:[tempUrl absoluteString]] : nil; UIImage *image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageData]; [tempPool release]; if(delegate) [delegate imageDidFinishLoading:image]; } The app crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Disclaimer: The code has been slightly modified to focus on the issue at hand.

    Read the article

  • Amazon S3 and swfaddress

    - by justinbach
    I recently migrated a large AS3 site (lots of swfs, lots of flvs) to Amazon S3. Pretty much everything but HTML and JS files is being stored/served from Amazon, and it's working well. The only problem I'm having is that I built the site using SWFaddress (actually, via the Gaia framework which uses SWFaddress), and for some reason, SWFaddress is no longer updating the address bar correctly as users navigate from page to page. In other words, the URL persistently remains http://www.mysite.com, not http://www.mysite.com/#/section as would be the case were SWFaddress functioning correctly (and as it was functioning prior to the migration). Stranger yet, if I go to (e.g.) http://www.mysite.com/#/section directly, the deeplinking functions as you'd expect--I arrive directly at the correct section. However, navigating away from that section doesn't have any effect on the address bar, despite the fact that it should be dynamically updated. I've got a crossdomain.xml file set up on the site that allows access from all domains, so that's not the issue, and I don't know what else might be. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! P.S. I integrated S3 by putting pretty much the entire site in an S3 bucket and then just changing the initial swfobject embed to point to the S3 instance of main.swf, passing in the S3 path as the "base" param to the embedded swf so that all dynamically loaded assets and swfs would also be sourced from s3. Dunno if that's related to the troubles I'm having.

    Read the article

  • Backbone Model fetched from Lithium controller is not loaded properly in bb Model

    - by Nilesh Kale
    I'm using backbone.js and Lithium. I'm fetching a model from the server by passing in a _id that is received as a hidden parameter on the page. The database MongoDB has stored the data correctly and can be viewed from console as: { "_id" : ObjectId("50bb82694fbe3de417000001"), "holiday_name" : "SHREE15", "description": "", "star_rating" : "3", "holiday_type" : "family", "rooms" : "1", "adults" : "2", "child" :"0", "emails" : "" } The Lithium Model class is so: class Holidays extends \lithium\data\Model { public $validates = array( 'holiday_name' => array( array( 'notEmpty', 'required' => true, 'message' => 'Please key-in a holiday name! (eg. Family trip for summer holidays)' ))); } The backbone Holiday model is so: window.app.IHoliday = Backbone.Model.extend({ urlRoot: HOLIDAY_URL, idAttribute: "_id", id: "_id", // Default attributes for the holiday. defaults: { }, // Ensure that each todo created has `title`. initialize: function(props) { }, The code for backbone/fetch is: var Holiday = new window.app.IHoliday({ _id: holiday_id }); Holiday.fetch( { success: function(){ alert('Holiday fetched:' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('HOLIDAY Fetched: \n' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('Holiday name:' + Holiday.get('holiday_name')); } } ); Lithium Controller Code is: public function load($holiday_id) { $Holiday = Holidays::find($holiday_id); return compact('Holiday'); } PROBLEM: The output of the backbone model fetched from server is as below and the Holiday model is not correctly 'formed' when data returns into backbone Model: HOLIDAY Fetched: {"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","Holiday":{"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","holiday_name":"SHREE15","description":"","star_rating":"3","holiday_type":"family","rooms":"1","adults":"2","child":"0","emails":""}} iplann...view.js (line 68) Holiday name:undefined Clearly there is some issue when the data is passed/translated from Lithium and loaded up as a model into backbone Holiday model. Is there something very obviously wrong in my code?

    Read the article

  • Reference-type conversion operators: asking for trouble?

    - by Ben
    When I compile the following code using g++ class A {}; void foo(A&) {} int main() { foo(A()); return 0; } I get the following error messages: > g++ test.cpp -o test test.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: test.cpp:10: error: invalid initialization of non-const reference of type ‘A&’ from a temporary of type ‘A’ test.cpp:6: error: in passing argument 1 of ‘void foo(A&)’ After some reflection, these errors make plenty of sense to me. A() is just a temporary value, not an assignable location on the stack, so it wouldn't seem to have an address. If it doesn't have an address, then I can't hold a reference to it. Okay, fine. But wait! If I add the following conversion operator to the class A class A { public: operator A&() { return *this; } }; then all is well! My question is whether this even remotely safe. What exactly does this point to when A() is constructed as a temporary value? I am given some confidence by the fact that void foo(const A&) {} can accept temporary values according to g++ and all other compilers I've used. The const keyword can always be cast away, so it would surprise me if there were any actual semantic differences between a const A& parameter and an A& parameter. So I guess that's another way of asking my question: why is a const reference to a temporary value considered safe by the compiler whereas a non-const reference is not?

    Read the article

  • Looking for examples of "real" uses of continuations

    - by Sébastien RoccaSerra
    I'm trying to grasp the concept of continuations and I found several small teaching examples like this one from the Wikipedia article: (define the-continuation #f) (define (test) (let ((i 0)) ; call/cc calls its first function argument, passing ; a continuation variable representing this point in ; the program as the argument to that function. ; ; In this case, the function argument assigns that ; continuation to the variable the-continuation. ; (call/cc (lambda (k) (set! the-continuation k))) ; ; The next time the-continuation is called, we start here. (set! i (+ i 1)) i)) I understand what this little function does, but I can't see any obvious application of it. While I don't expect to use continuations all over my code anytime soon, I wish I knew a few cases where they can be appropriate. So I'm looking for more explicitely usefull code samples of what continuations can offer me as a programmer. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • iPhone: addAnnotation not working when called from another view

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have two views, the first view has an MKMapView on it named ridesMap. The second view is just a view with a UITableView in it. When you click the save button in the second view, it calls a method from the first view: // Get my first views class MyRidesMapViewController *rideMapView = [[MyRidesMapViewController alloc] init]; // Call the method from my first views class that removes an annotation [rideMapView addAnno:newRidePlacemark.coordinate withTitle:rideTitle.text withSubTitle:address]; This correctly calls the addAnno method, which looks like: - (void)addAnno:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)anno withTitle:(NSString *)annoTitle withSubTitle:(NSString *)subTitle { Annotation *ano = [[[Annotation alloc] init] autorelease]; ano.coordinate = anno; ano.title = annoTitle; ano.subtitle = subTitle; if ([ano conformsToProtocol:@protocol(MKAnnotation)]) { NSLog(@"YES IT DOES!!!"); } [ridesMap addAnnotation:ano]; }//end addAnno This method creates an annotation which does conform to MKAnnotation, and it suppose to add that annotation to the map using the addAnnotation method. But, the annotation never gets added. I NEVER get any errors when the annotation does not get added. But it never appears when the method is called. Why would this be? It seems that I have done everything correctly, and that I am passing a correct MKAnnotation to the addAnnotation method. So, I don't get why it never drops a pin? Could it be because I am calling this method from another view? Why would that matter?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537  | Next Page >